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Bill of Rights

Why James Madison Wanted Greater Limits on States' Rights

The “father of the Constitution” worried about federal and state overreach.

Damon Root | 8.6.2026 7:00 AM

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08.05.26-v1 | Illustration: National Archives and Records Administration/Midjourney
(Illustration: National Archives and Records Administration/Midjourney)

In its 1833 decision in Barron v. Baltimore, the U.S. Supreme Court reaffirmed something about the American constitutional order that had been widely understood since the founding. Namely, the Supreme Court reaffirmed that the Bill of Rights applied only to the federal government and placed no limits on the authority of the states.

The First Amendment was actually quite explicit about it. "Congress shall make no law," it reads, "respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press, or the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the Government for a redress of grievances."

Under the original Constitution, in other words, a state government was free to make laws that abridged the rights of speech, press, religion, and assembly without raising any First Amendment problems. Unless its own state constitution said otherwise, a state was free to impose such restrictive laws within its own state borders.

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All of that changed, however, with the 1868 ratification of the 14th Amendment. "No State shall make or enforce any law," the 14th Amendment says, "which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any State deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws."

That language was understood to apply the Bill of Rights and other unenumerated rights against the states. The 14th Amendment was needed, explained Sen. Jacob Howard (R-Mich.), who introduced the amendment in the Senate in 1866 and successfully managed its passage, because the "mass of privileges, immunities, and rights" secured by the Constitution "do not operate in the slightest degree as a restraint or prohibition upon State legislation." According to Howard, "the great object of the first section of this [14th] amendment is, therefore, to restrict the power of the States and compel them at all times to respect these great fundamental guarantees."

The Supreme Court finally got around to affirming that 1868-era understanding of the First Amendment's limitations on state action in the 1925 case of Gitlow v. New York. Since Gitlow, it has been settled SCOTUS case law that the First Amendment binds both the federal government and the states.

Had one prominent founding father gotten his way, it never would have taken so long.

On June 8, 1789, James Madison announced the batch of proposed constitutional amendments that would eventually become enshrined as the Bill of Rights. One of Madison's would-be amendments, however, did not make the final cut, as it failed in the Senate after passing the House of Representatives. Here is what that lost Madisonian amendment to the Constitution would have said: "No state shall violate the equal rights of conscience, or the freedom of the press, or the trial by jury in criminal cases."

Put differently, Madison wanted several parts of the Bill of Rights to apply equally against the federal government and the states. Why? "Because it must be admitted, on all hands," Madison said, "that the state governments are as liable to attack these invaluable privileges as the general [national] government is, and therefore ought to be as cautiously guarded against."

Madison was right to worry about state attacks on freedom of the press. In 1831, the Georgia legislature authorized a $5,000 bounty "to be paid by the Governor to any person or persons arresting and bringing to trial, under the laws of the State, and prosecuting to conviction, the editor or publisher of 'the Liberator,' or any other person who shall utter, publish, or circulate said paper in Georgia."

The Liberator was the pioneering antislavery newspaper published by the Boston abolitionist William Lloyd Garrison. The state of Georgia literally made it a crime for Garrison and his allies to speak out against slavery. And Georgia was not the only one to do so. Other slaveholding states imposed similar bans on antislavery speech in the decades leading up to the Civil War.

It should probably go without saying, but every one of those laws was a blatant attack on bedrock free speech principles. Yet none of that proslavery state censorship violated the First Amendment at the time because the First Amendment did not (yet) bind the states.

Madison's unsuccessful constitutional amendment would have fixed that problem. He wisely recognized that the great liberties spelled out in the Bill of Rights were at risk from all levels of government. In a way, Madison's preferred solution might even be said to have prefigured some of what was eventually accomplished via the 14th Amendment.

Unfortunately, the "father of the Constitution" failed to sway his colleagues on this crucial point. It would fall to the framers and ratifiers of the 14th Amendment to finish the job that Madison began.

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Damon Root is a senior editor at Reason and the author of three books, including A Glorious Liberty: Frederick Douglass and the Fight for an Antislavery Constitution (Potomac Books). His latest book is Emancipation War: The Fall of Slavery and the Coming of the Thirteenth Amendment (Potomac Books).

Bill of RightsSupreme CourtConstitution14th AmendmentLaw & GovernmentCivil LibertiesHistoryFree SpeechFederal governmentState GovernmentsState's Rights
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  1. Syd Henderson   2 months ago

    However, if Madison had gotten his amendment with those words, courts could interpret it that other parts of the Bill of Rights did not apply to the States. it needed to be more general. And perhaps it couldn't be since it would make the establishment clause apply to the states as well.

  2. JFree   2 months ago

    14th amendment didn't finish the job. That same year a 'rule' called Dillon's rule stated that state government has complete control over local government - Municipal corporations owe their origin to, and derive their powers and rights wholly from, the legislature. It breathes into them the breath of life, without which they cannot exist. As it creates, so may it destroy. If it may destroy, it may abridge and control.

    A couple years later a case now called either home rule or the Cooley doctrine, expanded on an idea that self-governance arises from the individual not the state (which in the US derives its right or scope from the King during the colonial era). That the right to control local government belongs to the individuals who form it and it cannot be take away by the state from above.

    That was not an issue that was 'ripe' in the immediate aftermath of the civil war - but it is ripe at the point where states themselves are frozen. The US Constitution is not capable of distinguishing anything between the individual and a state frozen by the king - and that state is the only subsidiary form of government acknowledged by the Constitution - so it chose the first rule in 1907 in Hunter v City of Pittsburgh. The state, therefore, at its pleasure, may modify or withdraw all such powers, may take without compensation such property, hold it itself, or vest it in other agencies, expand or contract the territorial area, unite the whole or a part of it with another municipality, repeal the charter and destroy the corporation. All this may be done, conditionally or unconditionally, with or without the consent of the citizens, or even against their protest. In all these respects the state is supreme, and its legislative body, conforming its action to the state Constitution, may do as it will, unrestrained by any provision of the Constitution of the United States.

    That has been - since 1907 - the real unresolvable conflict in politics - between, generally, rural (where there is little interest in any level of governance separate from county-level) and urban (where local issues do require some intermediate institution of governance that isn't the county).

    States should be more easily allowed to 'break up'. Lower-level entities should be allowed to 'choose' whether their individual rights should be represented in the Senate - or by the state.

  3. Stupid Government Tricks   2 months ago

    It's nice to notice "Congress shall make no law ..." only applies to the feds, not the states. Now do "... shall not be infringed."

  4. See.More   2 months ago

    In its 1833 decision in Barron v. Baltimore, the U.S. Supreme Court reaffirmed something about the American constitutional order that had been widely understood since the founding. Namely, the Supreme Court reaffirmed that the Bill of Rights applied only to the federal government and placed no limits on the authority of the states[...]

    And that decision was wrong at the outset, as well as the wide understanding, was wrong.

    Article 5

    [...] Amendments... shall be valid to all Intents and Purposes, as Part of this Constitution[...]

    Article VI, Clause 2:

    [...] This Constitution... shall be the supreme Law of the Land; and the Judges in every State shall be bound thereby[...]

    When taken together, these two article establish that, with the exception of the 1st Amendment with its "Congress shall make no law" language, the Bill of Rights is (a.) part of the Constitution and (b.) therefore, part of "the supreme Law of the Land" to which the States are bound.

    The incorrect understanding comes from the form of the origionally proposed amendments drafted by James Madison. They were presented as errata to the Constitution. That is, they would have added to or altered the original Constitution text. Thusly, those changes were proposed to Articles of the Constitution that only applied to the federal government.

    In debate it was pointed out that it would mean rewriting the Constitution to incorporate the edits. There was concern that rewriting the Constitution would require ratifying it again. When it was determined that amending the Constitution via errata would muck things up, they opted for what we wound up with. Essentially an Appendix of additions (the Bill of Rights, prohibition, etc.) and modifications (16th and 17th Amendments, etc.).

    While the original intent of the proposed Amendments was to alter the Articles of the existing Constitution, which would have only limited the federal government, that is not what they ratified. They neglected to codify any intent to limit their scope to the federal government in any way, excepting the First Amendment, in the ratified Amendments.

    Since the Second through Tenth Amendments lack any language, whatsoever, that clearly limits their scope or alters any existing Articles of the Constitution, they did not, as ratified, "[apply] only to the federal government." Article V makes them "Part of this Constitution" and therefore, per Article VI, "the supreme Law of the Land" which are binding upon the States.

    1. Stupid Government Tricks   2 months ago

      I would rather Article V specified changing the text instead of adding amendments. But they wrote Article V; if they were worried about re-ratifying the Constitution for textual revisions, they could have addressed that in Article V. But they didn't, so it seems like a pretty weak excuse.

      The Second Amendment specifically says "shall not be infringed", in contrast to the First Amendment's "Congress ..." and in contrast to the others saying nothing.

      The Constitution seems to me a very poorly written document, for things like that. Article I Section 6 immunizes legislators from arrest, but not impeachment, and why lump "Breach of the Peace" in with Treason and Felony? Why only while in Attendance at the Session and "in going to and returning from"? Why not while at home too?

      Article II Section 4 describes impeachment of "The President, Vice President and all civil Officers of the United States" for "Treason, Bribery, or other high Crimes and Misdemeanors" -- why not Felonies, what are high crimes, why include misdemeanors, why not include breach of the peace, and why does it not immunize them from arrest?

      Then there's the Fourth Amendment's "persons, houses, papers, and effects" which led to discovering in 1924 -- 133 years later -- that this did not include the open fields around a house. Why not just say "property"?

  5. nicmart   2 months ago

    States have powers, people have rights.

  6. BigFish92672   2 months ago

    Freedom of Association is one of the first Rights liberals destroyed.

    "The War Between The States established at least this principle, that the federal government is, through its courts, the final judge of its own powers..." -Woodrow Wilson

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