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Supreme Court Reaffirms Strong Presumption of Statutory Stare Decisis
It did so in today's Voting Rights Act ruling in Allen v. Milligan. This holding has implications for other cases where litigants attempt to overturn statutory precedents, especially longstanding ones.

In today's notable voting rights decision in Allen v. Milligan, the Supreme Court reasserted its longstanding rule that there is a strong presumption against overruling statutory precedents. The Court is more willing to reverse constitutional decisions. But potentially wrongheaded statutory precedent is largely left to Congress, especially if that precedent has been in place for a long time. Here's the relevant excerpt from Chief Justice John Roberts' majority opinion:
Alabama first argues that §2 [of the Voting Rights Act] does not apply to single-member redistricting…..
This understanding of §2 cannot be reconciled with our precedent. As recounted above, we have applied §2 to States' districting maps in an unbroken line of decisions stretching four decades…. In doing so, we have unanimously held that §2 and Gingles "[c]ertainly … apply" to claims challenging single-member districts. Growe, 507 U. S., at 40. And we have even invalidated portions of a State's single-district map under §2. See LULAC, 548 U. S., at 427–429. Alabama's approach would require "abandoning" this precedent, "overruling the interpretation of §2" as set out in nearly a dozen of our cases. Holder, 512 U. S., at 944 (opinion of THOMAS, J.). We decline to take that step. Congress is undoubtedly aware of our construing §2 to apply to districting challenges. It can change that if it likes. But until and unless it does, statutory stare decisis counsels our staying the course. See, e.g., Kimble v. Marvel Entertainment, LLC, 576 U. S. 446, 456 (2015).
In a crucial concurring opinion (he was the swing voter in this 5-4 decision) Justice Brett Kavanaugh reaffirms strong statutory stare decisis even more forcefully:
I agree with the Court that Alabama's redistricting plan violates §2 of the Voting Rights Act as interpreted in Thornburg v. Gingles, 478 U. S. 30 (1986). I write separately to emphasize four points.
First, the upshot of Alabama's argument is that the Court should overrule Gingles. But the stare decisis standard for this Court to overrule a statutory precedent, as distinct from a constitutional precedent, is comparatively strict. Unlike with constitutional precedents, Congress and the President may enact new legislation to alter statutory precedents such as Gingles. In the past 37 years, however, Congress and the President have not disturbed Gingles, even as they have made other changes to the Voting Rights Act. Although statutory stare decisis is not absolute, "the Court has ordinarily left the updating or correction of erroneous statutory precedents to the legislative process." Ramos v. Louisiana, 590 U. S. ___, ___ (2020) (Kavanaugh, J., concurring in part) (slip op., at 4); see also, e.g., Kimble v. Marvel Entertainment, LLC, 576 U. S. 446, 456 (2015); Patterson v. McLean Credit Union, 491 U. S. 164, 172–173 (1989); Flood v. Kuhn, 407 U. S. 258, 283–284 (1972); Burnet v. Coronado Oil & Gas Co., 285 U. S. 393, 406 (1932) (Brandeis, J., dissenting).
Both Roberts and Kavanaugh imply that the rule of statutory stare decisis is particularly strong when the precedent is longstanding and Congress has had many opportunities to change it, but didn't choose to do so.
Kavanaugh's favorable citation to Flood v. Kuhn (1972) is also notable. This is the famous case where the Court refused to overturn precedent exempting professional baseball leagues from the Sherman Anti-Trust Act, even though all of the justices agreed that the precedent in question was badly wrong, and that it made little sense to exempt Major League Baseball from antitrust rules, even as other professional sports leagues (such as the NFL) are covered by them. Flood is often considered a paradigmatic example of maintaining statutory precedent even when judges think the precedents in question are truly awful.
Roberts' and Kavanaugh's apparent commitment to strong statutory stare decisis has implications for other cases where litigants seek to overturn statutory precedents, especially longstanding ones. Notable examples include the Harvard and UNC racial preferences cases currently before the Court, where plaintiffs argue the Supreme Court should reverse longstanding precedent permitting "diversity"-promoting affirmative action policies under Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964. I think it's still highly likely that the Court will rule against Harvard and UNC. But it is now more likely to do so by reaching the constitutional issue, rather than focusing on Title VI. As a private institution, Harvard is only bound by Title VI, not the Constitution. But a ruling on the latter will also affect the former, as the relevant precedent says that Title VI and constitutional standards are the same.
In my view, the Title VI precedents are so egregious that they might warrant overruling even under a strong presumption of stare decisis. But a majority of the Court might well believe otherwise.
Another challenge to longstanding statutory precedent currently before the Court is Groff v. DeJoy, a case where the plaintiff seeks to overrule a 1977 decision narrowly interpreting the scope of accommodations for employees' religious commitments that employers are required to grant under Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964. Today's ruling makes it less likely that the Supreme Court majority will be willing to take that step.
The strong presumption of statutory stare decisis has many critics. I myself am not convinced that it's correct (though I do agree it should be stronger than in constitutional cases). The same goes for the related idea that congressional "acquiescence" to statutory precedents requires even greater judicial deference. But Roberts, Kavanaugh, and the three liberal justices seem committed to these ideas. Unless they shift, litigants seeking to overturn longstanding statutory precedents are likely to continue to have a tough time before the Supreme Court.
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Thomas' footnote where he pretends not to understand what the argument is for stronger statutory stare decisis is one of the strangest things I have ever read in a SCOTUS opinion.
Footnote? His dissent is very precise and easily understood. He holds to a Constitutional view and to the intent of Congress in passing the Voting Rights Act. Race based districting to give more political power to the vote of a minority certainly wasn't the intent. Allowing equal representation and equal voting rights for all was the intent.
Race based districting to give more political power to the vote of a minority certainly wasn’t the intent.
How do you know that? And how does he?
Look at the historical record in the 1960s when the bills were being debated. Everything presented was a lie.
"The Immigration and Nationality Act won't change the makeup of our cities." It did just that.
"The Civil Rights Act will not require quotas." It did just that.
"The Voting Rights Act will not require gerrymandered districts in favor of blacks. It did just that.
What this is all demonstrating is that race mixing doesn't work. America will fail unless we have a peaceful separation of the races.
Thomas is less cynical than me and doesn't believe that the Warren Court would have upheld the VRA if it was blatantly unconstitutional, which it would have been if it was _intended_ to lead to race-based redistricting.
However, the Warren Court ruling was too early to see the actual effects of the VRA. That subsequent iterations of the Supreme Court have continued to uphold most of it in spite of the clearly racist results is unconscionable - or at least proof that they've taken stare decisis much too far.
Their argument is that if a rogue court rewrites a statute, and a future Congress can't or won't correct that, then that new court interpretation is now presumed to be what the statute says.
Absurd.
Well, conservatives have been telling liberals for years that if we don't like something in the Constitution, we should amend it, despite that usually being a practical impossibility. The same principle applies here. If Congress doesn't like the Court's statutory interpretation, it can amend it. Oh, so that's a practical impossibility? Tough tookies.
If the Court's statutory interpretation was wrong in the first place, then it doesn't become right become Congress hasn't changed it.
That Congress hasn't changed it is evidence Congress is satisfied with the result. Or so goes the comparable argument that there must be public support for any given Constitutional provision since it hasn't been amended yet.
No, it's not. The argument is that a Constitutional provision that may be impractical today isn't able to be amended doesn't mean that it's appropriate to interpret it in a ridiculous way.
That's not even close to what's going on here.
Ridiculous in your opinion.
Pretending to not know why Congress would not touch a racial issue if they can help it is a bit dishonest. The decision has nothing to do with the intent of Congress or the Voting Rights Act.
The Founders made amending the Constitution difficult because they knew factions like the left would corrupt it if it was easy.
It takes 50% of the House and 60% of the Senate, plus the President's signature to change a statute.
It takes 66% of both the House and Senate PLUS a majority vote in 3/4 of state legislatures to change the US Constitution.
It is plainly far-easier to change a statute (and in no way impossible - unless the issue is something politically controversial) than to change the Constitution.
It takes 50% of the House and 50% of the Senate. If 50% of the Senate (+1 or the VP) wanted to overturn the filibuster, they could pass the laws in question with 50%.
And it has been done. See Ledbetter and Ward's Cove.
Yes, in favor of liberal policies. Not in favor of conservative ones. Liberals will never be "mavericks." Conservatives often will.
Congress didn't amend Title VII to clarify that Gorsuch's read that I have to hire the Rev. Kirkland in spite of the fact that he likes to ejaculate into other men's anuses is not an appropriate read of Title VII.
And your point is?
That the country will continue to veer left as long as your ideas are one-way streets.
Are you also a homosexual like Kirkland?
Are you asking him out on a date? Because that’s the only reason his sexuality should be of concern to you.
Actually, the argument is that BECAUSE the legislature CAN change the law, if they CHOOSE not to do so, they must agree it means what the court ruled it means.
Claiming they can't is absurd.
No, what it means is that at least 40 Senators agree what what the decision means. Practically speaking, that means that any erroneous court decision is permanent.
I have to say, Trump's Supreme Court appointments are turning out to be duds. It's clear that Kavanagh is a liberal at heart. Gorsuch wrote the opinion that held that the 1964 Civil Rights Act requires a private employer to hire a man like Kirkland who likes to erupt into other men's rears. Barrett adopted a black baby, which means she's now inherently biased.
No one who voted to overturn Roe v. Wade is a liberal at heart. He's just not as crazy as you hoped he'd be.
I've been trying to read/digest all the opinions in the case. I think this summary ignores the argument by some of the dissenters: the statutory precedent isn't merely a long-standing precedent--as applicable in this case runs afoul of the Constitution's equal protection clause because the outcome here is preferential racial gerrymandering AKA gerrymandering that would certainly be unconstitutional if it benefited another racial group.
I'm not saying the chief/majority are wrong here, just that many of the hot takes are ignoring the real arguments exchanged among the justices in favor of the headline.
No matter which side one chooses, even if one is truly neutral here, you end up with a "racist" result. Either the empowered, white majority wins and further diminishes the voting power of an historically oppressed minority with impunity, or the minority is given some assistance by the federal government that the white majority wouldn't have access to. If you want to balance this on "racism," you're going to get a racist result regardless and miss the bigger picture. Rather, consider the right to vote and how gerrymandering is being used to reduce a minority's representation in their legislature. Do you let the majority white legislature take away voting power of a disliked, black minority or ensure a fair outcome that lets 25% of the state choose their own representation? The two sides aren't equal here. Being "race blind" is just another way of supporting a racist outcome.
Why should blacks be allowed to act as disruptive burdens to society and then get the same voting power as whites, which they use to bloc vote for Democrats 95% of the time?
"Both Roberts and Kavanaugh imply that the rule of statutory stare decisis is particularly strong when the precedent is longstanding and Congress has had many opportunities to change it, but didn't choose to do so."
We were wrong, but since Congress didn't do anything about it, we won't either.
The problem with this argument is that in today's polarized environment, nothing controversial will ever get passed due to the filibuster and the country's makeup, at least nothing that isn't economic and can't be pushed through with reconciliation.
It's not that Congress "can't" do anything about it. It's that they don't want to.
The Democrats want the racial discrimination, and the Republicans are afraid of race riots.
I agree that the statutory stare decisis argument leverages the filibuster and congressional paralysis. But so does the Right's major questions doctrine.
If you want to say that constitutional law should presume that Congress is never going to change anything, that's fine but it needs to be applied evenhandedly. "We're going to pretend Congress is functional when we strike down Biden stuff but pretend it is dysfunctional when it comes to the Voting Rights Act" is nothing more than being a hack.
I don't think the possibility of Congressional action should really ever figure in this. And certainly not here.
The law is being interpreted to mandate racial gerrymandering. That's really an absurd reading, it could never have been passed in the first place if they'd thought it did that. But now it can't be amended to clarify that's not intended, for a variety of reasons.
The Democrats can't agree to not racially discriminate, even where it hurts them politically.
The Republicans profit politically from this kind of racial discrimination, because it typically wastes Democratic votes.
Neither motive is particularly attractive, but if the policy were constitutional, so what?
But there's also the constitutional issue, that racial gerrymandering violates EP. And, while I didn't expect the 3 left-wing Justices to care about that, I'm disturbed that they found two allies on the right.
You think it is absurd, so you invent motives why both sides disagree with you.
Or, you are not as right as you think you are.
This.
When has it struck down Biden stuff?
Well, Biden has only been president for less than two years and it takes cases time to get to the Supreme Court, so give them time.
About 2 years five months, actually.
Which changes my bottom line argument how?
There have been lots of orders invalidating or enjoining Biden initiatives under the Major Questions Doctrine and otherwise.
the Republicans are afraid of race riots
I'm not sure why you would say that. I've certainly seen no evidence of that in the last couple of decades.
Anyone with half a brain is afraid of race riots, considering the damage they did (economic and social) during the decades they were frequent. Even the recent billions of destruction pale in comparison to the violence of the '60s and '70s. No politician, in any party, wants to go back to that. It looks bad for government, annoys the voters, and drives down tax income.
Of course, there are race-baiters and inciters (like Sharpton or the BLM scum), that think that race riots are a good way to get some grift and extortion going. And, like them, there are ignorant idiots (often foreigners) that think that bigoted prejudice passes for insight. Would you know anyone in that category, Martinned?
Interesting that today's Medicaid-enforcement case, Talevski, discusses in detail overruling a 1980 statutory-construction case without once using the words "stare decisis."
So the decision holds that federal law requires a racial quota for congressional seats? Is that right?
But no other racial quotas are acceptable? Is that also right?
But only for some races; The Supreme court has confirmed that some animals are more equal than others.
Meanwhile, polls continue to show that the general public just wants this racial discrimination to end. (AA has been unpopular for a very long time, but the last few years it's been getting more so.)
Looking at the comments above (and many others here over the years), it's interesting how many non-lawyers just don't seem to "get" the concept of stare decisis.
“You don’t agree, which means you don’t understand!”
Other industrialized democracies (isn’t that the term?) manage without such a strong bias in favor of past bad decisions.
“It is a maxim among these lawyers that whatever has been done before, may legally be done again: and therefore they take special care to record all the decisions formerly made against common justice, and the general reason of mankind. These, under the name of precedents, they produce as authorities to justify the most iniquitous opinions; and the judges never fail of directing accordingly."
https://www.gutenberg.org/files/829/829-h/829-h.htm
Other industrialized democracies (isn’t that the term?) manage without such a strong bias in favor of past bad decisions.
For decades the UK House of Lords had an absolute ban on overturning its own precedents. It dropped that stance in 1966, but it is still exceedingly rare for the UK Supreme Court to refuse to follow one of its own precedents.
The UK is (or was) a common-law country. Even common-law countries overturn their own precedents, but they’re more likely to go for stare decisis. Especially in common law cases – not statutory or constitutional.
As for the USA: I won’t re-post that lengthy list of the Supreme Court overruling its own precedents, but let’s just say that under stare decisis itself, overruling past decisions is an established practice where the reason is important enough.
"they will bear in mind the danger of disturbing retrospectively the basis on which contracts, settlements of property and fiscal arrangements have been entered into"
Excellent point, and a good argument for interpreting contracts, etc. based on the precedents existing at the time of drafting.
In the UK all cases are in some sense statutory. Even if there isn't currently a statute governing an issue, Parliament can always make one. After all, Parliament can make or unmake any law whatever.
I get it. But it only ever seems to apply in one direction.
Bowers v. Hardwick, holding sensibly that a state could lock up the Rev. Kirkland and people like him for ejaculating into another man's rear, was only law for 15 years before it was overturned. Why not yield to precedent there? Why is only liberal precedent to be sacrosanct?
Both Bowers v. Hardwick and Lawrence v. Texas were constitutional cases, not statutory-construction cases. Prof. Somin's original point was that statutory construction cases are harder to overrule than constitutional cases.
Did Dobbs just get issued this very term, or was that my imagination?
Given that 70% of aborted babies are black and Hispanic, Dobbs was not a very conservative decision. Overruling Roe for whites only would have been a conservative decision.
If the VRA actually requires using race as a criteria, then it violates the Constitution.
Roberts used to understand that a focus on race will be never ending. Oh well, he'll get some relief from the "illegitimate" harping for a week or so.
Sorry Justice Bob, you are out of your jurisdiction.
Oh goodness, what decision does Roberts have up his sleeve that he traded away another hit on the VRA for?
To be clear, yes, I am saying that Roberts has a grudge against the VRA, and I am also saying he's a vote-trading outcome-oriented opportunist.
I think the term is "judicial statesman." /sarc
Well, he is a back stabbing weasel but scheming to get libs to vote his way on something else will be good for you, no?
Professor Blackman, is that you?
We usually impart what Habermas might call a procedural legitimacy to government actors. If someone is elected according to the rules, they're legitimate. But the legitimacy of the Supreme Court doesn't stem from getting the appropriate nomination and advice and consent, and managing to hold a sacred text for a minute or two (without burning their hand) while they recite a magic oath. Unlike a deliberately Protean, and occasionally all-powerful legislature, a court only exists by the ideal continuity of its jurisprudence. The rest are incidentals.
So when the court speaks to a certain law, they're procedurally interposing themselves between the legislature and the people within history. "Law X means so and so." But, unlike the other Branches, the right to do so isn't grounded in procedure (or even the written Federal Constitution), but in having something legitimate to say.
While the legislature can reverse itself freely, the only thing that made the court credible in the first instance is that the thing that was interposed was a constant, rational presence (a Lockean consciousness, in a way). The dog not barking afterwards isn't a ratification of the decision, but a procedural acceptance of that (otherwise ungrounded) peculiar legitimacy.
Mr. D.
This seems quite reasonable.
SCOTUS should change bad Constitutional interpretation, but let Congress fix bad statute interpretations.
If the statue does not align with the Constitution it would seem the SCOTUS would overturn it. This is just the way we have always done it doesn't seem to be a valid argument. I agree with Justice Thomas there is nothing in the Voting Rights Act to justify this. Drawing districts based on race to give them more political power per vote seems completely counter intuitive to the Constitution or the Voting Rights Act. Affirmative voting should never be tolerated.