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Supreme Court Oral Argument Indicates "Radical Agreement" that there is no "Legislative Exception" to the Takings Clause
That's the big takeaway from yesterday's oral argument in Sheetz v. County of El Dorado. But it's not clear whether the Court will resolve any additional issues, and if so how.

Yesterday, the Supreme Court heard oral argument in Sheetz v. County of El Dorado, an important Takings Clause property rights case. When the Supreme Court decided to take the case, most observers (myself included) thought the main issue would be whether there is a "legislative exception" to takings liability in at least some situations where the Fifth Amendment otherwise requires the government to pay "just compensation." In Nollan v. California Coastal Commission, Dolan v. City of Tigard, and other cases, the Supreme Court previously ruled that state and local governments sometimes violate the Takings Clause when they impose exactions as a condition of letting property owners develop their land. Some lower courts—including the California Court of Appeal in this case—have held there is no Takings Clause liability for land-use exactions in cases where the requirement was imposed by legislation, rather than by executive officials or regulatory agencies.
In Sheetz, a property owner had been barred by the County from building a single-family home on his property unless he first paid a $23,420 "traffic impact mitigation" fee. The official question presented by the case is this:
Whether a building-permit exaction is exempt from the unconstitutional-conditions doctrine as applied in Nollan v. California Coastal Commission and Dolan v. City of Tigard, Oregon simply because it is authorized by legislation.
If yesterday's oral argument is any indication, the Supreme Court won't have any trouble concluding the answer is "no." All or nearly all of the justices seem to agree there is no legislative exception. Indeed, even counsel for the County of El Dorado agreed.
In answer to a question by Justice Thomas, she stated that the answer to the question of whether a permit condition qualifies as a taking cannot be answered "by looking at whether there is some sort of legislation." Chief Justice John Roberts immediately noted that her "answer to the question presented is, I think, the same as the Petitioner [the property owner]."
Justice Neil Gorsuch later said he "thought we had taken the case address [the] question of whether Nollan and Dolan simply [do not] apply to legislative enactments of any kind," but oral argument revealed there is "radical agreement" on that issue. Gorsuch is a conservative justice and strong advocate of constitutional property rights. But liberal Justice Elena Kagan similarly stated there "there is radical agreement…. that you don't get a pass from unconstitutional conditions analysis just because you've passed generally applicable legislation. And that's, of course, true in unconstitutional conditions analysis generally, and so too it's true of unconstitutional conditions analysis in the property area."
With such unaccustomed consensus between the justices and the parties to the case, I think it overwhelmingly likely the Court will rule there is no such thing as a "legislative exception" to takings liability. The justices may even be unanimous on that issue (though I am not entirely sure Justice Sotomayor will agree, so they may not). For reasons summarized here, I think this resounding rejection of the legislative exception theory will be the right result.
That, however, still leaves the difficult question of what kinds of regulatory fees qualify as takings, and which do not. Over the course of the oral argument, the justices struggled with this issue. It's hard to tell what they will say if they try to resolve it, and how broad the resulting ruling will be.
A number of questions focused on the issue of whether tolls and user fees qualify as takings if the property owner prevails. I think the answer is "no," because there is a crucial distinction between the government charging a fee for the use of public property (such as a highway), and charging a fee in exchange for letting the owner use his or her own property, as in this case, where Sheetz must pay a large sum just to be able to build a house on his own land. Some justices also raised the perennial issue of how to distinguish takings from property taxes.
The Court could avoid these problems entirely by limiting its holding to the legislative exception issue (which, after all, was the focus of the official question presented), and remanding the rest to the lower courts. Gorsuch and Thomas appeared to want to do just that. But I don't know if there are three other justices who will go along with that approach. If not, it's hard to predict how much further the Court will go with its holding and what it will say.
For more analysis of the Sheetz oral argument, check out posts by Robert Thomas at Inverse Condemnation, and Tim Mulvaney at PropertyProfblog. Mulvaney has helpful additional details on what the Court might do if they decide to go beyond simply rejecting the legislative exception theory.
NOTE: The property owner is represented by the Pacific Legal Foundation, which is also my wife's employer. However, she is not part of the litigation team working on the case.
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This is the recent oral argument that an "academic" and "legal" blog operated by disaffected, fringe, partisan hacks wants to talk about?
Seriously, get your own blog and talk about whatever you want instead of sniping here everyday.
That would require him to stop being a disaffected, fringe, partisan hack, and start being a serious person. He's not capable of such change.
These right-wing law professors get to choose the subjects they wish to discuss.
Others get to comment on those choices and/or the substance of the discussion . . . although that comment could be restricted if Prof. Volokh decides to resume his viewpoint-driven censorship, which he is entitled to do.
Why do you believe the Volokh Conspirators are exhibiting such cowardice with respect to Trump, insurrection, Eastman, Clark, election misconduct?
What cowardice do you think Prof. Somin has exhibited regarding those issues?
Mr. Bumble 4 days ago
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Prof. Calabresi,
Would it be asking too much for you and Somin to give it a rest?
That was different.
I understand why a far left wing antisemitic loon would rather ignore Supreme Court cases that involve libertarian considerations.
And I understand why a guy with his nose inches deep in Prof. Volokh's ass doesn't want to discuss -- and doesn't want anyone else to discuss -- this blog's peculiar approach to matters involving Trump, insurrection, Eastman, right-wing bigots, Kozinski, election subversion, Clark, ridiculous immunity claims, etc.
More trolling:
You're complaining about a blogger posting about something (libertarian) other than what you call this blog's peculiar approach to Trump matters, when the blogger has been posting here that HE BELIEVES THE SAME THING YOU DO, THAT TRUMP IS GUILTY OF INSURRECTION AND DISQUALIFIED UNDER 14A3.
Go troll someplace else.
To be fair, he's right that I don't want to discuss, and don't want anyone else to discuss,¹ what bloggers choose to discuss on their personal blog. But of course Kirkland isn't even "discussing" it; he's just trolling about it.
¹That is, I don't want them to pollute the discussion threads here; I don't care what they discuss in their own fora.
I don't understand this. The bloggers may choose to blog about whatever they want. It's rare that they also significantly engage in the comments about their posts.
I thought I was clear my objection was him complaining about what the blogger's choose to blog about on their own blog (being co-conspirators and such), which none of us commenters have any standing to complain about how they use the editorial choices on their platform. Especially when the objection in this case is simply wrong (not being about Trump, being about an issue long preceding his political career).
You figure it's off-base to mention Prof. Volokh's habitual publication of racial slurs in his posts, which suggests a strange (and telling) Google alert setting?
You contend it's inappropriate to refer to his bizarre (and telling) fixation on transgender parenting, transgender rest rooms, transgender pronouns, transgender minors, transgender artificial intelligence, transgender criminals, transgender pseudonymity, transgender vaccination, transgender sorority drama, transgender teachers, and transgender everything else? (That one's a two-fer, by the way, from the proprietor's perspective.)
You claim it's wrong to note one Volokh Conspirator's incessant (and telling) stream of Muslim-white grievance-drag queen-Black crime-transgender-male grievance-lesbian posts?
If so, I agree -- you don't understand.
Yes, it is off-base and inappropriate and wrong, as well as of course being full of lies.
I am not convinced that Trump is disqualified.
According to your methodology, that makes you a disaffected clinger.
Or maybe, just maybe, correlation does not equal causation (or approval).
Why? I recognize and am willing to state that Trump is a disgusting, boorish, vainglorious, vulgar jerk who seems to deserve conviction for crimes and, if convicted, should go straight to fucking jail. It's the people who either don't recognize that or are too cowardly to state it who are disaffected, worthless culture war casualties.
I just completed my statement.
You further document your troll status (AKA no credibility) by suggesting it's inappropriate to discuss a [checks notes] Supreme Court oral argument case.
Regulatory takings are current legal controversies, especially after the much panned Kelo decision almost a generation ago.
It's ironic that you want to regulate topics on this blog, even as you decry your bogus censorship here. Cry harder, preferably someplace else.
Do you have all these comments on Macro? You really only have about 10 comments, that you recycle ad nauseum. I would suggest you just post a list, and then to save time say “Comment # 1,” “Comment # 2”, etc. Certainly would be less burdensome on those of us who have to put up with your tiresome drivel.
Brilliant. Like the classic numbered prison jokes, minus most of the laughter.
"who have to put up with your tiresome drivel"
Mute User button, upper right
You think there's as many as 10?
And all of them can be summarized as, "Hey, look at me."
"Some justices also raised the perennial issue of how to distinguish takings from property taxes."
Maybe you can't. The tax takes part of the value of the property for public uses.
I'll bet a lot of innerweb bucks that the decision will come down to whether the "taking" is generalized or particularized. IOW, is the rule of general applicability, or is it specifically targeted at discrete individuals. It is not the fact that a particular "taking" is legislatively authorized, but rather the nature of the "taking", that forms the crux of the issue.
The SCT is not about to rule that "taxes are theft" and invalidate all property tax laws.
This has been another episode in the lengthy series "Libertarians are Cranks: A gay romp through Never-Never-Land."
“Libertarians are Cranks"
Calling me a “Libertarian" is defamation.
The takings clause embodies a general principle: Activities of government for the general welfare are to be paid for by the general population. Not by designating some fall guy, and saying, "Sucks to be you.".
Then there are activities that are for the particular welfare, which may be funded by requiring the particular beneficiary to pay for them. These are, generally, discretionary; You can skip the benefit and escape the charge.
The enactment in question for "traffic abatement" casually appears to be for the general welfare; It's not the guy's driveway we're talking about, but a road everybody will be free to drive on. So it would appear to fall into the former category.
Without saying that's the right line to draw, I would note that even under that test there's still a lot of fuzziness, because there are a lot things that have both arguable "general welfare" impacts and also specific benefits to property owners.
After listening to an hour of this yesterday, I'm inclined to think this is something like Justice Stewart on obscenity-- that I know a taking when I see it, and I know a tax or user fee when I see it, but I'm not sure I can articulate a completely bright line rule as to what is one and what is the other.
It can be a vague line, and I say that despite not liking vague lines.
In this case, not so vague, given the purpose. Like I said, it's not his driveway, it's the road everybody's driving on. I think that's what it's going to come down to.
The guy isn't building a business that's going to generate a lot of traffic, where you might argue the charge was for his benefit. It's a HOUSE, for goodness sake. The increment of traffic it will be responsible for is trivial, and they're charging him over 20 grand?
That's charging him for permission to use his own land, and I think that's where the Court will come down on it.
To make sure I understand you, it would be OK to charge the developer of a 500 lot subdivision a road-building fee, and let him pass the costs on to the eventual buyers as part of the house price?
But not to collect the same amount by instead requiring a payment of 1/500 the amount from each lot owner at the time they decide to build?
Perhaps the local government's deceptive use of the term "traffic abatement", which normally has to do with work done to solve a specific local problem, like the existing road being inadequate to service a new shopping center, has misled you. That's not what is going on here.
To be clear, development of the property required no new road building, and the money derived from the charge was not going to be spent specifically on the road adjacent to the property.
Instead, the county would be spending the money county wide wherever they thought the roads were deficient, without any relationship to the property at all. So, it's spending on the general welfare, financed by a fee charged against a small fraction of the population who happen to need building permits.
This is a "sucks to be you" situation. People in need of building permits being the designated fall guy to pay for costs they aren't specifically responsible for, and work they will not specifically benefit from.
To be clear, I was asking about your views on the general case, not this specific one.
To Brett’s point, it would depend on what the “road building fee” was actually used for.
If in your 500 lot subdivision example, the road building fee was used to build roads in and to the subdivision, then it may be considered OK.
If in your 500 lot subdivision example, the road building fee was instead used to build a bridge on the other side of the county, then it wouldn’t be.
Fair enough, although there aren't a lot of bright lines. You put in one subdivision, no prob. Then the next, no prob. But the 17th might mean widening the main access road. The stormwater treatment systems for this subdivision might well be all the way across the county.
Having watched a lot of these debates over the years, a common feature is that development occurs over a long period, gradually increasing utilization of roads/sewage/fire stations/schools/whatever. When the quanta is reached that requires some expensive new infrastructure, the existing residents usually say 'we shouldn't foot the bill, let the newcomers pay'. But you don't expand the sewage plant by 5% this year because the population increased 5% this year; the economics of sewage plants tends towards building a new one every twenty years.
Which is all to say, it can be wicked hard to fairly apportion costs between existing residents and newcomers, even if everyone was altruistically wishing to assume their fair share - which they usually aren't :-(.
“But the 17th might mean widening the main access road.”
Then the proper course of action is a broad tax. Not one on “just the new people”. Everyone uses the access road. Everyone uses the sewage system. Everyone uses the fire department.
The bright lines are pretty clear in my mind…
Do you need a new sewage line dug from your new house to the main line? Then yes, that’s an applicable fee. Because “just” your house is using it.
This is why Environmental Impact Reports are a thing. Each new development must pay for (or in many cases, do the work itself) improvements necessary to accommodate the resulting drain on resources. Sometimes that means building a freeway offramp, or a water treatment plant, or an elementary school... with a special levy on the homebuyers to pay for it all.
“But not to collect the same amount by instead requiring a payment of 1/500 the amount from each lot owner at the time they decide to build?” Short of a degree of corruption that would shock Chicago gangsters, how the heck can it require over $11 million to build the roads for a 500-house development?
Also, building a new road is not “traffic abatement”. If we allow public officials to misuse words to that extent, they’ll be calling 3 years in prison “detention” and skipping the trial.
Are we talking about whether a property tax is a taking? If so, aren't all taxes takings, which makes them unconstitutional?
As for Brett's distinction, I agree in general, but I think there are other aspects.
First, is it unreasonable to ask a property owner to pay to mitigate problems he himself causes?
Second, suppose traffic mitigation requirements are common, and generally paid for by those building in the specific area. Then Sheetz presumably benefits from other projects, paid for by others.
Suppose traffic is terrible and the city decides to put on an assessment to improve matters everywhere. That wouldn't be a taking, and yet the consequences are similar.
See my comment directly above: The work financed is actually unrelated to any need caused by Sheetz, or any new development, use of the term "traffic mitigation" is deceptive.
It's just financing their general road budget.
Yes. I understand. And probably the road budget should be financed by broader means.
But it's important to look at these fees as a financing method broader than just an imposition on an individual.
Suppose the city said, "We finance road improvements by a tax on new building, paid by the builder at the time the permit is issued. After all, new building increases road use, and improved roads benefit builders."
Even if you disagree with the second sentence, how do you react to the first?
(BTW, please note my comment below, where I conclude that Sheetz is not entitled to any further compensation.)
a "tax on a new building"?
Exactly what sort of tax is this? Is this a property tax?
If it is, it runs into a number of issues. Typically property taxes need to be assessed at a uniform rate. A "new building tax" would likely violate this when compared to property taxes in the rest of the local area. In addition, California has a number of amendments to its Constitution which limit certain property taxes.
Exactly what sort of tax is this? Is this a property tax?
I don't know or care.
I know it's at least plausible to say that new building drives up road usage, and hence maintenance costs, so maybe th ebuilders should pay for the marginal cost.
The new house will affect road usage *exactly* as much as the old house, though.
The new house will increase road usage, as the old house did when it was built. But suppose the old house builder paid a similar fee. Then what?
Regardless, I maintain that Sheetz was not materially damaged at all, so the rest of the discussion is pointless.
Isn't a tax on new building simply an impact fee? According to Wikipedia, impact fees are pretty common, being used by 60% of all cities with populations over 25,000.
In Arizona, the state I'm most familiar with, cities and counties with impact fees will divide their territory into impact fee districts, so that fees collected in a district must be used in that distract. Those fees are then used for transportation and other infrastructure when the needs of the impact fee district warrant it. In this way, development pays for the infrastructure that it itself is creating the need for. The impact fees charged on my new home in the north side of the county will not be used to build roads in the south.
Actually, traffic mitigation fees are often directed to uses that are tangential to traffic. Like public transportation.
So many such uses fall into the if you build it, they will come new urbanist and environmentalists utopian wet dreams.
Sometimes traffic mitigation fees are spent on anti-mitigating traffic.
Considering that you can't have a taking by the executive branch at all that isn't arguably pursuant to legislation, it would have been pretty radical if they'll ruled otherwise.
Yeah. It seems pretty silly to argue that if the state legislature passes a law saying "The Parks Dept is hereby authorized and directed to raze Brett Bellmore's house and erect a monument to Kathy Boudin in its place", that you would be SOL.
Yet you have no issue with worthless mestizos from Latin America taking America from its rightful owners.
Yawn. Again, you're not even a good troll. Good trolling requires saying something shocking to incite other people. Saying the same racist thing you've always said doesn't do that, and changing usernames doesn't fool anyone.
Moreover, it requires a sufficient element of sense or reason that some fraction of your audience might feel compelled to defend it, even if they don't like your phraseology. Absent that, it's not effective trolling because you don't start any arguments.
Muted.
What’s the distinction here between an agency rule that prohibits land use for considerations such as “green zones” and paying a “traffic mitigation fee.” If this case prevails, then it seems the “green zone” ought to be on the chopping block as well.
(I have personal stake in the matter as my father has been unable to use the latter half of his property due to the county mandating a “green buffer” between pieces of property “near” wetlands or habitat occupied by certain wildlife. If they are going to chop his usable property in half, they ought to compensate him for his lost use of the property.)
Supreme Court Oral Argument Indicates "Radical Agreement" That There Is No "Legislative Exception" to the Takings Clause
Good news, please do the same for the 2A now. Becoming a felon (or not) based on which side of the bed rando admin guy got out of is getting pretty old.
The current lawyers at Trump Litigation: Elite Strike Force have revived a rancid refrain from their predecessors among lawyers willing to mouth nonsense for Trump.
Now wait a minute.
According to the Pacific Legal Foundation:
In 2016, George Sheetz bought a vacant lot in rural El Dorado County, California, and planned to build a small, manufactured home where he and his wife would live in retirement and raise their grandson. But when George applied for a county building permit, he was told he would have to pay a so-called traffic impact fee of more than $23,000.
The County’s permit fee requirement, adopted legislatively in 2004, aimed to shift the cost of new roads and road improvements onto new development.
So the requirement was in place when Sheetz bought the property. He knew about it, or should have.
More important, the requirement necessarily reduced the price Sheetz paid for the lot. So why is he entitled to any redress? If anyone is entitled it would be the owner in 2004, when the legislation passed.
So Sheetz is looking for a double discount. The courts shouldn't let him get away with it.*
(*OK, it's not clear if he got the full $23,420 as a reduction in the price of the lot, though he certainly may have. He definitely paid much less than he would have had the requirement not been in place.)
There is ZERO evidence he paid ANY less. The requirement is INHERENTLY a violation.
There is ZERO evidence he paid ANY less.
Oh bullshit.
Of course he paid less than he would have had the requirement not been in place. This is simple common sense, your capital letters notwithstanding.
Look, suppose you are looking for a lot to build on. You find one that looks OK, and decide you are willing to pay, say $100K for the lot. Then you find out that building there will incur a $23K fee. Are you still willing to pay $100K? Of course not.
Don't be stupid.
The requirement was in place - but was it clear that the fee would be so high? Or was it a few hundred dollars a few years ago, but now the officials are greedy?
The requirement was in place – but was it clear that the fee would be so high?
I assume Sheetz could have discovered what it would be before he bought the lot.
Or was it a few hundred dollars a few years ago, but now the officials are greedy?
I don't know. Presumably it was less years ago, though how much less I can't say.
Regardless, the key point I'm trying to make is that the presence of the fee lowered the price of the lot from what it otherwise would have been.
It looks to me as if most or all of the burden of the fee is going to fall on the seller, because the buyer here has many other choices.
It cannot be a taking if the requirement was preexisting. (At that point, it would be a "took".) The presence of a special tax assessment, or an easement, or any other difficulties should be discoverable before purchase if the buyer has done any sort of due diligence whatsoever. Now, if there are regulations that state the seller has to disclose, and failed to do so, the burden might fall upon him instead.
States and localities can tax land. They can have different tax rates for deceloped and undeveloped land. So why can’t they tax the transistion? Why is this fee being evaluated as “taking” the land, and not simply as a tax on it?
It doesn’t seem like it’s anywhere near confiscatory compared to the increase in the value of the land that would come from building a house on it. Why isn’t it simply a kind of tax?
I am not a fan of using question lavoidance to avoid simplw questions in order to answer more “radical” ones. The question of whether this fee is an ordinary tax and not a taking strikes me as a simple, straightforward question. If it is, then any opinion about the nature of legislative takings would be entirely advisory.
The Supreme Court, any federal court by Article III limitations on jurisdiction, should first decide the simple question and determine if this fee is a tax. Only if it decides it isn’t should it say anything about takings.
If there were an exception for legislative acts, it would COMPLETELY ERADICATE the takings clause.
Wait, Ilya. Doesn't this particular fee include the parameter that they property owner may not get approved? The government may use another definition for an assessment. I think that's relevant. Unless of course this is essentially a property tax disguised as a fee... that I'm sure people will recognize is a hot button issue with SCOTUS rulings.
I read it as the county taking their money to go evaluate its environmental impact. It may simply be a tax for new homes. It seems silly that the federal government's Constitution would care how much tax a homeowner pays. But if the county wants to be the decision maker on whether a landowner builds a home or not, then by all means excoriate them!