The Volokh Conspiracy
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Barrett v. Gorsuch
Justice Amy Coney Barrett and Neil Gorsuch are disagreeing more than you might think, but Justice Barrett appears to have the upper hand.
Among the five opinions the Supreme Court released yesterday was Denezpi v. United States, in which the Court held that the Double Jeopardy Clause does not bar successive prosecutions of distinct offenses arising from a single act, even if a single sovereign prosecutes them. Justice Barrett wrote for the Court. Justice Gorsuch dissented, joined (in part) by Justices Sotomayor and Kagan.
As Marcia Coyle notes in the National Law Journal, this is the third case so far this term in which Justice Barrett has written the majority opinion and Justice Gorsuch dissented. Unmentioned by Coyle, the two young justices also authored dueling opinions in a case last term as well, which means that Justices Barrett and Gorsuch have gone toe-to-toe in four cases so far, a particularly interesting fact given they share interpretive philosophies and were appointed by the same President.
Justice Barrett wrote for the Court in Patel v. Garland, holding that federal courts lack jurisdiction to review claims the Attorney General's decision to deny discretionary relief for an alien subject to removal. In Patel, Justice Gorsuch dissented for himself and the Court's three liberal justices.
Justice Barrett also wrote for an eight justice majority in Babcock v. Kijakazi, concerning when civil service payments constitute payments based on "service as a member of a uniformed service." Justice Gorsuch dissented alone.
These three cases are not the first three instances in which Justices Barrett and Gorsuch have crossed swords. they disagreed last term in HollyFrontier Cheyenne Refining, LLC v. Renewable Fuels Association, in which Justice Gorsuch wrote for the Court to expand eligibility for hardship exemptions from federal renewable fuel mandates. Justice Barrett dissented, for herself and Justices Sotomayor and Kagan.
Given these recent splits between Justices Gorsuch and Barrett, it is worth recalling the early splits between Justices Gorsuch and Kavanaugh.
As we saw in the 1950s when President Roosevelt's appointees split on criminal procedure and civil rights cases, just because two justices were appointed by the same President, we should not always expect them to agree.
[Note: Yes, I initially wrote "Justice Roosevelt" when I meant "President Roosevelt." Homer nods.]
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It's good to have "hand"
"Justice Roosevelt"?
How it started: “…a particularly interesting fact given they share interpretive philosophies and were appointed by the same President.”
How it’s going: “… just because two justices were appointed by the same President, we should not always expect them to agree.”
Kavanaugh and ACB are more Bush loyalists than conservative justices.
Point A - different statutes do not create multiple offences
Point B - The BOR expressly forbids the federal government from infringing on items spelled out in the BOR (though it may or may not forbid state governments from infringing on those rights - depending on one's view of incorporation).
Point C - dual soveriegn is a concept made up to circumvent the direct prohibition against the federal government.
Gamble was incorrectly decided - see Gorsuch's dissent
I wonder whether the FFs simply made a mistake. The equivalent English principle upon which US double jeopardy is based was that you could not be tried on the same facts twice, thus ruling out twin sovereignty, or the 2nd prosecution in Denezpi.
So, you would be fine with the federal government not prosecuting civil rights violations if defendants are acquitted on state battery charges---like what happened to Rodney King?
If so, then it would be a simple matter to gut federal criminal statutes. A state could simply prosecute a really bad actor on a misdemeanor charge, suspend the sentence, and thereby foreclose any real punishment for everything from civil rights violations to most bank robberies. Or, what the last outgoing governor did in my state when he vacated his office---pardoning a convicted killer (with little time served) whose relatives happened to donate a significant sum to the former governor's campaign. The feds were able to convict him on other charges stemming from the same conduct.
If I were designing a new system I would allow a double jeopardy defense if the defendant notified federal prosecutors of a pending state case and insisted that that any federal charges be brought at the same time.
It's a tough problem. But maybe "dual jurisdiction" is not the right solution. What if in your hypothetical you indeed let the criminal go but instead abolish the absolute prosecutorial immunity and bring the people who gamed system for the criminal up on civil rights charges?
The prosecutor is not always to blame. In the Jim Crow South even if a prosecutor brought a case, a white jury would likely not convict a white of an offense against a black. There are numerous examples.
Rsteinmetz - I completely agree that it is now a problem and it was a problem.
That being said - In my opinion, 5A is an absolute prohibition against multiple prosecutions - ie once acquitted by the state, then the Feds do not get a second chance to correct the wrongful not guilty verdict.
I think that's exactly the answer: The 14th amendment simply is NOT applicable to non-state actors. Its text makes that clear.
If I murder you, that's a state crime, and if the state deliberately bungles the case, that can be a federal offense on the part of the state, but it doesn't change that the murder was only a state crime, you got your trial, and were acquitted.
I could even see some constitutional basis for a 14th amendment exception to anti-commandeering, since the state government itself is subject to federal jurisdiction under the 14th amendment.
Yes, I would. The dial sovereign thing is a flagrant violation of the constitution’s obvious intent that the government not be able to try someone multiple times for the same action. It’s as obvious as it is that civil asset forfeiture totally ignores the plain language of the fifth amendment.
We don’t really support constitutional rights and protections when we get to “yes, but”. If you were to be tried twice for the same act, you’d consider it to be a violation of your rights. As would I. Perhaps we should allow others that protection as well.
Obvious intent?
Maybe; but that's not obvious to me given the pretty different relationship between the federal and state governments back in the day.
Why even bring it up then? If the concept was that governments could keep trying to nail someone until they finally succeeded then there’s no point in mentioning the concept at all. To the authors of that provision what difference does it make if it’s multiple bites by one sovereign or multiple bites by different sovereigns? The intent was to protect individuals from government. The whole document reeks of that philosophy, which makes sense given what the authors had just experienced.
You’re thinking like a 21st century parser of commas rather than an 18th century group that had just overthrown an oppressive king. That’s not intended as an insult, just an observation.
The Founders did not bind state governments at all, so they could double jeopardy forever, so I'm not sure your purposivism argument prevails (though I do applaud going there - that's my preferred interpretive method as well!)
And it has been used a lot when states pencil whipped cases of those going up for racially-tinged crimes, and the Feds came in and addressed that nonsense.
So let the feds go first. Or, as someone pointed out in a different thread make the feds demonstrate that the state trial was such a sham that the defendant never faced jeopardy.
Is that really a common situation any more? Can’t think of a lot of recent examples where state trials were shams intended to get the accused off.
If anything it’s the opposite now. The feds prosecuted the cop that killed Floyd even though he’d already been convicted. Or Dylan Roof. He got life with no parole in state court and the feds tried him anyway. Just gratuitous political bs on the part of the feds. Guys like Roof who are unpopular and do bad stuff basically get no real civil rights.
Side note - once the black guy who shot the white people in the NYC subway system is convicted and sentenced does anybody think the feds will pile on? Lol. So this doctrine that is being used to bypass the constitution is also being used to double punish people who are politically unpopular. They can’t even violate the constitution in an even handed way. Just like the misinformation thing. Which is why our only protection is to hold firm and don’t let them violate it at all.
But we don’t because we’re idiots who think it’ll never happen to us.
Most federal criminal statutes shouldn't exist in the first place. And stuff that should be a federal crime probably shouldn't be within state jurisdiction. So yes, I'd be fine with gutting a lot of federal criminal statutes.
Since at least the enactment of the Crimes Act of 1790, federal law has (appropriately!) criminalized a number of actions that would also almost certainly be state crimes. So to the extent there's a problem, I don't think this is a solution.
It's not a matter of whether I'm fine with it. It is just the general principle of allowing the authorities two bites of the cherry.
However - consider Aleman v Illinois where Aleman had bribed the judge in his first, bench-trial, and it was ruled that as he had not been in any true jeopardy, he could be retried.
You can reasonably argue that the defendants in some of these cases were not in true jeopardy in their state trials.
No, Gamble was correctly decided - see the majority opinion
Noscitur a sociis
June.14.2022 at 12:07 pm
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Gamble was incorrectly decided - see Gorsuch's dissent
No, Gamble was correctly decided - see the majority opinion"
No - the majority got Gamble wrong - read Gorsuch's dissent.
"I came here for a good argument."
"No, you came here for an argument."
Read gorsuch dissent
He has by far the better argument
Not according to the justices in the majority he didn’t. But he’s got you at least…
OtisAH
June.14.2022 at 2:18 pm
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Not according to the justices in the majority he didn’t. But he’s got you at least…
As if every SC decision has been correctly decided
Dred Scott
Kelo
If you want to have engagement with your arguments, quote a bit from this dissent you find so convincing.
His entire dissent - though i only post the first few paragraph.
Given all this, it might seem that Mr. Gamble should win this case handily. Alabama prosecuted him for violating a state law that “prohibits a convicted felon from possessing a pistol” and sentenced him to a year in prison.[9] But then the federal government, apparently displeased with the sentence, charged Mr. Gamble under 18 U. S. C. §922(g)(1) with being a felon in possession of a firearm based on the same facts that gave rise to the state prosecution. Ultimately, a federal court sentenced him to 46 months in prison and three years of supervised release. Most any ordinary speaker of English would say that Mr. Gamble was tried twice for “the same offence,” precisely what the Fifth Amendment prohibits. Tellingly, no one before us doubts that if either the federal government or Alabama had prosecuted Mr. Gamble twice on these facts and in this manner, it surely would have violated the Constitution.
So how does the government manage to evade the Fifth Amendment’s seemingly plain command? On the government’s account, the fact that federal and state authorities split up the prosecutions makes all the difference. Though the Double Jeopardy Clause doesn’t say anything about allowing “separate sovereigns” to do sequentially what neither may do separately, the government assures us the Fifth Amendment’s phrase “same offence” does this work. Adopting the government’s argument, the Court supplies the following syllogism: “[A]n ‘offence’ is defined by a law, and each law is defined by a sovereign. So where there are two sovereigns, there are two laws, and two ‘offences.’ ” Ante, at 3–4.
But the major premise of this argument—that “where there are two laws there are ‘two offenses’ ”—is mistaken. We know that the Constitution is not so easily evaded and that two statutes can punish the same offense.[10] The framers understood the term “offence” to mean a “transgression.”[11] And they understood that the same transgression might be punished by two pieces of positive law: After all, constitutional protections were not meant to be flimsy things but to embody “principles that are permanent, uniform, and universal.”[12] As this Court explained long ago in Blockburger v. United States, “where the same act or transaction constitutes a violation of two distinct statutory provisions, the test to be applied to determine whether there are two offenses or only one, is whether each provision requires proof of a fact which the other does not.”[13] So if two laws demand proof of the same facts to secure a conviction, they constitute a single offense under our Constitution and a second trial is forbidden. And by everyone’s admission, that is exactly what we have here: The statute under which the federal government pro- ceeded required it to prove no facts beyond those Alabama needed to prove under state law to win its conviction; the two prosecutions were for the same offense.
So she was going with precedent and he wants to overturn it? I'd go with him on this.
Interestingly, Gorsuch provides the authority in this brief excerpt to refute himself (albeit not for the reasons relied on by the majority).
The state law, Ala. Code § 13A-11-72(a), prohibits possession of a pistol by a person convicted of a "crime of violence" (defined to mean certain serious felonies). The federal law, 18 U.S.C. § 922(g)(1), on the other hand, prohibits the possession of any firearm (not just a pistol) by any felon (not just the ones who have committed crimes of violence). But the federal law also requires proof that the firearm was possessed "in or affecting commerce", which the state law does not. Thus "each provision requires proof of a fact which the other does not", making them two offenses under the very Blockburger test that Gorsuch relies on!
Noscitur a sociis
June.14.2022 at 3:46 pm
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Interestingly, Gorsuch provides the authority in this brief excerpt to refute himself (albeit not for the reasons relied on by the majority).
The state law, Ala. Code § 13A-11-72(a), prohibits possession of a pistol by a person convicted of a "crime of violence" (defined to mean certain serious felonies). The federal law, 18 U.S.C. § 922(g)(1), on the other hand, prohibits the possession of any firearm (not just a pistol) by any felon (not just the ones who have committed crimes of violence). But the federal law also requires proof that the firearm was possessed "in or affecting commerce", which the state law does not. Thus "each provision requires proof of a fact which the other does not", making them two offenses under the very Blockburger test that Gorsuch relies on!
in response - multiple statutes do not create multiple offences. The single offence remains a single offence no matter how many state and federal statutes cover the same offence.
And your basis for saying that is... what exactly? It's not the case under longstanding Supreme Court precedent (Blockburger is from the 30s). It's not how Gorsuch (or Ginsburg) thought things worked based on their Gamble dissents, since they both endorse the Blockburger test. It's not consistent with my intuitive sense of what "offense" signifies today. And Gamble's purported historical examples—presumably the absolute best out there, in light of the ample intellectual effort to eliminate the dual sovereign doctrine—are pathetically unconvincing.
So what do you have in support?
"The single offence remains a single offence no matter how many state and federal statutes cover the same offence."
Makes sense to me.
One weird trick to get around the double jeopardy part of the Constitution whenever you want. Just count every statute as a different offense for the same action!
Not Unreasonable
June.14.2022 at 9:03 am
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"So, you would be fine with the federal government not prosecuting civil rights violations if defendants are acquitted on state battery charges---like what happened to Rodney King?"
Yes - I have to respect the constitution.
The prohibition in 5A in my opinion is absolute. The entire BOR is to protect the rights of individuals against actions of the federal government.
As I stated in point A different statutes Do Not create multiple offences, "dual soveriegn" do not create multiple offences.
I am in general uncomfortable with the current situation. Perhaps the courts could require the Feds go first, a sort of preemption.
Although there are cases where the States do a good job, I always think of the James Byrd 1998 case in Jasper TX. My parents lived in Jasper at the time and I visited a couple of times during the surrounding media circus.
The usual suspects made much of the fact that TX didn't have a hate crimes statute, as well as various charges of systemic racism.
All three men involved were convicted - two in rural Jasper Texas, one in Bryant Texas (home of Texas A& M). Two have been executed - one in 2011 and one in 2019, pretty swift by modern standards. The third is currently serving life, he will be eligible for parole in 2039 at age 64.
The usual suspects also oppose the death penalty in all cases. I'm not sure the lack of a hate crime statute would have had any effect given the outcome, although Texas has since passed one.
Simplistic observation is that these are administrative cases, and not "deeply rooted" in a judicial philosophy.
Interestingly, Gorsuch provides the authority in this brief excerpt to refute himself (albeit not for the reasons relied on by the majority).
The state law, Ala. Code § 13A-11-72(a), prohibits possession of a pistol by a person convicted of a "crime of violence" (defined to mean certain serious felonies). The federal law, 18 U.S.C. § 922(g)(1), on the other hand, prohibits the possession of any firearm (not just a pistol) by any felon (not just the ones who have committed crimes of violence). But the federal law also requires proof that the firearm was possessed "in or affecting commerce", which the state law does not. Thus "each provision requires proof of a fact which the other does not", making them two offenses under the very Blockburger test that Gorsuch relies on!
Intended, of course, as a reply to Joe_dallas above. Why does this site insist on such a shitty commenting system