Supreme Court Confirms That State Legislatures Can't Ignore the Constitution When Writing Election Rules
Chief Justice John Roberts decisively rejected the independent state legislature theory.

When it comes to setting the rules for elections, the Supreme Court ruled on Tuesday, state legislatures are not allowed to ignore the Constitution or evade judicial review.
It may not have been the most politically divisive issue in this year's Supreme Court docket—that honor probably goes to the still-yet-to-be-announced review of President Joe Biden's student loan forgiveness scheme—but Moore v. Harper was the Court's most potentially seismic case. It raised a fundamental question about the balance of power in election law: do state courts possess the authority to review and overturn state legislatures' decisions about the rules for federal elections?
They do, the Supreme Court unambiguously declared in Tuesday's ruling. "When state legislatures prescribe the rules concerning federal elections, they remain subject to the ordinary exercise of state judicial review," Chief Justice John Roberts wrote in the 6-3 ruling.
That might seem like constitutional common sense. After all, anyone with a passing understanding of constitutional law knows that Marbury v. Madison confirmed that courts have the power to review the actions of the other branches of government. But the crux of the Moore case rested on a novel theory bouncing around conservative legal circles: the "independent state legislature theory."
That theory has its basis in Article I, Section 4 of the U.S. Constitution, which explicitly grants state legislatures control over "The Times, Places and Manner of holding Elections for Senators and Representatives." Advocates of the independent state legislature theory argue that the Constitution places those decisions—including the drawing of congressional districts—solely in the hands of state lawmakers, with no space for courts to intervene. Therefore, the argument goes, there are no constitutional or legal constraints on state legislators when setting the rules for elections.
A redistricting battle in North Carolina became the testing ground for that idea. Last year, the North Carolina Supreme Court struck down a proposed congressional district map because it was an unfair political gerrymander. The court imposed a new map drawn by its hand-picked experts. Republicans and Democrats each won seven of the state's 14 congressional seats in the subsequent midterm election, held with court-drawn lines. The Republican lawmakers who drew the rejected map asked the U.S. Supreme Court to intervene and offered the independent state legislature theory in their arguments.
With a conservative majority on the Supreme Court, some liberal commentators feared that the independent state legislature theory was about to be enshrined nationally. It didn't help that some of then-President Donald Trump's cronies tossed around the theory as part of various schemes to overturn the results of the 2020 presidential election—even though the Elections Clause quite clearly applies only to congressional and senatorial elections, and it does not allow state lawmakers to intervene after an election has been held.
But Tuesday's ruling soundly rejected the independent state legislature theory.
"The Elections Clause does not vest exclusive and independent authority in state legislatures to set the rules regarding federal elections," Roberts wrote in the majority opinion, in which he was joined by Justices Amy Coney Barrett, Ketanji Brown Jackson, Elena Kagan, Brett Kavanaugh, and Sonya Sotomayor. (Separately, Kavanaugh also offered a concurring opinion.)
The importance of judicial review is one of the "fundamental principles" of America's constitutional system, Roberts wrote. "The Elections Clause does not carve out an exception to that fundamental principle."
The cross-ideological nature of the 6-3 ruling is a major blow to the independent state legislature theory's advocates—and to its critics who expected the conservative majority on the Court to rubberstamp a radical reinterpretation of the Constitution.
It's also worth noting that Justice Clarence Thomas does not argue for the independent state legislature theory in his dissent. Instead, he argues that the Court should have punted the case as moot after the North Carolina Supreme Court overruled its prior decision earlier this year.
"The federal defense no longer makes any difference to this case—whether we agree with the defense, disagree with it, or say nothing at all, the final judgment in this litigation will be exactly the same," Thomas argues. "The majority does not seriously contest that fact. Even so, it asserts jurisdiction to decide this freefloating defense that affects no live claim for relief."
That's a fair criticism, but the willingness of the Court's majority to lay down a clear signal about the independent state legislature theory is important, too, even if it made no difference to the acute issues in the underlying redistricting case.
The real winner in Tuesday's ruling is the constitutional system itself and its insistence on the separation of powers. Roberts notes that courts also do not have unchecked authority and "may not so exceed the bounds of ordinary judicial review as to unconstitutionally intrude upon the role specifically reserved to state legislatures."
You might also think about Moore v. Harper as a proxy fight between textualism and originalism—with advocates of the independent state legislature theory advancing a pedantic, letter-of-the-law reading of constitutional provisions against a deeper understanding of how the Framers intended the messy mechanisms of democracy to work. Indeed, Roberts points repeatedly to the founding era—to Marbury, to The Federalist Papers, and early constitutional law provisions in various states—as he dissects the problems with the theory.
"When legislatures make laws, they are bound by the provisions of the very documents that give them life," he writes in one particularly direct rebuttal to the idea that state legislatures should be freed from all constitutional restraints when writing election rules. As such, legislatures are "created and bound" by state constitutions and limited to particular authorities granted by the federal constitution.
"Both constitutions," Roberts concludes, "restrain the legislature's exercise of power."
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Funny how leftists like you are all for explicitly racist lines as long as they benefit the left. Did this violate the Constitution or the bullshit the court added like requiring the "just right" number of majority minority districts? Creating a district with one block in it and another with 1 million people would be unconstitutional, creating uniform sized and shaped districts with no consideration of race would violate racist judicial edict.
Thomas had the best dissent in the last ruling regarding Alabama, that the law does not require race based districting and that actually goes against the constitution.
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This has nothing at all to do with majority-minority districts.
It has to do with the ludicrous claim that *anything* done by a unit of the US government is exempt from judicial review.
Crap. The Prez is head of the armed forces, each state has 2 Senators, the right to bear arms shall not be infringed.
Review that! No judicial review permitted.
The judiciary can review a legislative act and decide if it is Constitutional. That the NC Court went beyond that and drew up and imposed its own redistricting plan, that is, functioning as the legislature, is the pertinant violation of the separation of powers. SCOTUS appears to be supporting a judicial usurpation of legislative function, while cloaking it as dismissing a mere objection to judicial review.
The court imposed a new map drawn by its hand-picked experts. Republicans and Democrats each won seven of the state's 14 congressional seats in the subsequent midterm election, held with court-drawn lines.
Where the Constitution delegates responsibility to the Legislature for deciding the times, places, and manners of elections, it really meant the Judiciary. Our Founding Fathers were constantly confusing the two terms. It's the same as the muddled meaning of "shall not infringe", those old dead white guys were probably drunk at the time and had no idea what they were saying.
Yup. This is a case where conservative and liberal justices come together to ignore the plain words of the Constitution to protect the government power. They are great at that.
Constitution clearly says "legislature". And "legislature" ONLY means "legislature", not "legislature and judicial".
The problems with gerrymandering would disappear if we can implement at-large statewide proportional representation to replace the district-based plurality-take-all two-party system of electing representatives. With modern on-line voting we can also eliminate the perennial ballot-counting nightmare and use ranked choice voting automatically to assign the winners to the Constitutionally mandated "districts" and ensure that almost everyone who voted got a representative of her choice and every representative got 100% of the votes that selected them.
Agreed. We're no longer an agrarian nation with geographic communities, so geographic representation seems anachronistic.
Except that we still do have specific geographic communities.
- Major urban centers
- Suburbs
- Rural/Exurban areas
Single-member-districts require a party to have a broad base of support in order to gain power, because 'overvote' is meaningless.
So long as those districts contain communities of similar population density (no 'pie slicing' small chunks of big-city and tacking that on to suburban districts), they are fair.
"It's fair because I don't want the majority deciding things."
Well yes, because we aren’t a flat democracy.
Tyranny by the minority is just as bad, if not worse.
Would you rather be shot in the head because 999/1000 thought you deserved it or because 1/1000 thought that you deserved it ? While they are both wrong, and none to good for the person being shot, the latter seems more egregious than the former.
Why not do away with states as well??
Because the US is a deal among the states, not the people. Hence The United States, not the peoples republic, regardless of how much you would like that.
So why not switch to a system where one votes by state at large, and the top X vote getters become Representative, each with a vote proportional to the number of votes they received? It may not give everyone a Rep who actually represents them, but it would be better than a place like Massachusetts where about 45 % of the population is very deliberately gerrymandered out of existence.
The Separation of Powers aspect of this decision is fine, but it would be nice if the specifics of gerrymandering part has some practical application in some of the "blue-er" states.
Federal districts are not statewide districts. Changing to RCV at a statewide level is terrible as big urban centers would likely get the majority and cause the losing of power in more rural areas.
MWAocdoc is a prog
You are, in effect, arguing for rural areas to be over-represented in elections. If a state has a population that is 40% purple and 60% yellow, a voting system which ultimately ends up with roughly 60% of representatives being the yellow party and 40% being the purple party is not obviously unfair, even if the yellow party is 90% urban and the purple party is 90% rural.
It amazing how wrong you are on every subject. Districts are proportioned for size. But allowing urban voters to vote for multiple people further increases their votes. Statewide voting for all electors causes a bias towards urban centers and the majority of said urban voters.
Tucson did exactly this with their elections. They took proportioned city districting of equal populations but changed the rules to allow the entire city to vote for all district members. It went from a 60-40 representation of the role to 80-20.
How are you wrong on every topic shrike?
Stop lying and misrepresenting, chubby.
That allocation is NOT true at-large voting. What you're describing in your response is a series of multi-member districts - which was not what you were talking about before, obviously. Had you bothered to state that you were opposed to multi-member districts for the reasons you outlined I would have agreed with you. But you neglected to mention them in your initial comment in your zeal to post.
Read his original post shrike. Again you are wrong about everything.
Urban centers under the plan presented would submit 20 candidates and dominate all of the elected positions. It would not be representative of the various district areas retard.
The original post specifically states "at-large statewide". Try again.
What do you think those words mean? Lol. Literally what I described retard.
I realised I completely misread the earlier posts and hence I am wrong.
RCV has nothing to do with proportional rep or gerrymandering.
RCV is a way to get rid of the abomination known as 'primary elections' - and the unelectable freaks they nominate....
And by abomination you apparently mean an informed electorate making choices.
Imagine that- a fuckhead like you arguing that the majority shouldn't rule.
I'm not at all surprised. Not even disappointed because I expect this bullshit from you.
Simple, direct majority rule is not how America is supposed to work (or ever did work).
Power is supposed to be spread out over geography, such that 'ruling' requires a broad coalition, rather than pinpricks of fanatical support.
Winning a small minority of districts by 90% is not supposed to give you power over a party that wins a majority of districts by 51% - even if your total popular-vote tally is higher.
Imagine that, a brain dead leftist who thinks that 50%+1 should dictate how everyone lives their lives.
Fuck off Tony.
Proportional representation unfairly disregards geography.
And thus unfairly resolves a specific political party, that tends to win by 90%+ in urban districts, and lose by 50-something% everywhere else.
By proportional voting, do you mean that if the Greens and Libertarians each got 5% of the vote, then they would each get 5% of the seats? That might work because at least they would have someone in Congress from their state to represent their voice (which they don't have now under winner take all congressional districting.)
Proportional representation means that if the D/R split is 60/40, that's how the seats are apportioned.
It often comes with thresholds so that parties which get too-little-a-percentage of the vote are excluded from receiving seats - so it would not per-se increase minor-party representation.
Your idea seems somewhat similar to a system like in many European states, where the whole state votes for a party (rather than a person) and seats are then divided proportionally to the votes that party received. But I don't see how that system would work if the population votes for individuals rather than parties. Maybe I'm missing something?
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Chief Justice Roberts left a little bit of wiggle room for a future use of a narrow-version of the ISL theory:
In interpreting state law in this area, state courts may not so exceed the bounds of ordinary judicial review as to unconstitutionally intrude upon the role specifically reserved to state legislatures by Article I, Section 4, of the Federal Constitution.
This came at the end of the majority opinion. Would the Supreme Court in 2024 get involved in a State supreme court ruling that a majority of the Justices believed did "exceed the bounds of ordinary judicial review" and intruded upon a State legislature's Constitutional authority regarding Congressional or Presidential elections?
The problem is he set up no guidelines for federal courts to determine what is overstepping which is the heart of the controversy.
From Thomas:
This is a straightforward case of mootness. The federal defense no longer makes any difference to this case— whether we agree with the defense, disagree with it, or say nothing at all, the final judgment in this litigation will be exactly the same. The majority does not seriously contest that fact….
I agree with Thomas. This was mooted. The majority was bound and determined to reach the merits. As for Roberts, the guidelines are likely known only to him and possibly the other Justices.
What won't interfere with he and his wife's Georgetown social schedule.
There is no sure-er way to get to the merits of a case, than to advance an argument telling the courts they aren't allowed to decide it.
No court will refuse the chance to squish that like a bug.
It's understood that courts can reject a law as unconstitutional. However, they aren't supposed to write new laws.
Why doesn't the same apply to drawing districts. I can see rejecting a map, but the court drawing its own seems very close to a court drafting a statute.
So what is your solution when the legislature fails to produce constitutionally-acceptable districts?
The old districts are no longer valid because they are not properly apportioned (US Supreme Court precedent requires approximately equal population districts). The new ones have been found unconstitutional. And elections must occur as scheduled.
Courts drawing district lines when the political process cannot produce them is widespread & common, and has been such for decades.
Why were they deemed unconstitutional?
The legislature gets to keep trying.
This isn't hard.
You just don't get it:
The courts will never rule for ISL because to do so would (a) diminish the power of the courts, and (b) grant state-legislatures carte-blanche to screw with the rights of their citizenry.
The temporary political advantage it confers the GOP in a handful of states, is not worth the overall damage it would do to citizen rights...
Anything that exempts Republican 'things' from judicial review also by-necessity exempts Democratic ones as well...
The PA Supreme Court supported the legislature allowing mass mail-in voting when it was expressly forbidden by the state constitution.
Did not notice SCOTUS finding this worth considering.
That because that was the government gaining more power, so it's moot that that happened. Where this case is about the power of the government being in the hands of electable representatives who can be held accountable to the people, so it needs to be made clear that that's wrong. It should be held by unaccountable people, because the constitution.
Wow you nailed it perfectly!
Supreme Court Confirms That State Legislatures Can't Ignore the Constitution When Writing Election Rules
Uh, no. What the court decided is that the courts CAN ignore the Constitution and usurp the Constitutionally-granted authority of the state legislatures.
There is never an authority granted to state legislatures that exempts them from judicial review. Period.
A constitutional statement that legislatures originate election rules does not make those rules exempt/immutable.
That is the entire point of this case.
“Last year, the North Carolina Supreme Court struck down a proposed congressional district map because it was an unfair political gerrymander.”
This part is judicial review.
“The court imposed a new map drawn by its hand-picked experts.”
This is not judicial review. This part is the court usurping the legislature’s federal and state constitutional authority and exercising it. This part ignores separation of powers. If this part is accepted as the constitional order, it means that the judiciary is actually the constitutional authority on drawing legislative districts, not the legislature as written in the federal and state constitutions. This part ignores any principle of separation of powers.
It's only a matter of time till all US elections are just a judge announcing a ruler.
Except there is. The election clause, which is "legislature" specifically, not "state government". Massive difference.
Another muddled ruling by Roberts that provides virtually no guidance or answer to the question.
In Summary:
State Courts can effect the duty of the state legislators as pertains to the Electors clause.
State Courts can go too far, in which case federal courts can effect the duty of the state legislators as pertains to the Electors clause.
No statement on Courts over-ruling the Electors Clause with vague readings of state constitutions, as was done in NC. No discussion on guidelines or limits on federal courts reviewing state court actions.
Basically all Roberts did was keep the norm of courts having last say despite the Electors Clause granting legislatures the duty.
The ruling does nothing.
Remind on the original liberal court ruling in NC, this was the state constitutional clause they used to reject the districts determined by the state"
by the Legislature thereof,” U.S. CONST. art. I, § 4, cl. 1, and replace them with regulations of the state courts’ own devising, based on vague state constitutional provisions purportedly vesting the state judiciary with power to prescribe whatever rules it deems appropriate to ensure a “fair” or “free” election.
The liberals on the state court used those words to determine what maps were allowable. In other states like Pennsylvania the liberals on the state courts have not only rejected maps but also instituted their own maps in response, removing the legislature from the process completely. Roberts has no mention of the remedy here accept for:
We hold only that state courts may not transgress the ordinary bounds of judicial review such that they arrogate to themselves the power vested in state legislatures to regulate federal elections….
So overall it was a meaningless decision that will continue the process setup by Democrats like Elias to change maps through the court system with no remedy or rules to decide major questions.
So what does any of this have to say about local, unelected officials unilaterally making 11th hour election rule changes that are the sole domain of the legislature?
Imagine the chaos that would result if we left the outcome of elections up to the voters.
It says that nothing is the sole domain of the legislature - the courts always get the last say.
Which is the only acceptable answer, to be honest.
Luckily the judicial and executive branches have a lot of things that can't be reviewed. Cause the constitution, that's why.
>>Roberts points repeatedly to the founding era—to Marbury
still not sold on Marbury
Marbury v. Madison was decided in 1803. Hardly "the Founding era." And a major change from how the Supreme Court was set up in the Constitution itself.
1803. Hardly “the Founding era.”
FFs in the case:
Outgoing president - John Adams
Incoming president - Thomas Jefferson
CJ - John Marshall (two other justices were also FFs)
Defendant - James Madison
Granted, a generation had passed since the DoI but most of the major players were FFs.
Marbury is a direct continuation of the English judicial tradition - the ability of judges to overrule the King's interpretation of law.
It's not the finding of a new power, it's the restatement of an existing one that was commonly understood to be inherent in the role of a court.
interesting. gracias.
"Both constitutions," Roberts concludes, "restrain the legislature's exercise of power."
Now do Wickard v. Filburn - yeah, again.
Oddly Roberts basically handwaives how the legislative map violated either constitution. The original state violation was so vague as to be laughable:
Several groups of plaintiffs challenged North Carolina’s congressional districting map as an impermissible partisan gerrymander. The plaintiffs brought claims under North Carolina’s Constitution, which provides that “[a]ll elections shall be free.” Art. I, §10. Relying on that provision, as well as the State Constitution’s equal protection, free speech, and free assembly clauses, the North Carolina Supreme Court found in favor of the plaintiffs and struck down the legislature’s map. The Court concluded that North Carolina’s Legislature deliberately drew the State’s congressional map to favor Republican candidates. In drawing the State’s congressional map, North Carolina’s Legislature exercised authority under the Elections Clause of the Federal Constitution, which expressly requires “the Legislature” of each State to prescribe “[t]he Times, Places and Manner of ” federal elections. Art. I, §4, cl. 1. We decide today whether that Clause vests state leg 2 MOORE v. HARPER Opinion of the Court islatures with authority to set rules governing federal elections free from restrictions imposed under state law….
Nowhere does Roberts even comment on how the legislative map violates the vagueness of “[a]ll elections shall be free.” He simply accepts the premise from the state court which was a biased result if you read their ruling and how they rushed rulings out after they lost the elections.
Yeah, that really bothers me; Saying the state courts can't go too far, but not admitting they'd done it in the very case before them. Really, he's just reserving the right to overturn state decisions he doesn't like, not establishing a principle.
Why would you think that isn't the principle?
Well yes, then there's the whole bit of choosing a gang of three (was it 3?) to redraw the map, which is far beyond their purview, I would think it should at least merit a "Bailiff! Whack his pee-pee!" yet it didn't which would indicate a hesitance to limit a court's power.
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In setting up a government with three independent branches and giving each branch a check against the other two it is clear that the founders distrusted government and so diluted power. There is no reason to think that one group would be given complete power over elections that could not be checked. This ruling makes complete sense with regard to the ideas of our government as written in the Constitution.
And is consistent with history and tradition - so the conservatives here should approve the ruling.
Who is checking the judiciary here shrike? Explain how an explicit power given to the legislative branch can be overruled by the judicial branch? Example. Pennsylvania courts created their own map.
Stop lying, fatso.
And RTFD,
Marbury v. Madison, 1 Cranch 137, famously proclaimed this Court’s authority to invalidate laws that violate the Federal Constitution. But Marbury did not invent the concept of judicial review. State courts had already begun to impose restraints on state legislatures, even before the Constitutional Convention, and the practice continued to mature during the founding era. James Madison extolled judicial review as one of the key virtues of a constitutional system, and the concept of judicial review was so entrenched by the time the Court decided Marbury that Chief Justice Marshall referred to it as one of society’s “fundamental principles.” Id., at 177.. The Elections Clause does not carve out an exception to that fundamental principle. When state legislatures prescribe the rules concerning federal elections, they remain subject to the ordinary exercise of state judicial review.
Why is it that in the entire history and tradition of the US, ILS theory has never been accepted.
Marbury v Madison ring a bell? What did "the judical power" always mean?
A British legal drop out can't answer a simple question.
Who limits the judiciary. Example the Pennsylvania courts implementing their own maps and not the legislature.
Answer the question shrike.
Still not shrike, you lying fuckwit.
Who limits the Supreme Court? The answer is, Congress.
Below that, the Supreme Court can limit the inferior courts.
Wait so now the legislature has the power but here the explicit legislature is overruled by the court. Youre literally talking in circles now. Wow shrike.
Do keep talking.
More fuckwittery from you. Congress has the power to impeach Supreme Court justices. That is their sanction over the Supreme Court.
Isn't impeachment subject to judicial review?
Er, no.
Pantomime Shreek, stop pestering people and go away.
Nobody's forcing you to reply, fuckwit.
While the legislature is the preferred body to approve maps, not to draw as legislatures don't draw maps, they hire that service out. The court can implement a solution when the legislature fails to do so. There is a long tradition of this happen particularly in reversing segregation. Courts like legislatures don't draw or create maps, they approve maps draw by others.
Which article III power let's courts override the article 1 electors clause?
Why can none of you leftists answer this?
How can the courts overrule and take on an explocit power called out by Article 1?
Only Part I of Thomas's dissent, joined by Alito and Gorsuch, was on mootness grounds. But Part II, joined only by Gorsuch, disagreed with the majority on the merits. It might not have been a full-throated endorsement of the Independent State Legislature Theory, but it came pretty close.
So I think it is misleading to say, "Justice Clarence Thomas does not argue for the independent state legislature theory in his dissent. Instead, he argues that the Court should have punted the case as moot" without referencing his non-mootness related discussion.
The part of Thomas’s dissent dealing with the merits is largely incoherent – as if he knows that there’s no good argument against the majority on the merits, so he’s engaged in that old schoolboy trick for maths proofs – write down the statement from which the theorem is to be proved and then in the next few lines, write down statements that look as though they can be derived from the preceding statement, then finally write down the theorem with a QED after it, and rely on the maths teacher not checking the working.
It is noteworthy that Thomas mentions neither history nor tradition – the actual words – in his dissent, presumably because he knows that the ISL theory is consistent with neither.
So yet again he shows that he’s on the fringes of the court.
Parody. Wrong on literally everything. Please post the incoherent parts. I posted the issues with the majority. Can you do the same?
I already posted a response, and it’s not a parody it’s an analogy.
BTW as you’re one of the posters who couldn’t understand the reasoning in Judicial Watch v NARA , it’s unlikely you could “understand” Thomas’s legal glossolalia.
But have at it.
The majority indicates that it does not perceive this distinction between “substantive” and “procedural” rules, see ante, at 23–24,12 illustrating its doubts with a rhetorical question: “When a governor vetoes a bill because of a disagreement with its policy consequences, has the governor exercised a procedural or substantive restraint on lawmaking?” Ante, at 24. The answer is straightforward: The power of approving or vetoing bills is “a part of the legislative process” because it is “a part in the making of state laws.” Smiley, 285 U. S., at 368–369; see also INS v. Chadha, 462 U. S. 919, 933, 951, 954, 957, n. 22, 958 (1983) (repeatedly referring to bicameralism and presentment as the “procedure” or “procedures” of lawmaking).
A Governor’s motives for vetoing a certain bill are irrelevant to the effect of the veto as part of the legislative process, just as the motives that may lead one house of the legislature to reject a bill passed by the other house are irrelevant to the effect of its doing so. Put simply, when this power is conferred on the Governor of a State, it “makes him in effect a third branch of the legislature.” T. Cooley, General Principles of Constitutional Law 50 (1880) (emphasis added); accord, Arizona State Legislature, 576 U. S., at 833 (ROBERTS, C. J., dissenting) (noting that “approving [and] vetoing bills” are “legislative functions”); Chadha, 462 U. S., at 947 (explaining that “lawmaking” is “a power . . . shared by both Houses and the President”); La Abra Silver Mining Co. v. United States, 175 U. S. 423, 453 (1899) (noting that Presidential approval “is legislative in its nature”); cf. 1 W. Blackstone, Commentaries on the Laws of England 150 (1765) (“[T]he king is himself a part of the parliament”). This is a question of who, not what, and thus is “a matter of state polity” as far as the Elections Clause is concerned. Smiley, 285 U. S., at 368.
But substantive constraints on what the lawmaking power can do (gubernatorial approval included) demand an entirely different justification—one that the majority never provides. It does not overrule Cook and Thornton to hold that the power to prescribe times, places, and manners for congressional elections is an original power of the people of each State. Nor does it hold that the people are themselves “the Legislature” to which the Federal Constitution delegates that power. See ante, at 17–18. Indeed, the majority devotes little attention to the source and recipient of the power described in the Elections Clause, notwithstanding their direct relevance to the question presented.
I would adopt Chief Justice Rehnquist’s straightforward standard. As able counsel for North Carolina stated at oral argument, the Rehnquist standard “best sums it up.” Tr. of Oral Arg. 131. Chief Justice Rehnquist’s standard should apply not only to state court interpretations of state statutes, but also to state court interpretations of state constitutions. And in reviewing state court interpretations of state law, “we necessarily must examine the law of the State as it existed prior to the action of the [state] court.” Bush, 531 U. S., at 114 (Rehnquist, C. J., concurring).
What was incoherent aside from your lack of understanding?
What there do you think is coherent and that you agree with?
Lol. You can never make an actual argument can you shrike.
The more you talk the dumber you look. You can’t make a cogent argument.
I posted where Roberts reasoning is flawed. You just throw out an argument of incoherence but can't say why.
Keep talking shrike. It is hilarious.
Still not shrike, but you're still some lying fat fuck.
The incoherence is simple - Thomas is just throwing out words and sentences that scarcely connect with each other, and it's significant that you can't show that he's making a coherent point, nor can you state what you agree with and where.
Quel dumbfuck
No Shreek, your pal Jeffy is the fatfuck.
And 24 hours later JesseAZ still can't say what any of Thomas's dissent means and what if anything he agrees with.
https://twitter.com/amuse/status/1673760813440442382?t=PnUI4k86PmxF98DyZvgcrw&s=19
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"Roberts notes that courts also do not have unchecked authority and "may not so exceed the bounds of ordinary judicial review as to unconstitutionally intrude upon the role specifically reserved to state legislatures.""
Except that courts often "exceed the bounds of ordinary judicial review," and when they do, who can stop them?
Courts across the country have been "exceeding the bounds of ordinary judicial review" by telling conservative state legislators and governors how to run their states.
Who's stopping the courts? What's the plan boys?
That's the key question facing the US right now.
You aren't supposed to be able to stop the courts.
That's their purpose.
To protect the rights of the people from the overreach of the other branches.
This power is simply too important to be squandered for temporary partisan advantage (of the sort that a ruling for the NC legislature would produce).
State legislatures typically DO have a response to an out of control judge: Impeachment. They just don't use it enough.
State legislatures. Federal judges.
Since the courts are the protectors of the Constitution, vs the executive & legislative branches, you cannot maintain the constitutional system, if there are subjects the courts cannot review.
To declare that something - anything - is beyond judicial review, is to invite legislative/executive abuse.
*Anything?* Would you give the courts review over the impeachment of judges?
Dave fight! Dave fight!
"That might seem like constitutional common sense."
Tell that to the 3 fascists on the court.
The 3 who quoted the constitution? Roberts didn't even argue why the NC ruling was correct.
Damn fascists using logic and reasoning to express their dissenting opinions.
Goddamn Tony, at least try and be coherent.
raspberry: You must mean Sotomayor, Kagan, and Jackson, who are the worst believers in absolute government power on the SC.
NC Supreme Court 2023 is a more constitutionally coherent view then what the SCOTUS majority has wrought:
"Under the North Carolina Constitution, redistricting is explicitly and exclusively committed to the General Assembly by the text of the constitution. The executive branch has no role in the redistricting process, and the role of the judicial branch is limited by the principles of judicial review. Moreover, like the Federal Constitution, our constitution does not provide any judicially discernible or manageable standards for determining how much partisan gerrymandering is too much. . . . Any attempt to adjudicate such claims forces this Court to make numerous policy determinations for which there is no constitutional guidance. We are not authorized or equipped to make these determinations."
Luckily the US Federal Government has the authority, whether you like it or not.
Has the authority for what?