The Volokh Conspiracy
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Does the Supreme Court Favor the Rich?
The NYT profiles a sloppy and highly problematic empirical study of the Supreme Court.
Today's New York Times reports on a new study by three economists purporting to show that the Supreme Court's decisions are increasingly tilted toward the interests of the rich, and suggesting that this may play a role in rising economic inequality. Here's how the NYT story begins:
Supreme Court justices take two oaths. The first, required of all federal officials, is a promise to support the Constitution. The second, a judicial oath, is more specific. It requires them, among other things, to "do equal right to the poor and to the rich."
A new study being released on Monday from economists at Yale and Columbia contends that the Supreme Court has in recent decades fallen short of that vow.
The study, called "Ruling for the Rich," concludes that the wealthy have the wind at their backs before the justices and that a good way to guess the outcome of a case is to follow the money.
The study, "Ruling for the Rich: The Supreme Court Over Time," by Andrea Prat, Fiona Scott Morton, and Jacob Spitz, was posted as an NBER working paper, and has not yet been peer-reviewed or (to my knowledge) accepted anywhere for publication. But that did not stop it from getting a the full-article treatment in the NYT.
Having looked at the study, I don't think it does much of anything to reliably substantiate its claims. It is both conceptually muddled and poorly executed. At most it shows that (surprise!) Republican Supreme Court nominees have become more conservative over time (a point I made to the Times), but that is hardly a revelation.
The biggest problem with the study's design is its adoption of overly simplistic conceptions of what makes a decision "pro-rich" or "pro-poor." Here is what the authors say they are doing:
We measure whether a justice's vote moves money from poor to rich, and not on the words they use to justify that decision. Our approach provides a practical alternative to predicting judicial behavior, and one that is based on an empirical methodology. Our framing is particularly helpful to the prediction exercise when the case is not about a hot-button cultural issue like abortion, but instead on a topic like tax or regulation. Making the rich richer may not be an ideology that is easily justifiable to ordinary citizens, but does a better job at explaining decisions than theories of statutory or constitutional interpretation, e.g. originalism. . . .
We categorize the parties in these cases as "rich" or "poor" according to their likelihood of being wealthy. A justice's vote is pro-rich if its outcome would directly shift resources to the party that is more likely to be wealthy. . . .
Set aside whether it is meaningful to look at cases in this way, to make their assessment the authors adopt a set of arbitrary (and value-laden) assumptions about what makes a given decision "pro-rich" or "pro-poor." Among other things, they assume that all decisions in favor of a private party challenging a government regulation are "pro rich." As they explain:
Any type of government constraint on a business prevents it from doing what it otherwise would, which is most typically maximizing its profits. Thus economic regulation is generally costly to business, but can nonetheless be enacted into law in a democracy because of its benefits to citizens. For example, a company must bear the cost of abating pollution, but after it does so, citizens are no longer harmed by dirty air and water. Governments create many rules that constrain corporations' actions, including financial regulation, labor regulation, safety regulation, environmental regulation, etc., which are designed for the broader benefit of society. We categorize votes on the Court that support businesses over a government rule that the business is challenging as pro-rich.
This analysis conflates the social desirability of government intervention, perhaps to serve some public interest, with the potential distributional consequences of such a policy, as if they are one and the same. And do the authors really mean to embrace the proposition that government policy is never manipulated to serve the interests of the wealthy? Should regulations constricting housing supply should be categorized as pro-poor and anti-rich?
Focusing on environmental regulation (which the authors choose to highlight), it has been long understood, environmental regulation in particular is often a reflection of elite policy preferences and such regulation often has regressive economic effects. Protecting environmental resources and values often means adopting policies that increase the costs of goods and services. Good or bad, it is not clear why either side should be characterized as "pro-rich" or "pro-poor." And have these authors never heard of rent-seeking? Are they really unaware that regulation (including environmental regulation) often advances the interests of privileged interests or incumbent firms at the expense of consumers?
When it comes to cases pitting firms against firms, the authors again embed their ideological priors into their study design. They write:
When one corporation is in a dispute with another, we determine if consumers (the "poor" in our taxonomy) belong on one side. A win for the plaintiff in a private antitrust case, for example, should redistribute monopoly profits to consumers, and therefore a vote for the plaintiff is pro-poor.
Here they have simply adopted the highly contests assumption that whether an antitrust plaintiff prevails tells us anything about whether the decision benefits the rich or the poor. Indeed, the entire premise of contemporary antitrust jurisprudence is that outcomes should be driven by the pursuit of "consumer welfare" such that if an antitrust defendant prevails, this is because there are reasons to presume that this outcome--and not an outcome for the plaintiff--is better for consumers. My point here is not that current antitrust doctrine is right or wrong, only that the authors' case characterization assumes what existing doctrine contests: that a victory for a plaintiff is a ruling against the rich. Similar concerns could be raised about their coding of class-action cases, which some would argue benefit wealthy plaintiffs' lawyers at the expense of actual consumers.
All this is bad enough, but it is when the authors turn to their "counterfactual analysis" to see what might have happened had President Trump not altered the composition of the Supreme Court that things really go off the rails.
In this part of the paper, the authors look at how their conclusions might have turned out differently had Democratic Presidents filled one or more of the Supreme Court seats ultimately filled by President Trump. In their first counterfactual scenario, for instance, they consider what would have happened had Justice Ginsburg retired in 2016, allowing President Obama to appoint her replacement and preventing the ultimate appointment of Justice Barrett. According to the authors, this would have changed the outcome in four of cases from "pro-rich" to "pro-poor." (See Table 5 on page 29.)
The first such example they give is Washington State Department of Licensing v. Cougar Den, Inc. Set aside how the authors concluded that this was a "pro-rich" decision, how is it that the result would have flipped in their counterfactual? Justice Ginsburg joined the judgement of the Court and all of the other Democratic appointees supported the outcome. Perhaps more importantly, this case was decided in March 2019, so how could replacing RBG with a Kagan clone in 2016 (and preventing ACB's appointment in 2020) have affected this outcome at all?
The second example in this table is perhaps even worse: June Medical Services LLC v. Russo. Here, again, we have a case in which RBG and the Democratic appointees were already in the majority, so replacing RBG with a Democratic appointee would have no conceivable impact. And here again we have a case that could not be affected at all by preventing the appointment of ACB because it was decided before ACB was on the bench (June 2020).
June Medical also seems like an odd case to highlight if one is focused on whether Supreme Court decisions are "pro-rich." I guess this case is categorized by the authors as "pro-rich" because the Court ruled against the government on behalf of a business entity, but did the authors really mean to characterize this case in such terms? June Medical was an abortion case. I doubt any justice viewed this case in economic terms, and I am highly suspect that many of those celebrating this study on BlueSky would agree that a decision striking down a state abortion regulation is "pro-rich." (After all, this would mean Dobbs was "pro-poor.")
I think it is important to note that I did not cherry-pick these examples out of the authors' underlying data set; I do not have access to their unpublished data or coding. Rather, these examples are literally the first highlighted by the authors themselves in Table 5. So if the coding and analysis is problematic here, I shudder to think what might be found if other researchers are allowed to check under the hood and scrutinize the data underlying the authors' results.
Longtime readers know that I have long been skeptical of studies purporting to claim that the Supreme Court is "pro-business." I think that such labels often obscure more than they illuminate. I have also argued that insofar as one thinks "pro-business" analyses are useful, there are reasons to think the Trump appointees may make the Court less pro-business than it had been before. But this sort of conclusion requires more careful consideration of the actual cases the Court is considering and what is actually at issue. Sloppy characterizations that embed contestable ideological premises is not any way to develop a better understanding of this Court or its effect on American life.
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I'm just here awaiting the usual suspects to comment, that of course this is obvious, true and factual, and that Professor Adler doesn't know what he's talking about.
Since it supports The Narrative, it will become canon and heretical to challenge.
You won't get detailed rebuttals, only lame tropes like "You don't trust The Science".
You lost me when you argued that poor people, who do not buy or develop land and therefore do not have standing to challenge land-use regulations barring development, are the ones challenging such regulations.
That isn't what he said. His point was that eliminating land use regulation to allow the building of more homes is "pro-poor" because it increases the housing supply and reduces housing costs. It doesn't matter who the plaintiff is but rather who benefits.
Oh My Gosh! Have think tanks and environmental lobbyists completely forsaken the poor? Does no one ever take action on behalf of the poor?
What has happened to our glorious tradition of non-profits suing the government?
Listen, Stupid. The topic, which you appear to have forgotten, is whether successfully challenging land-use regulations *benefits* the rich or poor more. It's the rich. That's why the rich frequently oppose or challenge land regulations. The poor do not, because they understand that rents don't go down. At best, rent increases are slowed, which is not as great of a benefit as doubling your investment every five years (the expected return on new development). Therefore, removing such regulations benefits the wealthy to a greater extent.
Adler is clearly working from motivated thinking, perhaps just contrarianism.
So even if rich and poor both benefit from a decision (and, therefore, had the status quo remained, both would be worse off), its still pro-rich and anti-poor? Even if the poor end up better off, its still anti-poor if the rich end up benefiting more than the poor?
Are you high?
"The topic, which you appear to have forgotten, is whether successfully challenging land-use regulations *benefits* the rich or poor more. It's the rich"
I'm going to shamelessly cherry pick two IJ cases:
Couple fighting zoning that prohibits their backyard egg business.
Woman fighting to open a hair braiding business.
One can argue that land use restrictions, or more specifically removing them, benefits rich or poor more in any given instance, but a flat statement that they always cut one way seems pretty wrong.
Some of the time it's hard to say. If an area is zoned for minimum 20 acre lots, does that favor the rich because only they can afford lots that big? If that zoning is struck down, do you say it benefits the rich owners because selling twenty 1 acre lots generally nets more than one 20 acre lot? Or does that benefit the less affluent who can now afford a 1 acre lot? Both? Neither?
I think you have to do the work instead of a faith based assertion that the benefits always run one way.
They don't need to do the work, because this isn't a matter of what is, empirically, actually happening.
"We categorize the parties in these cases as "rich" or "poor" according to their likelihood of being wealthy. "
Not whether they're wealthy, note. Their presumed likelihood of being wealthy.
They're just assigning the sides of the case to the "rich" vs "poor" bins.
What we know is that the legal system favors the wealthy. There should be no questioning that fact. It is simply true that with money you can buy higher price legal talent and that talent can make a better case for your desired outcome. I don't really see that SCOTUS should be any different.
Who is "we", kemo sabe?
Thinking people.
As has been said, the law, like the Ritz, is open to rich and poor alike...
At the Supreme Court both sides tend to have equally good lawyers.
But it isn't really the cost of the legal talent that matters. I could leave my large firm and cut my fee in half. That wouldn't make me half as smart as I was. The real impact is that with more money, you can pay the lawyers to do more. Note with the advent of the contingency fee, the rich/poor division tends to break down as the better plaintiffs' lawyers have more than sufficient resources to match up with any defendant.
Sure, at the Supreme Court, both sides tend to have equally good lawyers. The real trick is getting there. That trip is very expensive, and most people can't afford the tickets.
I am certain you are a good lawyer and that seems likely reason you work for a big law firm. Do you or your firm do pro bono work? My guess is you are expected to bring in a certain amount of money each year for the firm. That is before you think of doing something for free. As for contingency fees, they only work when the defendant has deep pockets. A big drug company or an insurance company will get a lawyer's interest. Where is a contingency in fighting a regulation?
I see no discussion of selection bias. The Supreme Court is not populated by ambulance chasers; they can only take the cases which percolate upwards through trial and appeals courts.
ETA: Or to be more explicit, if there is any inherent bias in the system, it's because the damned system is too expensive, slow, and convoluted. The Supreme Court is merely the final judicial stop.
It's just the usual: What is meant by "favoring the rich" is not opposing the rich as much as they'd like.
Yeah, no, that's not at all what is meant.
Sure is!
"We measure whether a justice's vote moves money from poor to rich, and not on the words they use to justify that decision. ... Making the rich richer may not be an ideology that is easily justifiable to ordinary citizens, but does a better job at explaining decisions than theories of statutory or constitutional interpretation, e.g. originalism. ."
'Screw legal reasoning, we don't care about that. We just care that the money flows in the direction we want.'
Yes, they are not addressing legal reasoning; that's explicit. But it has literally nothing to do with what you said.
I can't say that a decision is "favoring the rich" if it's just impartially applying existing law. They're demanding that, where existing law says the wealthy are legally entitled money, ruling that they get it is partiality to wealth.
To not be considered partial to wealth they'd require that legal principles be violated to screw the wealthy over!
they are not addressing legal reasoning
they are not addressing legal reasoning
they are not addressing legal reasoning
How can they determine if SCOTUS is "favoring the rich" without addressing legal reasoning?
If the law "favors the rich" (which it does almost by definition, since being rich means being legally entitled to money), and SCOTUS neutrally applies the law, then how are they favoring the rich?
That's exactly the problem.
That's exactly the problem.
That's exactly the problem.
The Court's job is exactly to do the legal reasoning, and nothing else. Ruling according to the law is not favoring the wealthy, it's doing law instead of, as the NYT favors, ripping the wealthy off.
So you're mad the study isn't doing something it doesn't do and doesn't claim to do.
What a ridiculous criticism.
First, I'm not mad, I'm disdainful.
Second, I have disdain for the study because it's doing something deceitful and inappropriate: Characterizing the Court simply doing its job as partiality towards the wealthy.
"they are not addressing legal reasoning"
Which is why the "Study" is complete and total bullshit, and why no person with both a brain and ethics would have anything positive to say about it
It's a descriptive study. Nothing more.
You want it to be a different study about a different thing. Something a lot more subjective and a lot less less amenable to social science analysis.
And you're mad it's not doing that.
Which is a terrible critique.
You can if you're familiar with the English language.
Your first error is not realizing that SCOTUS virtually never "applies existing law," because SCOTUS generally takes cases to settle existing law; if it's just a matter of application, SCOTUS is unlikely to hear the case. (I know, in BrettLaw all issues are clear to all honest people, and if judges don't agree with you it's solely because they're activists who ignore the law.)
Your second error is not understanding what they are measuring (or at least what they're trying to measure). A legal win for the rich is a legal win for the rich, whether 'deserved' or not. Brown vs. Board of Education was a decision favorable to blacks; Plessy was a decision unfavorable to blacks. Which decision was correct (hint: Brown) doesn't change the validity of those statements.
"Brown vs. Board of Education was a decision favorable to blacks; Plessy was a decision unfavorable to blacks."
So a SCOTUS that consistently rules that blacks are entitled to equal treatment, to vote, and to not be discriminated against is favoring blacks, but if SCOTUS rules half the time that it's OK to deny black people the vote, segregate them, etc. they they're neutral?
No. If the SCOTUS consistently rules that blacks are entitled to equal treatment, this means blacks are entitled to not be discriminated against, but are NOT entitled to be discriminated in favor of. Because it's equal, not favorable, treatment that they're entitled to.
In a Jim Crow environment, this would look like favoritism towards blacks. But in an affirmative action/DEI environment, this looks like favoritism towards whites.
But it's neither, it's impartial application of legal principles.
The NYT doesn't want impartial application of legal principles, they want the side they favor to consistently win regardless of legal principles.
Sigh. I don't know how many ways to explain it to you: They. Are. Not. Analyzing. The. Legal Reasoning.
What does the NYT have to do with it? They are reporting on the study, not conducting it.
Good grief! I AGREE that they're not analyzing the legal reasoning, that's my freaking complaint! They're demanding that the Court do something other than legal reasoning!
"What does the NYT have to do with it? They are reporting on the study, not conducting it."
Somebody doesn't understand how media outlets operate. They're not going to be reporting on a study like this one out of a disinterested compulsion to report studies, they're not a political science journal. They're reporting on THIS study in order to promote their own perspective.
That's HOW media outlets promote their own views, most of the time: By reporting on things that advance them, and leaving unreported things that advance contrary views.
That's the framework of this study, yes. (Though of course about economics, not race.) Again: they're not analyzing whether the court is right or wrong.
Riiiight. They're just asking questions.
If you CARE abotu whether SCOTUS "favors the rich", as opposed to whether it "favors the rule of law, democracy, and the written US Constitution", then you are a worthless pile of shit.
Because it's not hte legitimate role of ANY court to impose the personal political beliefs of its members on the body politic
Ah, so you come in thinking 'favors the rich' is a value judgement, and proceed from there.
You're mad at a narrative you yourself brought in.
I suspect this isn't a particularly strong study, for the reasons in the OP. But your critique is not dealing with anything but some personal inconsistencies about your worldview of the system and of virtue that you gotta work out with yourself.
Interesting. As someone who pretty regularly says that judges got it wrong or even are corrupt, and who has in fact called for the public lynching and hanging of judges you disagreed with, you now believe judges impartially apply existing law? Just in this moment, you've changed your entire paradigm on the legal system?
I will literally eat my hat if you can produce an example of me advocating public lynching and hanging of judges I disagreed with. As opposed to, say, impeachment.
The closest I've gotten to that is noting that the judiciary only has power because the public accords them legitimacy, and they have to keep that in mind if they don't want to find themselves suddenly powerless.
OP: "The court declares that legislators elected in gerrymandered districts cannot fully exercise the powers of their office."
You: "Extraordinary? That's 'nearest lamp post' material."
https://reason.com/volokh/2022/08/19/north-carolina-state-supreme-court-makes-a-bold-move/?comments=true#comment-9660495
"As opposed to, say, impeachment."
"This is judicial usurpation of the highest order. It calls for immediate impeachment, they can resort to the lamp post when the majority on the court rules that the legislature has lost that power, too."
I said that the lamp post might be appropriate if the judiciary refused to be impeached. So, what would you suggest as the relevant step when the judiciary rules that the judiciary are not subject to impeachment? I don't see that at that point you've got any option the judiciary is prepared to admit is legal, so you're stuck with either accepting the judiciary as your black robed overlords, or extra-'legal' action.
"Lamp post" is, of course, a metaphor. I'm sure you could deal with the situation short of literally stringing them up.
As a matter of experimental design, a far less contentious approach is simply to categorise appellants as either businesses, governments (local, state, or Federal), or individuals, and in some cases determine whether the government is a proxy for business or individuals (as in Mass v EPA) for example.
But after hitting ctrl-f and searching for "decline" it seems they don't mention the far greater number of cases where the SC declines to hear an appeal, and that makes a huge difference to conclusions. If an SC decline (unanimously) to hear 2,000 cases a year involving rich v poor, and rules on 20, does it really show clear bias one way or another if the right on the court finds for the rich guy 15 times while the left only finds for him 5 times? The bias is marginal at best.
Good point. Do the researchers ever account for selection bias?
An individual poor person isn't likely to have entered into any sort of contract that would allow them access to the court system. Instead, it's mandatory forced private arbitration. The law that reduced access to the courts by poor people in favor of private arbitration was made possible by The Supreme Court. Business loves this private arbitration system by the way.
But what about poor people as a group via class actions? Nope, it's private arbitration on an individual basis only. When some creative attorneys starting filing mass individual private arbitration cases, business cried foul, and initially changed arbitration providers, but eventually were able to get AAA and JAMS to adopt mass arbitration policies to prevent mass filings. What is ironic is that AAA/JAMS effectively do a class action when a bunch of cases meets their mass arbitration policy, but the contract which restricts the poor person's access to the court system prohibits class actions there.
Again, all of the above made possible by the Supreme Court. Business loves this system. Poor people lose access to the courts, and rarely use arbitration.
If no other set of cases other than campaign finance laws were cited the answer would be obvious that the Court favors the wealthy. Of course the argument against, to paraphrase Dickens is that the Court cases allowing unlimited political spending are neutral in that the poor have equal rights to spend millions in the political arena just like the wealthy.
Money is not speech. Every time I have tried to speak to my wallet it has refused to answer. And corporations are not people. You would think this was obvious, but not for those who decide on ideology as opposed to the law.
Corporations are Soylant Green: Take away the people and there's nothing there.
It is not incidental that every newspaper in the country above the level of a family newsletter is published by a corporation: The government's own tort laws make combining forces to to anything even slightly expensive crazy dangerous if you don't form a corporation.
It should be obvious that the government can't herd people into using corporations by making not using corporations legally dangerous, AND declare that you lose your constitutional rights if you act through a corporation.
Oddly enough, there are advantages to forming a corporation other than the limit on tort liability.
It's not all nefarious government behavior.
Sure, if you lump LLCs (which are indeed technically corporations) and LLPs (which are not) into your definition of "corporation" then of course most businesses will have some structure that protects its principals from liability.
I think there's a meaningful difference between corporations that serve to aggregate capital and pass-through entities, though, as bernard hints at below. The Supreme Court recognizes the difference between closely held corporations and broadly held corporations in other contexts, as well. Seems like it wouldn't be hard to apply that same logic to the limits of the First Amendment.
Which is the New York Times, closely or broadly held? This is apparently an easy question.
That one is indeed pretty easy--NYT is a publicly-traded corporation on a major stock exchange. It's broadly held.
You're maybe getting at a better point, which is that it is not always going to be such an easy question. But don't blame me for putting the distinction into Constitutional law; it was Alito who wrote the Hobby Lobby decision.
Sigh. Nobody has claimed that "money is speech." The argument is that money used for speech is protected by the same provisions that protect speech.
The example I used to give (pre-Dobbs) was to imagine a law that said, "Nobody can spend more than $50 on an abortion." Money obviously isn't itself abortion, but a law that restricted or forbid spending money on an abortion would run afoul of the (then-existing) constitutional protections for abortion.
Point for David
Right. As I like to say, money isn't publishing, either, but try publishing anything if you're forbidden to spend money buying paper and ink.
Nobody interprets constitutional rights that narrowly unless their aim is to undermine them.
I'm more sympathetic to the campaign finance laws than some around here but find this comment a bit off.
Money is a necessary part of multiple constitutional rights. Money is not the right to counsel. But Gideon v. Wainwright showed the value of government paying for it in certain cases.
Corporations are "persons." Artificial persons have First Amendment rights. NYT v. Sullivan. NAACP v. Alabama. etc.
Yes, artificial "persons" and human "people" are different in certain ways. People can be citizens. And this in certain respects influences when regulations are acceptable.
OTOH, Citizens United appealed to the rights of people. So, it's complicated.
And, btw, to remind people, that opinion did uphold certain regulations. It did not strike down all laws that OUTLAW SPEECH (the horror, the horror) in a certain respect. For instance, advertisements (with words) without certain disclaimers might be penalized.
Citizens United was a very revealing case. After all the talk about corporations like ADM diverting stockholders' money to politics, who did they go after? A corporation formed specifically to deliver political speech.
They said they wanted to go after ADM, but the real target was NRA.
Imagine saying, “Burning flags are not speech. Every time I have tried to speak to my burning flag it has refused to answer.”
What a stupid shithead.
david nieporent is the kind of guy who thinks the 14th Amendment grants a gay man a constitutional right to put his erect penis into another man's cornhole and thrust it in and out, spraying a load of aids fluids into the other guy's prostate.
who cares what he thinks about the supreme court?
Sounds like a ruggedly individual right. The more enlightened commentators understand that the warmth of collectivism requires that the gay man give his partner a reach-around.
It doesn't matter whether the study makes sense or not, it gives the academic left another talking point to use in its indoctrination.
Propaganda doesn't need to be accurate.
Where to start, it is categorical fiction that there is rising economic inequality in the United States of America. It sounds like Adler read the comic book published by Piketty and took it hook, line, and sinker without taking a moment to critically analyze it. Such is the life of blind ideologues.
The cat box liner previously known as the newspaper of record will print any gossip, lie, fabrication, rumor, or fiction that matches its ideology.
Only property hating Marxists could even begin to think that American courts favor "the rich" (as if the term were self-defining). The founding documents require the United States government to protect "life, liberty, and property." You would think an official from a property and environment institute would mention this.
SafeSurfer is not just stupid and a mindless partisan, but completely illiterate. Adler didn't say there was rising economic inequality. And he is the opposite of the caricature you describe.
Yeah, this was enough to get me to block SafeSurfer. Not sure if it's a really dumb human or a bot that's way worse than Riva, but most of its posts are completely inane. No need to waste my time reading any more nonsense.
NYT Headline:
"Supreme Court Increasingly Favors the Rich, Economists Say"
We measure whether a justice's vote moves money from poor to rich, and not on the words they use to justify that decision.
Wow, that is really special.
So, if a poor person robs a rich person at gunpoint, and SCOTUS rules that the poor person has to be punished for his crime, that's a "pro-rich" ruling, not a "yes, you have to follow the law" ruling.
IOW, we already know the "Study" is utter crap
It's both!
Well, yes. That was the point of the post. That's why Prof. Adler, who's not a mindless partisan, said that the study was so bad.
Fair. He's a partisan. He's not mindless.
In your view, is there no space between being conservative (or liberal for that matter) and being partisan?
Any type of government constraint on a business prevents it from doing what it otherwise would, which is most typically maximizing its profits. Thus economic regulation is generally costly to business, but can nonetheless be enacted into law in a democracy because of its benefits to citizens.
1: Not all business owners are rich
2: The idea that all laws are good, and benefit society, is just about the most stupid idea, ever.
There's good reason why "hi, I'm from the gov't and I'm here to help you" is one of the "three great lies", and these losers are absolute nimrods for trying to pretend it's actually a great "truth".
The idea that all laws are good, and benefit society, is just about the most stupid idea, ever.
Well, not the worst, but bad nonetheless. But the idea that business should never be regulated is far worse, and far more stupid.
In fact, it's so stupid that I'd be hard pressed to identify anybody outside of maybe an Ayn Rand novel who actually advocated it.
It's almost funny that a passing joke Reagan made to lead a speech has become the ideological bedrock of the more lunatic libertarians. Do you think Somalia is better off for spending a couple decades with no government? Did the people thrive? Did businesses thrive (not counting piracy)? Is that really what you want?
Somalia doesn't actually lack a government. They have an excess of governments fighting over who gets to be on top. They're in the turf war phase, where none of the gangs has established enough dominance to qualify as "the" government.
If you think Reagan originated that joke, well, then you're just as pitifully ignorant as I expect a leftist to be
ALL gov't, without exception, is a thug with a gun, pointing it at your head, either saying "do this or I'll kill you" or saying "don't that or I'll kill you".
Every bit of $$$ possessed by the gov't comes from armed theft (give me your tax money or I'll kill you).
Whether or not gov't is ever necessary, it is never "good". The best it ever achieves is "necessary evil".
So a bunch of brainless fruitcakes defining "good" as "pro-gov't regulation", with the proud brag that "of course we're not going to analyze whether or not the regulation is good (we assume that) or that the ruling was legally valid (because we don't care about anything other than getting our way)" is pretty much teh Platonic ideal of a shit study.
I agree with the operationalization and measurement concerns you mention, but I think a bigger issue here is the selection effect. Taking a census of the court's actual cases ignores all the cases it didn't take (thus issuing a default verdict in favor of the side whose victory is preserved) and further all the cases that are not appealed. If the court was 6-3 or 7-2 Democratic appointees, it's likely a widely different set of cases would be taken (or rejected) and a widely different set of cases would petition for cert. There'd also be different downstream judges in district and appeals courts, and those cases would be different. The principle of taking counterfactuals for a causal effect is sound, but if the variance induced under the counterfactual swamps any signal, it's not a paper worth pursuing, because the end conclusion is "depending on the set of assumptions you adopt, the conclusion differs" which is the same as saying the paper shouldn't move your prior.
Seems like it's been conventional wisdom forever that the Court is pro-establishment. Establishment ~= rich. Maybe one can argue they failed, but a lot of rich people have channeled a ton of money through the Federalist Society and Leonard Leo in an effort to influence the Court.
No matter what the rules happen to be, somebody's going to be doing better under them than somebody else, and thus get designated as "the rich". This doesn't mean the rules were designed to favor them, and if they fight to preserve the rules, that doesn't mean they're fighting to preserve the law being unfair.
They may just be fighting to avoid being deliberately ripped off by the people who did worse.
There is another fundamental problem with this study: the Marxist-tinged assumption that every conflict is a zero-sum battle between rich and poor, and that pro-business equals anti-poor. This is probably true when, for example, the Court upholds arbitration agreements, but it's far less clear in many cases. When a business challenges a government regulation, the poor are not a party - how do we know if the poor would do better or worse without the regulation? Similarly in criminal cases: are the rich or the poor better off under pro-defendant rulings? Take, for example, the vast expansion of the exclusionary rule under the Warren Court: it could at least be argued that rich defendants, who can afford better lawyers, benefit more from the exclusionary rule than poor defendants.
Of course, one can believe that conservative ideas hurt the poor generally, but baking that into an analysis of Supreme Court cases severely limits the value of such an analysis. "I think conservatism hurts the poor, the Supreme Court justices make conservative rulings, therefore their rulings hurt the poor" doesn't really add much to the conversation beyond stating what liberals already believe.
There are lies, damn lies, and statistics. -- Mark Twain
"Longtime readers know that I have long been skeptical of studies purporting to claim that the Supreme Court is 'pro-business.'"
Buried the lede way down in the last paragraph.