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Sixth Circuit Allows Enforcement of Ohio Law Barring Foreign Expenditures on Ballot Initiatives
A divided circuit panel stays the district court's injunction against enforcing Ohio's law.
Today a divided panel of the U.S. Court of Appeals for the Sixth Circuit granted the state of Ohio's application of an emergency stay of a district court injunction barring enforcement of an Ohio law prohibiting foreign nationals from spending money to support or oppose a ballot initiative. The district court concluded that the plaintiffs were likely to succeed in their challenge to the law. In OPAWL - Building AAPI Feminist Leadership v. Yost, a divided panel of the Sixth Circuit disagreed.
Judge Thapar wrote for the court, joined by Judge McKeague. Judge Davis dissented.
Writing for the panel, Judge Thapar rejected the plaintiffs' arguments that the prohibition is overbroad and that it unconstitutionally restricts the First Amendment rights of lawful permanent residents. While lawful permanent residents have First Amendment rights, Judge Thapar explained, the state also has a compelling interest in preventing foreign money from distorting domestic self-government.
the "exclusion of aliens from basic governmental processes is not a deficiency in the democratic system but a necessary consequence of the community's process of selfdefinition." Cabell v. Chavez-Salido, 454 U.S. 432, 439 (1982). States can prevent non-citizens from serving as probation officers, see id., or teaching in public schools, see Ambach v. Norwick, 441 U.S. 68 (1979). Why? Because the "distinction between citizens and aliens, though ordinarily irrelevant to private activity, is fundamental to the definition and government of a State." Id. at 75. "It is because of this special significance of citizenship that governmental entities, when exercising the functions of government, have wider latitude in limiting the participation of noncitizens." Id. So, excluding non-citizens from certain activities can advance a compelling interest when those activities form part of the "the process of democratic selfgovernment." Bluman, 800 F. Supp. 2d at 287.
Campaign contributions and independent expenditures are part of our process of democratic self-government. Under Supreme Court precedent, the activities of self-government "include functions as unrelated to the electoral process as teaching in public schools and serving as police and probation officers." Id. at 288 (citations omitted). "[S]pending money to influence voters and finance campaigns is at least as (and probably far more) closely related to democratic self-government than serving as a probation officer or public schoolteacher." Id. at 288–89. It's thus unsurprising that the dissenters in Citizens United emphasized that the Court has "never cast doubt on laws that place special restrictions on campaign spending by foreign nationals." Citizens United v. Fed. Election Comm'n, 558 U.S. 310, 423 (2010) (Stevens, J., concurring in part and dissenting in part). For this very same reason, courts have upheld large-donor disclosure requirements because, in part, they help "ensure that foreign nationals . . . do not seek to influence United States' elections." Indep. Inst. v. Fed. Election Comm'n, 216 F. Supp. 3d 176, 191 (D.D.C. 2016), aff'd, 580 U.S. 1157 (2017); see also SpeechNow.org v. Fed. Election Comm'n, 599 F.3d 686, 698 (D.C. Cir. 2010). . . .
the Supreme Court's approval of excluding foreigners from the process of self-government applies with full force to Ohio's restrictions on lawful permanent residents' political spending. "The statute does not serve a compelling interest in limiting the participation of nonvoters in the activities of democratic self-government; it serves the compelling interest of limiting the participation of non-Americans in the activities of democratic self-government." Bluman, 800 F. Supp. 2d. at 290 (emphasis in original). By definition, lawful permanent residents are not American citizens. Therefore, we have no trouble concluding that Ohio has a compelling interest in preventing foreign influence in its elections and that Ohio's interest extends to preventing independent expenditures by non-citizens.
The court further concluded that the law was sufficiently tailored to this interest.
Ohio can take steps to assure its people that foreign interests haven't unduly swayed its elections without abundant "proof by documentary record." Id. at 447. Addressing a widespread perception of foreign interference makes "perfect sense." Nixon, 528 U.S. at 390. "Leave the perception of impropriety unanswered, and the cynical assumption that [foreign] donors call the tune could jeopardize the willingness of voters to take part in democratic governance." Id. Thus, contrary to the district court's finding, Ohio met its burden of linking spending by lawful permanent residents to preventing foreign interference in Ohio's elections.
Similarly, to maintain public confidence in fair elections, the Court has permitted states "to respond to potential deficiencies in the electoral process with foresight rather than reactively." Munro, 479 U.S. at 195. For example, the Supreme Court has recognized that because "[e]lections vary from year to year, and place to place," it can be "difficult to make specific findings about the effects of a voting regulation." Burson v. Freeman, 504 U.S. 191, 209 (1992). As a result, requiring precise proof of those effects "would necessitate that a State's political system sustain some level of damage before the legislature could take corrective action." Munro, 479 U.S. at 195. So too with a campaign finance restriction: quantifying the precise effects of non-citizens' political expenditures is all but impossible.
Judge Thapar's opinion concludes:
The state of Ohio passed a law restricting the ability of foreign nationals to contribute to state campaigns and make independent expenditures related to state ballot initiatives. Concerns about foreign interference in American politics aren't new. And Ohioans and their representatives have a compelling interest in regulating such influence. We can't interfere with their judgment unless the First Amendment demands it. And here, it doesn't.
Judge Davis dissented. Her dissent begins:
Ohio's § 121 is unlikely to pass constitutional muster applying either strict or intermediate scrutiny. The state is therefore unlikely to prevail on the merits and a stay of the district court's grant of injunctive relief is not warranted. For this reason, I disagree with my colleagues and respectfully dissent.
To begin, § 121 distinguishes itself from federal restrictions on campaign contributions and expenditures under the parallel Federal Election Campaign Act ("FECA") in one constitutionally important way: it defines "foreign national" more broadly than the term is defined in identical contexts. Unlike FECA, § 121 includes lawful permanent residents ("LPRs") in its definition of foreign national. Compare 52 U.S.C. § 30121(a)(1) with Ohio Rev. Code Ann. § 3517.121(A)(2)(a). In defining foreign nationals this way, the law directly burdens LPRs's First Amendment rights. And beyond that, the law implicitly burdens United States citizens based on certain affiliations with LPRs as well as advocacy organizations with LPR members in ways that create uneven regulation of speech when compared to corporations.
United States citizens and lawful permanent residents have First Amendment rights. See Bridges v. Wixon, 326 U.S. 135, 148 (1945) ("Freedom of speech and press is accorded aliens residing in this country."). And I agree with my colleagues' observation that Ohio's statutory regulation of independent expenditures and campaign contributions constitutes a restriction on speech. See Buckley v. Valeo, 424 U.S. 1, 16-23 (1976). As such, § 121 necessarily receives First Amendment scrutiny. The questions that remain, then, are what type of scrutiny should apply and whether Ohio has met its burden under the appropriate level of scrutiny. The answer to the latter question is where I respectfully part ways with the majority.
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Under the 14th amendment, the Bill of Rights were to be incorporated via the P&I clause, which specifically only guarantees Privileges and Immunities to citizens: “No State shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States;” Even Green card holders are not “citizens of the United States”.
However, Thomas seems to be the only one of the Justices who actually cares about that, so while they probably have one vote on the Supreme court to support them, it’s doubtful they have five.
Because its a destabilizing view. States would have free reign to cemsor non-citizens, conduct routine warrantless searches based on a whim, deny them jury trials or just hold them in indefinitite detention.
Not sure about everyone else but that sounds like a terrible society.
You mean how they censor citizens, have a 100 mile wide 4th Amendment-free border zone and conduct no-knock raids, offer onerous plea deals which routinely make jury trials a lost cause, and hold people past their sentence, routinely, now?
Yeah, that would be a real travesty.
Us v. Verdugo-Irquidez held that “the people’ include lawful permanent residents.
Jury trials are rights of “the accused,’ a broader term.
The Equal Protection Clause applies uniquely to the states, and applies to ‘persons.’ It has been interpreted to give aliens more protection against states than against the federal government.
However, in general, your statement is mostly correct with respect to the Federal government, although only assembling and petitioning “their’ government in the First Amendment is explicitly limited to “the people.’ And I’m surprised you didn’t also mention keeping and bearing arms.
It may be a terrible society. But it is the society the Framers of our Constitution gave us.
"Us v. Verdugo-Urquidez held that “the people’ include lawful permanent residents."
And yet, the 14th amendment specifically says, "citizens" for the P&I clause. It's due process that "people" get, when it comes to the states. The situation is different for the federal government, which is directly bound by the Bill of RIghts, not indirectly via the 14th amendment.
But for the states, the situation is more nuanced. Or, as I said, would be, if anybody on the Court besides Thomas actually cared about the P&I clause, and accurately interpreting the 14th amendment.
They couldn't overturn Slaughterhouse because it was an economic rights case, and reversing it would be the dreaded "Lochnerism", another thing Thomas probably doesn't care about.
No, any “person” gets due process, and that term includes even illegal aliens within the United States (although not fetuses or extraterritorial aliens). “The people” is a different and more limited term.
The Equal protection clause appears only to the 14th Amendment, which applies only to the states. The Supreme Court has mostly ignored that fact by conjuring an “equal protection component” of Due Process. But not entirely. One context where the difference still matters is that the federal government can make distinctions between citizens and aliens that states aren’t allowed to do.
You know quite well that’s not the caselaw.
Thomas is the only Justice dumb enough to not care about precedent, or reliance on longstanding caselaw.
The law is not a logical exercise. You cannot engineer it to within tolerance. You need to deal with where you are, and where you can get to.
Pointing to some better place and insisting lets say we’re there now is not just a bad idea when it comes to the law, it’s a bad idea generally.
I’ve told you before and I’m sure I’ll tell you again – read your Burke. He is very convincing on the subject of the costs of change being something to take into account.
——-
I mean look at what you’re bitching about: “United States citizens and lawful permanent residents have First Amendment rights.”
This is the hill you’re going to die on? Denying the freedom of speech to noncitizen residents of our country?
How authoritarian of you.
Oh and the case looks rightly decided to me. Funny they managed to get there without tearing down any judicial edifices to make them more ideal.
Uh huh, now foreign influence on elections is a good thing? You're right. Logic doesn't apply to you.
In one year Sacastr0 and the rest of the bootlicking class are going to be calling them "undocumented citizens".
I guess Rivabot stops parsing after he reaches his word limit.
"Oh and the case looks rightly decided to me."
The point, you dim-witted clown, is that you actually support foreign influence in elections. As long as democrat refuse benefits from it. You’re really not too bright. Good thing you guys can cheat.
You support Trump, and want to get on your high horse about foreign influence on elections.
You also seem uninterested in the legal issues in the OP, and would prefer to go around about collateral partisan grievances.
This is why people call you a bot.
Your comments above are why I call you a dim-witted clown. An imbecile that resorts to parroting your bat shit crazy little buddy because you’re too lacking in intelligence to compose an original response.
"You know quite well that’s not the caselaw."
Look at my last paragraph. Of course I know it's not caselaw. I'm just not stupid enough to confuse caselaw with the Constitution's actual meaning.
"He is very convincing on the subject of the costs of change being something to take into account."
And that's what I like about Thomas: His approach to the Constitution is more, "Accurately read it, though the Heavens should fall." He understands his job is just upholding the Constitution we've actually got, not the Constitution we'd have in a better world.
Bottom line? I think this case is a loser if it reaches the Court, but not because they're legally wrong. Because they're legally right on a topic only one Justice wants to be right about.
So the Sixth did the right thing, you just want to Area Man Passionate Defender it up.
Utopianism is bad. You can never get there from here.
Thomas is a smart but very unwise man. If every Justice treated preceded like he does the judiciary would fail as an institution with constant squabbling and seismic shifts back and forth seeking some legal utopia.
It's a fundamental misunderstanding of the Court as an institution. It's job is not logical hot takes on what the Constitution means. It requires humility.
It's ironic holding to precedence because established tradition represents hard-wrought wisdom is literally the philosophical definition of conservatism, and wanting to overturn it to save society from itself, of liberalism.
Stare is not inviolate. Just like tradition.
And I’m invoking Burke for his anti-enlightenment insight – that working very hard to understand an unattainable goal is a recipe for disaster.
In other words, your ‘save society from itself’ is radical and profoundly anti-Burkian.
If you think about it, your posture is basically that of Marx with respect to methods and reasoning. Just with a different end goal.
"read your Burke"
Burke was a Whig. No role model for conservatives.after 60 years of radical SCOTUS decisions. The new SCOTUS gets rid of a single big precedent [Roe] and you are now a Burkian.
Your homage to precedent is so touching. The Warren Court in the 1960s overruled bushel baskets of precedents. I assume Brennan and Douglas were also "dumb".
You’re not a conservative. You hate due process, and principles generally.
And I can like points that Burke, or Hayek, or Nozick, make without following them completely. Thats a good way to deal with philosophers generally.
The Warren Court was certainly not free from excesses, but it didn’t ignore Stare either. It provided justifications more than ‘Well I think it’s not like that and I’m here now.’
Brennan was great at that. Douglas much less so. There’s a reason his legacy has not risen over time.
I don't get the majority's logic here.
There seems to be no disagreement that
...Ohio's statutory regulation of independent expenditures and campaign contributions constitutes a restriction on speech.
Can LPR's be barred from advocating for or against the initiative? If not how can they be barred from making any contribution?
(Tangential note: The first sentence here reads:
Today a divided panel of the U.S. Court of Appeals for the Sixth Circuit granted the state of Ohio's application of an emergency stay of a district court injunction barring enforcement of an Ohio law prohibiting foreign nationals from spending money to support or oppose a ballot initiative.
Not intending to be snarky, I find sentences like this, stuffed with triple negatives and double positives, are sometimes tricky to follow, though here the headline makes clear what happened. More clarity in the OP would still help. I think describing the events in the order they happened, rather than backwards, would help.
"In xxx the State of Ohio passed a law.....The District Court, in a case brought by yyy, issued an injunction barring enforcement on the grounds that...Today a divided panel of the Sixth Circuit issued an emergency stay of that injunction, permitting the law to be enforced."
Seems clearer to me, anyway.
Oh, and "of an emergency stay," should read "for an emergency stay," should it not?
)
Seems an acknowledgment that money implicates speech rights, but is not itself the same thing as speech.
It's not that money implicates speech rights. It's that money spent on speech does. If you've got a right, you can spend money exercising it, and the Court isn't going to pretend that regulating how you spend money on exercising a right isn't really just regulating the exercise of the right itself.
That's not what Buckley says.
And it can't really be that either - people send money to politicians knowing the campaigns spend on all sorts of non-speech stuff.
And the Court didn't make the distinction you're making in your second sentence.
That's why the Sixth can treat expenditures different than speech.
So money is fungible in the wrong direction, spending on not-speech as well? Shall this disable it in aggregate? I read somewhere 80% is spent on advertising. No matter, it’s some percentage. The advertising portion is mass production and distribution of speech, protected.
Any good boy BDS defender can use their mouth muscles to formulate “inextricably intertwined” with speech, “ergo speech wins.”
And to tackle it directly, so they spend some on all kinds of non-speech campaign stuff. I have a tough time dealing with the sentiment those in power should be restricting that, either. Hamper those who would challenge us!
If we’re worried about corruption, look into miraculous savant status of politicians and their friends and family, as their fortunes skyrocket. Tackle the problem directly instead of tangling with the supply side.
You ignore the passthrough.
That Person B spends person A's money on speech doesn't protect Person A's money as if it were speech.
There must be something inherent in the donation to political campaigns that is speech.
And I've told you many times if you want to look at swift enrichment, you don't look to politics.
Or maybe you do! You've never provided any stats, just zealotry and the creation of Principles outta your ass.
But if Person A gives Person B the money to spend on speech that Person A agrees with? After all, practically every cent you donate to a political campaign is spent either directly or indirectly on speech.
Again, it's not that the money IS speech. It's that if you're regulating the money in order to control the speech, you're regulating the speech.
So, you could tell corporations that they can't donate, period. But once your rule distinguishes donations on a 1st amendment related basis, you're in trouble.
People do not donate to political campaigns thinking it'll all be spent on speech.
So your logic does not work in the real world.
Luckily there's some cases you can read to find what the actual Court says. I'm not a huge fan, but at least it isn't making anything up.
Anybody who donates to a political campaign thinking it won't almost all be spent on speech is an idiot. What else are they going to spend it on?
Polling? You ask people questions, they maybe answer, that's speech.
Advertising? Interviews? Trivially, speech.
Air fare? It's spent to get you someplace where... you will speak!
The rent on your campaign headquarters is so that you'll have someplace to do your speaking, and planning to speak.
Even the coffee maker is there so you won't fall asleep while speaking.
Campaigning is speech from end to end, you're either spending money speaking, or facilitating speaking.
What do you imagine campaigns spend money on that ISN'T either speech, or speech facilitating?
Anybody who donates to a political campaign thinking it won’t almost all be spent on speech is an idiot. What else are they going to spend it on?
It's you. You're the idiot. You don't know what a campaign entails. There's lots of overhead!
And legal fees.
And morale building social/celebrations for the team
Even the coffee maker is there so you won’t fall asleep while speaking.
Brett, do you think coffee is speech?
I spent most of my adult life as a political activist! You think I don't know what political campaigns entail? How much time have you spent hanging out in campaign headquarters, walking the precincts, and so forth?
Your problem is that you want to very narrowly restrict which speech activities count as "speech" for 1st amendment purposes, so that the mere fact that the activity involves you, you know, talking to people, won't make it count as "speech".
The Court, regrettably, is somewhat on board with that for commercial speech, but thankfully totally rejects that when it comes to political speech.
"Brett, do you think coffee is speech?"
I swear, just reading your comments could lower somebody's IQ.
No, not any more than money is speech. Or any less.
I've done a couple of national campaigns as a volunteer for the 2 weeks running up.
Enough to know you have a definition of speech so broad it's meaningless.
And you're wrong about what Buckley says about campaign spending as speech.
As someone who thinks it's wrong, I urge you to read it's reasoning. And White's dissent.
That's help you from having to redefine words to get you where you want to go.
Of course that's not what Buckley says. We're talking Citizens United, not Buckley.
That's not what CU says either. CU is about Buckley applying to the corporate form.
It is not a reformulation of Buckley's scope beyond to whom it applies.
Money is not speech. This is probably as good an example of where the distinction matters as any.
I disagreed with Citizens United in no small part because corporations cannot vote, and therefore like foreigners have no inherent right to spend money to influence elections. I think corporations are nothing more than a device for limiting individual liability, with their ‘personhood’ a mere legal fiction. And I don’t think there is any constitutional right to have ones liability limited. States traditionally regulated the purposes for which corporations could be formed, and influencing elections need not be one of those purposes.
After all, corporations have no right even to exist. At the Founding and well after stste legislatures passed private bills approving each individual incorporation, and could choose to incorporate only those corporations they thought in the public interest. Any state that wants to could return to that approach. Or it could abolish corporations as a legal form entirely.
Several issues here:
First, if an amendment just flatly says Congress can't pass laws doing X, it really doesn't matter who or what Congress proposes to do X to. And that's how the 1st amendment is written: A flat prohibition of legislation on several topics.
Second, when you've got a closely held corporation, it's corporationhood, not personhood, that's the legal fiction.
Third, call this the Soylent Green theory of corporations: Look closely: Once you take out all the people, where is the corporation? Corporations are made of people! Who don't lose their rights due to being in one.
Finally, why do people bother forming corporations?
Why is every last newspaper in the country, with no exceptions, a corporation? Why is every business larger than a child's lemonade stand a corporation?
You're right, at the founding corporations were reserved for special purposes, individually chartered for specific purposes. That's because founding era corporations were granted a bit of the state's sovereign power, they were things like today's port authorities, not everyday businesses.
So, why is that different today? Because the government's own tort system has rendered doing business outside of the corporate form impossibly risky! The government has herded people into using corporations, all but made it illegal to run a business without one.
The government can't force you to do X, and then claim that doing X means you don't get your constitutional rights. It HAS TO respect constitutional rights of people using the corporate form, because it forced them to use it in the first place.
The only wee tiny flaw in your argument is that barring corporate contributions in no way restricts the rights of the individual shareholders – a point you blindly glide by.
Even if Microsoft can’t contribute to Phoghorn’s campaign, any shareholder who supports Phoghorn remains free to do so on an individual basis. No right has been taken away.
In fact, IMO, it would be a Microsoft contribution that damages shareholders, in that some large portion of them likely opposes Phoghorn.
Of course there are corporations that are organized for specific, narrow, aims, which the shareholder can be assumed to support.
These of course should be allowed to contribute because they are, in reality, the kinds of “voluntary associations” that so many foolishly claim all public corporations are.
But these are easy to distinguish. They are generally not involved in commercial activity, but are funded by contributions, membership fees, and the like.
What you're doing by barring corporate contributions in general is restricting the members' right, collectively, to do anything that's beyond the finances of any individual one of them. Anything where they need to aggregate the money to be effective.
Like maybe making a derogatory movie about Hillary Clinton and airing it in an election year...
I actually agree with you that for profit corporations should not be making political donations. They shouldn't be making donations of any sort at all. It's a violation of their fiduciary responsibility to the stockholders. Distribute the damned profits and let the stockholders make donations if they feel like it. Maybe make an exception for closely held corporations where it can be demonstrated that all the stockholders agreed.
But, you know what? None of the proposals to deprive corporations of 1st amendment rights drew the distinction you propose between for profit and ideological non-profits. None of them. Look at this one, for instance. As applicable to non-profits as profits.
ADM was the excuse, NRA was the actual target. And NYP was the collateral damage. Remember, Citizens United was exactly the sort of ideological non-profit that you're talking about, and it having its rights recognized outraged the left. The case wasn't about ADM.
What you’re doing by barring corporate contributions in general is restricting the members’ right, collectively, to do anything that’s beyond the finances of any individual one of them. Anything where they need to aggregate the money to be effective.
Yet there are ways to aggregate money without forming a corporation.
Otherwise, we don't seem to disagree.
I wrote:
Of course there are corporations that are organized for specific, narrow, aims, which the shareholder can be assumed to support.
These of course should be allowed to contribute because they are, in reality, the kinds of “voluntary associations” that so many foolishly claim all public corporations are.
I think CU was wrongly decided only to the extent that it failed to make that important distinction. I'm fine with the CU's of the world making political movies. I'm not fine with public companies taking their shareholders' money to do that.
"I’m not fine with public companies taking their shareholders’ money to do that."
Every broadcast outlet, every newspaper in the country is a corporation. You're going to involve the government in some awfully fraught line drawing here.
I think corporations are nothing more than a device for limiting individual liability, with their ‘personhood’ a mere legal fiction.
Yes. I think something about it being a quick way to make them fall directly under laws so you didn’t have to go against the owners is in there somewhere. The corp violates the law, and pays the fine. Every real human goes home.
The Citizens United decision was very clear, though. This did not rely on some idea of corporate personhood (a redundant statement) to justify corporation-as-person exercising first amendment rights, but rather the people in the corporation take their rights with them, when, among other things, deciding to take advantage of Congressional creations like “corporations”, and Congress may not restrict their rights as the cost of participation.
If you exclude corporations from free speech protections, do you also exclude limited partnerships? General partnerships?
If you exclude corporations from 1st amendment protection, you run into the fact that every publisher in the country is a corporation. Every broadcaster, too, once you set aside ham radio.
Agree on language ambiguity.
I don't have a problem with the state of OH forcing more transparency in the funding of viewpoint advocacy on state ballot questions in their elections. Net, net...To me, OH's law forces more disclosure and transparency and I am Ok with that....for OH state elections on their particular OH ballot question.
"distinction between citizens and aliens, though ordinarily irrelevant to private activity, is fundamental to the definition and government of a State." Id. at 75.
Hoo boy that's gonna piss off Kamala, the FBI, Sacastr0, Karl Marx, half of Israel, and the WEF.