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A Textualist Defense of the Major Questions Doctrine
Critics claim the doctrine is obviously at odds with textualism. But that isn't the case.
Over the last few years, the once-relatively obscure "major questions doctrine" (MQD) has become increasingly controversial, as the Supreme Court has relied on it in several major cases, such as the eviction moratorium decision, the OSHA large-employer vaccine mandate case, and West Virginia v. EPA. If yesterday's oral argument is any indication, the Court may also use it to strike down the Biden Administration's massive loan forgiveness plan.
The doctrine requires Congress to "speak clearly when authorizing an [executive branch] agency to exercise powers of vast 'economic and political significance.'" If such a broad delegation of power isn't clear, courts must rule against the executive's claims that it has the authority in question. Critics often argue that this rule is at odds with textualism in statutory interpretation - a theory to which many conservative judges are committed. For example, in her forceful dissent in West Virginia v. EPA, Justice Elena Kagan complains that MQD has become "a get-out-of-text free card." If the otherwise-best interpretation of a given text is that it grants the executive sweeping powers, why should MQD overturn it?
But, contrary to popular belief, there is in fact a textualist justification for MQD. Most textualists hold that statutory language should be interpreted in accordance with its "ordinary meaning." And they also recognize that ordinary meaning varies based on context. The same words and phrases might have different meanings depending on the situation. For example, prominent textualist legal scholar and judge Frank Easterbrook rejects "[a]n unadorned 'plain meaning' approach to interpretation [that] supposes that words have meanings divorced from their contexts." Instead, he emphasizes that "[l]anguage is a process of communication that works only when authors and readers share a set of rules and meanings." And those "rules and meanings" depend on context. Indeed, "clarity depends on context."
Such contextual considerations can justify the major questions doctrine. In most situations, people expect greater clarity and precision when granting an agent broad power, than when authorizing something narrower. For example, my wife and I recently hired a contractor to repair the old and somewhat dilapidated deck attached to our house. Imagine we signed an agreement giving the contractor the authority to "modernize and improve" the deck, and he then proceeded to tear the whole thing down and replace it with a bigger and more modern structure.
As a semantic matter "divorced from context," the contractor could argue that tearing down and replacing the deck counts as modernization and improvement. Indeed, it might result in greater modernization and improvement than a more limited repair job would have! But most ordinary readers of the agreement would readily understand that the contractor had exceeded his authority. Tearing down and replacing the entire deck is a big, expensive step that requires clearer and more specific authorization than a vague mandate to "modernize and improve." By contrast, if the contractor had taken the much more limited step of replacing a few decaying floor boards, most people would agree his actions were properly authorized, even though the agreement doesn't specifically mention such replacement.
The same point applies to statutory language. If anything, most ordinary readers probably assume that vast grants of legal authority over millions of people require even more clarity and precision than do contractual agreements like the deck replacement. For example, in the loan forgiveness case, the Biden Administration relies on a vague provision of the HEROES Act that allows the executive branch to "waive or modify" regulations governing federal student loans to justify cancellation of over $400 billion in student loan debt. Even if semantics "divorced from context" suggests that mass cancellation qualifies as a type of waiver or modification, contextual ordinary meaning indicates that such an enormous delegation of power requires greater precision.
The above analysis doesn't refute all possible objections to MQD. It obviously won't persuade non-textualist critics of the doctrine. Nor does it address claims that broad delegations to executive agencies are desirable, so the latter can use their (supposedly) objective scientific expertise to solve new social problems as they come up - especially in a world where Congress is often gridlocked.
Similarly, the argument made in this post doesn't address the problem that it will sometimes be difficult to tell whether a given assertion of executive authority qualifies as "major" or not. Here, I will only say that such fuzziness at the margin is a characteristic of many legal doctrines. It may be unavoidable in many situations where courts must rely on balancing tests and standards, rather than bright-line rules.
My argument also doesn't necessarily prove that any particular use of MQD to strike down a policy was justified. While I think the Court got it right in the eviction moratorium and vaccine mandate rulings, and would be justified in using MQD again in student loan forgiveness cases, West Virginia v. EPA strikes me as a tougher case; Justice Kagan's dissent makes a strong argument that the text of that statute is clear enough to satisfy MQD requirements.
Finally, the textualist rationale for MQD doesn't preclude other justifications for it. For example, I and others have also argued that the doctrine helps enforce constitutional nondelegation limits on the transfer of legislative authority to the executive.
But, despite its limited nature, the point made here does rebut one widespread criticism of MQD. Far from being inconsistent with ordinary-meaning textualism, the doctrine actually helps implement it.
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Now if only you would be so rational when it came to immigration issues.
Or any of them, actually.
Or, for that matter, any other problems with the MQD.
actually make any sense.
Which is another SCOTUS-devised doctrine that is consistently partisan in it's application and has no basis in the powers or limits the Constitution gives Congress.
The only limiting nature to it is "what does SCOTUS think it can get away with".
Face it dudes, SCOTUS made some shit up. At no point has MQD, QI, Standing, non-delegation limits, and so-on, actually been incorporated into law or the Constitution itself. For all y'all's vaunted respect for the Constitution, your behavior outs you as opportunists all the same.
non-delegation is in the Constitution, each branch is given its separate power [legislative, executive and judicial].
That’s not what anyone thought in 1787. See Bagley and Mortensen.
"not what anyone thought"
Its what they wrote.
They actually didn’t write that power can’t be delegated. You’re inferring that. And they never behaved as if they did as scholars have demonstrated pretty clearly.
Yeah they did.
"All legislative Powers herein granted shall be vested in a Congress of the United States, which shall consist of a Senate and House of Representatives."
…where does it say: you can’t delegate any authority that’s been vested? Again it’s at best implied. And the first Congresses generally didn’t think it meant there was a prohibition on Congress directing executive officials to make rules.
All legislative Powers herein granted shall be vested in a Congress of the United States, which shall consist of a Senate and House of Representatives.”
Odd that liberals cant understand that basic constitutional principle and why they think the major question doctrine is wrong
Is it wrong because its a crappy name for a basic constitutional principle? or is it wrong because it prevents the implementation of policy not authorized by statute?
It certainly requires adherence to the basic constitutional principle that Kaz cited
That doesn't do the work you think it does. The Constitution says Congress has all the legislative powers granted by the Constitution but it doesn't say what Congress can do with those legislative powers. Congress can't alienate its legislative powers, but delegation, done by Congressional legislation, which Congress can take back when it wants by a later legislative act, is a different matter -- at least as long as there is some discernible direction from Congress on the scope of the delegation. Lots of people, including some Supreme Court justices, think their personal notion of how much delegation is too much is embodied in the Constitution.
your missing the point - If congress delegates the authority, you are correct. The point is that the MQD has kicked in when the executive branch has tried to enact policies not authorized by congress either directly or via delegation.
Nah. At best it’s implied. But there is literally nothing that says Congress can’t create and fund an executive agency and tell it to make rules.
And good thing, because Congress hates getting into the weeds and actually doing that stuff. That’s why they’ve made so many agencies! And whataya know, SCOTUS doesn’t have a problem most of the time. And it’s entirely
partisanrandom when they do!It’s almost like it’s a poorly defined, vaguely applied, made-up “doctrine” that allows SCOTUS to insert itself into the relationship between the Executive and Legislative branch when neither asked for or required the intrusion.
But there is literally nothing that says Congress can’t create and fund an executive agency and tell it to make rules.
Which is probably not a coincidence, because that is literally what the first Congress did.
“SCOTUS to insert itself into the relationship between the Executive and Legislative branch when neither asked for or required the intrusion.”
This is a good point. And it’s especially annoying when these things are framed as Congress-empowering while undoing what Congress actually wanted. The CFPB case from the fifth circuit where they made up a new rule about how Congress funds agencies completely disempowered Congress’s ability to make creative policy solutions.
Your comments would be greatly improved with a positive fact-to-assertion ratio, rather than relying exclusively on the latter.
Dude, we're talking about SCOTUS-invented doctrine.
It's assertion all the way down.
Are you saying the Supreme Court made something up without basis in the Constitution? Say that isn't so!
Delegation is often necessary, but we should reject any interpretation by which Congress could adopt an Enabling Act empowering the President (or bureaucrats or industrial cartels) to make whatever laws he wants (even if he remains constrained in theory by the Bill of Rights, unlike the Enabling Act I’m thinking of).
If an Enabling Act would be unconstitutional, then we’re acknowledging some kind of nondelegation doctrine. At what point short of an Enabling Act does Congress go too far?
Also, I don’t think it’s a coincidence that the Supreme Court limited Congress’ delegation power as Congress passed Enabling Act style laws in the 1930s. The Schechter decision was unanimous, including liberal justices.
We live in a culture of disingenuous justification of actions and preferences. We are all very good at making excuses for our behavior.
Yes, I see how this rule could be used to provide an excuse for what you are doing. No, that was quite obviously not what anyone had in mind when the rule was written.
This is clearly and obviously a case of "I want to do this, how can I find a justification?" vs. "Susie has been called off to war and is going to miss a loan payment."
The "major questions doctrine" exists because the court is too chicken to say nothing in the Constitution permits executive agencies to create binding regulations.
The textual argument is that the legislative power belongs to Congress and cannot be delegated, no more than the President can delegate executive power to Congress or Congress can sit as a court [other than in impeachment]
If that’s the case it doesn’t permit the judicial branch to do it either. The Rules Enabling Act would be unconstitutional as would all the civil, criminal, appellate, bankruptcy, evidence, local, and Supreme Court rules of practice.
Luckily your interpretation is at odds with history (see Bagley/Mortensen) and common sense.
Internal rules of court are part of the judicial power.
How is that different than agency rules meant to execute the laws effectively? Especially when Congress has directed the agency to make such rules? Seems like you want the judicial branch to make rules that have binding legal effects but not executive agencies. Which is weird inconsistency under your textual theory.
Well exactly, regulations to enable Congress's legislative will. But Congress's intent must be clearly expressed.
The Biden Administration kind of gave away when they kept tweaking there regulation in the first few weeks to make it more difficult for the early plaintiffs to show standing.
They knew from the beginning they didn't have authority to forgive half a trillion in student loans.
“People think that the president of the United States has the power for debt forgiveness, He does not. He can postpone, he can delay, but he does not have that power. That has to be an act of Congress.”
-Nancy Pelosi
Oh so we’re doing drafting history and associated political statements now? The kind of information the court rejected in Trump v Hawaii? Interesting.
In any event: tweaking to avoid standing issues also indicates they didn’t want to cause any harm to the few people who might actually aggrieved or waste time on pointless suits. Doesn’t really say whether they think it’s legal or not. Plus it’s not like the challengers aren’t playing standing games too: I mean the theories are extremely out there and rely on speculative harms or harms that destroying the program won’t even redress. The notice and comment complaint from student borrowers is particularly egregious because they claim they want more debt relief not half measures but the remedy they seek: eliminate the program, does not actually redress the claimed harm,
As for Nancy’s statement: a speech that’s not even on the floor about the scope of a law passed twenty years ago isn’t anything. That’s not even legislative history from the drafting. That’s one person’s opinion that counts as much as anyone else’s: not at all.
Internal Court rules just affect the courts.
Internal Congress rules just affect Congress.
But when an executive agency makes certain regulations which affect people outside just that executive branch, that affects broad sweeps of the public.
Who would hire a contractor without getting an estimate of the cost? That's more likely to prevent an excessive project than some "major questions doctrine" for home repair.
The argument seems to be a general refutation of textualism.
I have nothing to say about MQD, but I find the deck example to be very weird.
If I signed a contract that gave contractor the authority to "modernize and improve" my deck, and all the contractor did was "replacing a few decaying floor boards," I would feel as if I had been cheated. Yes, replacing a few decaying floorboards is "improvement" vs. status quo, but that could hardly be called "modernization."
What kind of a man hires someone to build his deck?
A one-armed man?
I feel like there's a joke in here.
Textualist justification or not, with the exception of the eviction moratorium case this SCOTUS has turned it into a partisan catchall to strike down things they don't like regardless of how clear the statutory text is when they can't come up with a better justification for the politically correct preordained outcome they must reach. WV v EPA was particularly egregious.
The problem with your example is the statutory text did not support the reach of the epa - that is why the epa lost the case
In most situations, people expect greater clarity and precision when granting an agent broad power, than when authorizing something narrower.
Wow, this is weak. I don't even think it's true, much less operable.
You yourself say you don't see a great limiting principle so you can't analyze any particular issue. Congrats - your con-textualism has created unlimited judicial discretion!
That's convenient. It turns out that both textualism and the major questions doctrine mean whatever conservatives want them to mean.
Are you mad that the conservatives are horning in on your racket?
Tu quoque is not the sign you care about your own side's integrity.
"The doctrine requires Congress to "speak clearly when authorizing an [executive branch] agency to exercise powers of vast 'economic and political significance.'""
A better explanation of the MQ doctrine - Execute the law passed by congress .
Congress makes law, not the president - its quite simple
You're describing every law. The President must execute every law Congress passes.
MQ calls out certain laws for special treatment above that, so the doctrine must be something other than what you say.
It's worse then that, actually.
MQD only comes in to play if you are executing the law as written. Because if you aren't, they can rule on that basis and don't need MQD.
EscherEnigma 2 hours ago
Flag Comment Mute User
It’s worse then that, actually.
MQD only comes in to play if you are executing the law as written.
Esch - you comment is completely false
Exactly Correct
That’s all the major question doctrine does/ follow the law passed by Congress
Are y trying to argue the mqd is wrong because it’s says follow the law passed by Congress
Keep you argument consistent and honest
MQ calls out certain laws.
So it cannot just be saying something that already applies to all laws.
Sarcastr0 2 mins ago
Flag Comment Mute User
"MQ calls out certain laws.
So it cannot just be saying something that already applies to all laws."
Sarcastreo - you are have trouble with the basic concept - the major question doctrine doesnt change anything - All it says is that the executive branch has to follow the statute - nothing more - nothing less
I think you're missing the point.
If the executive branch didn't follow the statute then the administrative action would get thrown out on that basis.
Where MQ comes into play is when the executive branch does follow the statute but the court decides that they weren't really doing it in the context that congress intended.
For instance, Congress clearly gave the executive branch the power to "waive and modify" student loans in the context of a declared emergency. And that's exactly what Biden did, waived $400B in loans in the context of the COVID-19 emergency.
Now, he did if for a reason that Congress didn't intend in order to enact a fairly unrelated policy goal, so striking down with MQ seems like a good idea.
But Trump did the same thing when he declared a border emergency and started redirecting military funds to build a wall, yet the court let that go through.
That's the problem with MQ, it's so vague that it essentially comes down to whether or not the Justices think it's a big deal, which plays right into bias.
myself 8 hours ago
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"Where MQ comes into play is when the executive branch does follow the statute but the court decides that they weren’t really doing it in the context that congress intended."
No - the Major Question doctrine comes into play when the executive branch makes up a reason to do something not authorized by statute. nothing more nothing less.
You are utterly wrong about MQD. It comes into play when there is a *Major Question.*
You are describing regular judicial review of executive action.
A major question – like when the executive branch tries to enact policies, laws etc not authorized by congress
Basic and simple constitution law.
Seems like the sole objection is the court blocking policy not authorized by statute.
So the major question doctrine only comes into play after the action is already found to be ultra vires?
Courts already must set aside all such actions, MQD or no. Your definition remains redundant.
Sarcastr0 18 mins ago
Flag Comment Mute User
So the major question doctrine only comes into play after the action is already found to be ultra vires?
Courts already must set aside all such actions, MQD or no. Your definition remains redundant.
Well yes redundant - because it has to be repeated for you to grasp the basic constitutional priniciple.
Why are you have such a hard time grasping a basic constitutional principle ?
@Joe_dallas
You're still missing something quite fundamental to this.
The only time that MQ comes into play is when:
a) The court decides that congress DID authorize the action.
b) However, the court thinks the "action" was significant enough that it would have been been more central to the legislation if it was congress's actual intent.
Basically, the court is saying that the executive took advantage of a loophole to do more than congress wanted them to so they're taking it on themselves to decide it's a loophole and close it.
myself 38 mins ago
Flag Comment Mute User
"The only time that MQ comes into play is when:
a) The court decides that congress DID authorize the action."
Your dishonest is Quite telling when you have to intentionally misrepresent the facts to prove your point.
In every case the Supreme court has decided based on the MQ doctrine is when congress did not authorize the action.
What is it with anti constitutionalists such as yourself, sarcastro that you have to misrepresent what the MQ doctrine does inorder to claim it is wrong.
As you can see by Joe’s oddly-formulated posts that no matter how clearly and concisely a person attempts to explain things around here, it will never matter to the folks who require the explanation.
Well, at least I tried.
Instead, he emphasizes that "[l]anguage is a process of communication that works only when authors and readers share a set of rules and meanings." And those "rules and meanings" depend on context. Indeed, "clarity depends on context."
Yes. But with the caveat that the context in question must be the context of creation relied upon by the author at the time the text was created. The author's context cannot be adjusted to match it to a reader's interpretation. Which puts on the reader the often extremely difficult burden to recover that author's context from a historical past, then use that to replace in his own mind a long-relied-upon present-minded context—a replacement task presenting a challenge which does not come naturally to most readers. In the case of historical texts, it will typically require a professional historian to accomplish it. A present-minded context cannot be used except in the case of a present-minded creation—one familiar to everyone at the time of creation, and still familiar to everyone now.
In most situations, people expect greater clarity and precision when granting an agent broad power, than when authorizing something narrower.
No. That could often be true. But it cannot be relied upon. It is often enough not true that it must be demonstrated case-by-case. For instance, to take that as a reliable principle to be applied everywhere would make nonsense of the Necessary and Proper clause. For another instance, in the case of a 17th century New England colonial statute, if a narrow construal of text delivered an interpretation which implied blasphemy, it would be unwise to accept that. An example to illustrate is the surprising but accurate historical finding that colonial magistrates believed that in criminal cases non-Christian Indians must be accommodated with more leniency than Christians. The latter were held to be bound legally, outside the text of the law, by religious commandments that it would be blasphemous to suppose applied to the former.
The major questions doctrine is simply a way for those Justices who have disavowed legislative intent as an interpretive tool to use that intent when it suits them while disregarding clear indications of such intent when they prove inconvenient.
bratschewurst 9 hours ago
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The major questions doctrine is simply a way for those Justices who have disavowed legislative intent as an interpretive tool to use that intent when it suits them while disregarding clear indications of such intent when they prove inconvenient."
MQ doctrine - More of a case of preventing the executive branch from implementing policy when there was zero congressional intent.
How should courts discern congressional intent, other than parsing the text of the legislation?
parsing the text is correct -
Yes, I agree. And the point is that federal courts have been parsing the text and judging whether the text enables the executive action for a long time now. There was no need to come up with a new doctrine like MQD. Therefore, MQD is only necessary when the text of the enabling legislation doesn't clearly rule out the contested action.
The next Republican executive should declare that no registered Republican as of that date has to pay any income taxes. It'll be "tax relief."
Not sure why this comes to mind, but to me it seems related. For a while it seemed impossible to get up in the morning without encountering another story about the Court asserting that every power granted to Congress must have some limit. Which could be read on the flip side to say no power granted to Congress could be plenary.
Thinking like that seemed to produce a lot of questions in oral arguments, questions where a justice demanded that a defender of some law tell the Court what was the limit of the power granted to Congress. Apparently, that was a question so intimidating that no one I ever heard of told the Court what I thought they ought to hear in some cases, "There is no limit. The power is plenary. On this question—excluding actions the Constitution specifically prohibits—the Congress has power to do whatever is required to achieve fully the constitutionally legitimate objective the law addresses."
Everyone seemed to think that if you said something like that, of course you ought to lose your case. I never understood that. For one thing, it seemed to teach the opposite of the principle announced by the Necessary and Proper Clause. For another, it seemed to suggest that while every power granted to Congress was limited, no power granted to the Court was limited.
Which may have something to do with why I cannot understand what justifies the so-called major questions doctrine. I cannot understand why it is the end of the earth if the Court sometimes must acknowledge there has been a major congressional action over which the Court has no jurisdiction. And I think that question of Court jurisdiction must be limited by pre-existing principles. The jurisdiction question should not be bypassed by saying, "The Court can step in because this issue is so important."
To do that not only blows up the notion of separation of powers. It also reinforces in an uncontrolled way the notion I mentioned above, that no power of Congress can be plenary.
You seem to be writing “proper” out of the necessary and proper clause.
For instance if say a future Congress decided that its very important for commerce that all children can read at 4th grade level by their 11th birthday. To do so they decide its “necessary” to remove children from their homes and put them in an institutional setting to meet that goal. I would hope any out would decide however never that is, that its hardly a proper exercise of congressional power, no matter how necessary it is to achieve an important governmental goal.
One of the first cases I remember the “limiting” principle was brought up, was when Solicitor Kagen was asked ‘what is the limiting principle in banning books 60 days before an election?’. Her answer was there isn’t one, but we could just depend on the government that they would not do that, even if the law allowed it.
I’m sure you would be comfortable with that, but most of us, including a majority of the court were not.
You seem to be writing “proper” out of the necessary and proper clause. . . .
I would hope any out would decide however never that is, that its hardly a proper exercise of congressional power, no matter how necessary it is to achieve an important governmental goal.
With allowances for gibberish which is probably not your fault, you nevertheless misread the historical meaning of, "proper," in that context. There might well be something else in the Constitution to forbid doing what you example. The Necessary and Proper Clause would not forbid it.
"Proper," in that context had then a meaning quite close to, "sufficient," in our own time. Thus, "necessary and sufficient," as a present approximation. John Marshall made it unambiguous that the context intended for the constitutional use was that one, and not any alternative usage which refers to questions of propriety.
Which means that to forbid an otherwise constitutional means on the basis that it could not be deemed, "proper," meant that the means was not reasonably chosen to get the result intended, because it did not provide a power to get the job done.
It did not mean some other consideration restricted usage of the means on the basis of impropriety. Impropriety in a constitutional context was and is a thing. But it gets dealt with in terms of other specifics which would be named separately, such as an infringement of this right, or a burden on that privilege.
You can hear an echo of that past usage in modern British parlance even today. A "Proper tea shop," is not one meant to be prim and mannerly. It is one which offers the products, staff, equipment, and skills to supply a wide range of tea preferences in a manner to satisfy a variety of customer needs.
I’ve seen this at the local level involving a controversial development project. State issues one of dozens of required licenses. Months later developer acts on it. Opponents, including the local press, only learn of the license when the work begins because there’s no notification requirement involved. But they screech at the municipality, not the state.
The city is incompetent! The city dropped the ball! The city betrayed the public!
Except the city had no jurisdiction and no responsibility over the state-issued license at all. The argument? “Well, it’s such a controversial matter that the city should have issued notice of the license anyway.”
“Most textualists hold that statutory language should be interpreted in accordance with its ‘ordinary meaning.’ And they also recognize that ordinary meaning varies based on context. The same words and phrases might have different meanings depending on the situation.”
I don’t think you guys can even hear yourselves any more. And I’m envious.
This needs more work, Ilya.
While it is true that words don't typically have a meaning that can be fully understood without reference to the context in which they are used, the point in describing an analysis as "textualist" is to limit reference to these contextual factors. For instance, in the hypothetical scenarios you've laid out, the factors you've captured under the rubric of "context" might, by other analysts, more accurately be described as "purposes" and "intentions." You're asking questions that are perfectly ordinary when interpreting contracts, because there the question is always what the bargained-for exchange was, whether there was a "meeting of the minds," etc. But that isn't typically what constitutional scholars are trying to describe when they specifically say an analysis is "textualist."
That's not to say that there's anything wrong with interpreting a statutory or constitutional provision in light of its historical "context," including a holistic understanding of the statutory or constitutional scheme and the intentions of the parties drafting the language. Indeed, for a long time, that's how the Supreme Court did things. But it's disingenuous to describe that kind of interpretation and analysis as "textualist." No, it very specifically is not.
You will need to draw a more precise distinction between contextual factors that are properly termed "textualist," and those that might be better termed "purposivist" or "intentionalist," for this to come off as anything other than hand-waving in a heads-we-win, tails-you-lose "textualism" that permits judges to adjust the level of abstraction to reach desired outcomes.
“Libs flustered and frustrated by unassailable conservative legal theory”…
https://youtu.be/CfCiW4UhqLo
I think there are two different rationales for the Major Questions Doctrine. The first is that it's a form of non-delegation doctrine. In other words, Congress can delegate to the executive branch (and related agencies) the power to fill in the gaps of a statute (as long as there is a guiding principle or whatever the term is). However, they cannot delegate major questions. This feels to me to have some originalist tendencies, but also strikes me as a compromise between the two sides of the debate on this issue that might not be rooted in either theory.
The other is a principle of statutory interpretation (or an exception to Chevron). I had originally understood it to be the latter. Basically, Congress is presumed to have delegated to agencies the ability to fill in the gap, but is not presumed to have delegated to agencies the ability to regulate on major questions. If that's the case, it means that, in appropriate statutes, Congress clearly could have chosen broad language precisely because they did want to delegate to the agency to answer the major questions. As a statutory interpretation technique, it strikes me as unsound and definitely not as supported by historic practice. But it's also easier for Congress to circumvent the Major Questions Doctrine (just say "this doctrine doesn't apply in this case"). If it's the former, it's a Constitutionally required rule so it can't be circumvented. Obviously, it's not a rule that follows clearly from the text of the Constitution, but it might follow from the structure of the Constitution.
I just wish courts were clearer on what the doctrine is based upon.
I think the better way to view it is that Congress writes intentionally broad legislation so that the Executive can be flexible enough to do what it needs to. But broadly written legislation means that there's lots of loopholes that give the Executive authority to do things Congress didn't really mean to authorize. Major Questions Doctrine tries to stop the Executive from closing loopholes.
Viewed in that light the intent is quite justified.
What bothers me with the Major Questions Doctrine is two things. First, the whole point of loopholes is typically "if it's in the contract it's allowed", so MQD basically throws out standard legal practice for a special class of legislation. Second, they only throw it out when it hits some undefined threshold, which isn't a very solid basis for legal reasoning and is very susceptible to bias on part of the judges.
In fact, the whole "Major Questions" doctrine seems almost designed to exploit the courts in a partisan basis. Minor executive actions that seem to be a loophole aren't big enough to be overruled. And anything big enough to be a "Major Question" inevitably ends up in front of the SCOTUS which will have a Conservative majority for the foreseeable future.
In fact, the whole “Major Questions” doctrine seems almost designed to exploit the courts in a partisan basis. Minor executive actions that seem to be a loophole aren’t big enough to be overruled. And anything big enough to be a “Major Question” inevitably ends up in front of the SCOTUS which will have a Conservative majority for the foreseeable future.
I've gotten really cynical about conservative jurisprudence over the last several years. I would argue that there is no "seems almost designed" going on when it comes to partisan bias. Being able to leverage conservative majorities on the SCOTUS and in many circuits really is the point of many of these doctrines.
"...I and others have also argued that the doctrine helps enforce constitutional nondelegation limits on the transfer of legislative authority to the executive."
We are really through the looking glass when one made up doctrine is justified because it helps enforce another made up doctrine.
This piece struck me as a little ‘meh’ by the usual Volokh pedantic standards.
At the end of the day, the “textualist” argument for MCD is quite simple. What’s the executive’s job under Article II? Simple – to “take care that the laws be faithfully executed.”
Where I think the argument becomes more interesting is when you consider what an “originalist” argument for MCD would be – there’s a much more robust history there, beginning with Article I’s preeminence of congress as the ‘first voice’ on matters of policy, etc. Beyond that, the early republic history actually provides a nice example in the form of the Louisiana Purchase, where Jefferson wrung his hands quite a bit about his ability to negotiate first, and announce later, but got comfortable not simply because of the Article II treaty power, but also because of the requirement of Senate ratification and the need for Article I appropriations from the Congress as a whole.
Sometimes, originalist arguments are illustrated quite well because the parties actually followed the rules, without the need for the Court to have resolved a dispute and to say so.
For example, my wife and I recently hired a contractor to repair the old and somewhat dilapidated deck attached to our house. Imagine we signed an agreement giving the contractor the authority to "modernize and improve" the deck, and he then proceeded to tear the whole thing down and replace it with a bigger and more modern structure.
If you had signed an agreement with a contractor giving them no directions regarding the extent of the work and budget, you would have been stupid. You are not stupid, so you undoubtedly required a written estimate and the contract specified a budget and what to do if it looked like the contractor would need to exceed the budget to deal with something unexpected, all before any work was done.
This analogy actually goes against the MQD because reasonably experienced and careful people don't give discretion to someone without first spelling out the limits of that discretion. I think that courts would assume that Congress was careful to include any limits to an agencies discretion that they wanted to exist in the law authorizing the agency to act. Otherwise, the courts would be substituting their own sense of how to limit an agency's discretion rather than that of Congress.