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What If Congress Limited Birthright Citizenship and Nobody Noticed?
A new study further undermines revisionist claims about birthright citizenship under the Fourteenth Amendment, noting a dog that did not bark.
One of President Trump's first actions in his second term was an Executive Order purporting to limit birthright citizenship to the children of citizens and permanent residents. The Supreme Court will consider the lawfulness of this order in case to be heard this spring.
Section One of the Fourteenth Amendment provides:
All persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens of the United States and of the State wherein they reside.
It is generally accepted that this language did not extend citizenship to the children of foreign diplomats and hostile armies born on American soil, as neither would be "subject to the jurisdiction" of the United States. According to the Trump Administration, this language also excludes the children of temporary visitors and those not lawfully present in the country.
The Trump Administration position is based upon a revisionist account of the Fourteenth Amendment. While some recent scholarship has raised interesting points about the contours of Section One, and perhaps raised some questions about Congress's authority to define the scope of the jurisdiction of the United States, I am more persuaded by the conventional account.
A new study creates further doubts about the revisionist account. "The Dog That Didn't Bark: Eligibility To Serve In Congress And The Original Understanding Of The Citizenship Clause" by Amanda Frost and Emily Eason, forthcoming in the Georgetown Law Journal Online, notes the conspicuous lack of any effort to enforce a more restrictive understanding of birthright citizenship after the Fourteenth Amendment was adopted. Specifically, they note that no one sought to challenge the citizenship of any member of Congress on the grounds that they lacked citizenship and were thus ineligible to serve, even though multiple members of Congress during this period were born to individuals who were neither citizens nor the equivalent of lawful permanent residents.
As noted in this Adam Liptak story about the study, there were plenty of challenges to qualifications during this period, just not on the basis that birthright citizenship required the parents to be domiciled or seeking naturalization into the U.S.
Hundreds of challenges to the qualifications of members of Congress have been filed over the years on all sorts of grounds, spiking in the years around the ratification of the 14th Amendment, a time of furious partisan division. Between just 1865 and 1871, the qualifications of 18 senators were contested. Yet there was but one challenge to a senator's qualifications involving citizenship in those years.
Several Democratic senators claimed in 1870 that their new colleague from Mississippi, Hiram Rhodes Revels, the first Black man to serve in Congress, had not been a citizen for the required nine years. They reasoned that the 14th Amendment had overturned Dred Scott, the 1857 Supreme Court decision that denied citizenship to the descendants of enslaved African Americans, just two years earlier and that therefore he would not be eligible for another seven.
That argument failed. No one thought to challenge any other members on the ground that they were born to parents who were not citizens and who had not, under the law in place at the time, filed a declaration of intent to be naturalized.
Immigrants were not eligible to be naturalized until three years after that declaration was filed and until five years after they arrived in the United States. The process was not perfectly analogous to lawful permanent residency, but it was not so very different, either.
While the failure of anyone to bring such challenges does not dispositively resolve the original public meaning of Section One, it is powerful circumstantial evidence against the claim that the Amendment sought to constrict birthright citizenship as the Trump Administration claims.
Here is the abstract of the Frost-Eason paper:
President Donald J. Trump's 2025 Executive Order restricting birthright citizenship has prompted new interest in the interpretation of the Fourteenth Amendment's Citizenship Clause. This Essay analyzes an overlooked source of the original understanding of that Clause: the meaning of "citizen" when determining whether members-elect are qualified to serve in Congress. The U.S. Constitution requires that every member of Congress be a U.S. citizen, and further provides that each House "shall be the judge" of members' qualifications. Anyone is permitted to challenge a member-elect's qualifications to serve, and hundreds of such challenges have been brought over U.S. history. Accordingly, challenges to members-elect's citizenship--as well as the absence of such challenges--shed light on the original understanding of the Citizenship Clause.
Using a variety of archival sources, we have researched the ancestry of all 584 members of the Thirty-ninth (1865-67), Fortieth (1867-69), and Forty-first (1869-71) Congresses, and found more than a dozen whose citizenship would be suspect under President Trump's interpretation of the Citizenship Clause. Yet no one questioned these members' citizenship despite the contentious political environment that inspired frequent qualifications challenges on a variety of other grounds. This dog that didn't bark provides further evidence that the Trump administration's novel interpretation of the Citizenship Clause is inconsistent with the original understanding.
We conclude with an observation based on long hours of tedious research: Determining the status of immigrants arriving in the early nineteenth century--an era with few immigration records and minimal enforcement of existing state-based restrictions on immigration--is often impossible, and always onerous. The difficulty of the task alone is evidence that no one at the time of ratification could have seriously thought that U.S. citizenship turned on such questions.
As longtime readers may recall, I think the failure of the proverbial dog to bark is often probative of the meaning of legislative language, particularly when the legislative provisions are the subject of extensive debate. So, for instance, I continue to maintain that it is probative that not a single member of Congress (nor contemporaneous commentator) ever claimed that the Affordable Care Act provided for tax credits for the purchase of health insurance on federal exchanges (the Supreme Court's decision in King v. Burwell notwithstanding). With publication of the Frost-Eason paper I look forward to a renewed consideration of whether the dog that didn't bark is relevant in statutory interpretation.
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This won't stop cultists and bigots from claiming otherwise, of course.
I think the failure of the proverbial dog to bark is often probative of the meaning of legislative language, particularly when the legislative provisions are the subject of extensive debate.
You could get a banger review article out of this postulate.
The Dog That Doesn't Bark is a Dog That Will Hunt: When the Absence of Argument is a Probative Argument in Statutory Interpretation
Woof, woof!
It's like a quorum call -- failing to ask if there is a quorum present doesn't preclude someone from doing so in a future meeting.
It is not in fact anything like a quorum call. The argument here isn't about waiver.
Regardless of barking dogs and revisionist accounts, the idea that the amendment creates birthright citizenship should fail on plain reading and meaning.
Sure, when you cut out important piece of the text out and use "subject to the jurisdiction" in a vacuum, it seems like it means what you say.
Problem with that is, it says "subject to the jurisdiction thereof". Thereof, not therein. This is the important bit, as it has nothing to do with with soil or territory, or being subject to the laws within any boundaries
From Britannica Dictionary: Thereof - of the thing that has been mentioned.
If you are a US citizen, your are "of the United State". This does not change or end when you leave its territory or boundaries.
But it also doesn't convey just because a foreign national is on US territory or within its boundaries. They would still be subject to the jurisdiction (thereof) of their country of citizenship.
"All persons born or naturalized in the United States, AND subject to the jurisdiction thereof...". Born in US AND a US citizen.
If you are in French on a US passport, you would be subject to the jurisdiction (therein) of France. But you would also still be under the jurisdiction of the US (thereof), as you don't cease being a US citizen or become less subject to US restrictions when you leave. This is why an American citizen cannot take a vacation to countries like Afghanistan, Eritrea, Mali, Niger, or Laos. These are banned countries, and are banned to all US citizens. Regardless of where you are or depart from, you are still subject to the ban because you are "under the jurisdiction thereof".
Lol. This ... wow, this is certainly SOMETHING!
But for all the stupid, this line takes the cake...
"This is why an American citizen cannot take a vacation to countries like Afghanistan, Eritrea, Mali, Niger, or Laos."
I mean ... I'll make sure to take my legal and travel advice from this guy.
Travel advice from anyone on the internet would be dumb and I'd advice using https://travel.state.gov/en/international-travel/travel-advisories.html before traveling to country that is on any sort of travel or import ban.
As an example, the ban traveling to cube from travel.state.gov:
"U.S. law and regulation prohibit travel to, from, or within Cuba for tourist activities. OFAC regulates travel to, from, and within Cuba by persons subject to U.S. jurisdiction, defined to include, among other things, all U.S. citizens or residents (wherever located) and anyone in the United States, regardless of their citizenship and nationality. Failure by a person subject to U.S. jurisdiction to act consistently with the regulations may result in penalties and criminal prosecution. Travel to Cuba without an OFAC license is illegal."
Also notice how " persons subject to U.S. jurisdiction, defined to include, among other things, all U.S. citizens or residents (wherever located)" is very much in line with my original argument.
As for the rest, you certainly make a compelling and well thought out retort. Congratulations, you must be very proud.
"Travel advice from anyone on the internet would be dumb"
Like yours! Also, legal analysis (although both words are used ... advisedly).
Two things- first, I love how I specifically quoted you, and the countries you selected, and then ... you ignored what you said, and why I was mocking you, and then PICKED A COMPLETELY DIFFERENT COUNTRY THAT YOU DIDN'T MENTION. Bravo. Rarely have goalposts been moved so ... stupidly.
Second, if you don't understand why I am laughing so hard at what you wrote, then you will never understand why the rest of you wrote is so stupid.
Basically, you spent all of that time to say, "I am not someone who is worldly. I know nothing about international travel. But I know more about that than I do about how the law works."
You don't even understand what you don't know. But thanks for playing!
For starters, I did not give travel advice. I did give example countries that are on the banned list.
Admittedly, I lazily used AI and picked the first few from the list of US banned tourism countries it spit out. When I decided to give an example from a government site, I picked Cuba simply because I am positive it is on the banned list and have personally known folks how have been picked up, detained, and questioned after taking a puddle jumper from Mexico while at a resort on vacation. The fact the Mali may or may not be an available tourist destination does not change the goal posts on bit, as is not at all relevant to whether or not the US can, or does, restrict its citizen's foreign travel.
For the rest of what you say, I simply cannot (will not) ague with childish and fallacious ad hominen attacks that amount to the intellectual equivalent of a "your mamma so fat..." joke and do absolutely nothing to advance the discussion. If you feel that is the route you must travel, then I guess you... win?
"Admittedly, I lazily used AI"
You don't say! It's almost like ... you have no idea what you're talking about.
"then I guess you... win?"
I mean ... Fat, drunk and stupid is no way to go through life. So ... I guess I am winning!
But yeah, on the internet, no one knows you are a dog. But they have a pretty good idea of whether or not you have any idea what you're talking about. Most of the people who have been here a while have an idea of what I do- not because I tell them, but because it's pretty evidence from the things I say.
Just like ... your utter lack of knowledge about what you're talking about it pretty evident. Then again, you did make me laugh, so there's that! Thanks!
Is someone living in the US who is neither a diplomat nor part of an invading force, under the jurisdiction of the US?
Yes. You are subject to all sorts of authority and control of any country who's territory you are currently in.
You are also subject to the jurisdiction of the country you are a citizen of, regardless of where you are currently located.
I am arguing that that is an important distinction and that the amendment is referring to the latter one and not the first one.
If you are a citizen of Iran, in the United States, and the Iranian government sends people to New York to arrest you based on the notion that as a citizen you are subject to Iran's jurisdiction, I assure you that the U.S. will not look kindly on that. Because Iran does not actually have any jurisdiction over you while you are here.
Moreover, I reiterate that the 14th amendment does not say, "All people born or naturalized in the United States and whose parents are subject to the jurisdiction thereof are citizens of the United States."
I think it does apply to the parents. Otherwise, a child born to the parents of an invading army would be a 14A citizen at birth.
No; the underlying basis for this exclusion is that an occupying army displaces the sovereignty of the country it occupies.
Under your logic, a child born of American citizens in an area of the US under occupation is not a 14A citizen at birth. I think that is quite wrong.
If you are a citizen of Iran in the US, the government cannot send people to arrest you because a foreign nation has no power to exercise its power or control within the US. That does not mean they do not have jurisdiction over its citizens, regardless of where they are.
It really does in fact mean that. Jurisdiction is the ability to enforce laws against a person.
Only in part. Jurisdiction can be the power OR the right.
MW Dictionary - Jurisdiction:
2 a: the authority of a sovereign power to govern or legislate
b: the power or right to exercise authority : control
Just because a country lacks the power to enforce its authority or apply a law against one of its citizens because they are currently in the territory of another foreign sovereign nation, does not mean that the country gives up the right to that authority.
Are you saying the parents have to be US citizens?
Parent singular, but otherwise, yes, that is what I am saying.
I am arguing that that is an important distinction and that the amendment is referring to the latter one and not the first one.
There is nothing in the text that makes that distinction. All that matters is that the US has jurisdiction.
Rewrite: "All persons subject to the jurisdiction of the United States, and who were born or naturalized within the United States, are citizens of the United States,"
This has the identical meaning to the actual text, with two clauses moved around.
FWIW it is perfectly possible for a person to be convicted in two separate national jurisdictions for the same criminal act even if they are resident in only one country if the other country of which they are a citizen has globally-applied laws (like the US in some instances).
Except in your re-write example you leave out "thereof". My entire point is "thereof" is important in determining the meaning of jurisdiction.
And your final point is absolutely true and nothing I've suggested say otherwise. My point is that some global laws only apply to citizens of a specific country. The two most common examples of this are traveling to countries that are on banned list and joining a foreign terrorist organization (several Americans have been arrested for joining, or attempting to join, ISIS, for example). That is the US exercising it's jurisdiction thereof.
I left out "thereof" because on the rearranged text it was not needed. It seems that part of your problem is that your version of English is lower-tier seppoid, which is a considerable diminution from the Americans who wrote 14A.
E.g., "The earth is the LORD’s, and the fullness thereof"
Or "the earth and its fullness is the Lord's"
FWIW Biblical Hebrew - a somewhat elliptical language - requires only three words to say this.
That's right, someone is not a citizen just because he can be prosecuted by that nation. Someone born and living in the USA can be prosecuted in the USA, but is not necessarily a citizen.
Reading is fundamental. Nobody said that being able to be prosecuted makes one a citizen. People said that being able to prosecuted makes one subject to the jurisdiction.
That is only one of the elements needed for birthright citizenship.
Agreed, reading is fundamental. But reading all the words and their definitions are important too, and it is important that is says jurisdiction thereof in that text.
Just because you are outside of prosecutorial reach or power, does not mean you are not subject to jurisdiction by right.
By way of being a citizen of the United States, you are subject to the jurisdiction thereof (of the thing just mentioned), regardless of if you are in US territory and subject to the jurisdiction therein.
Example: If a US citizen has a child in France, that child is extended US citizenship. Why? Because it is subject to the jurisdiction of the United State by virtue of that parent being a US citizen, not because the child currently resides in us territory, is subject to the laws of those territories, or because the US has any ability to enforce those laws.
(of the thing just mentioned),
That thing being the United States
A child born in France to a US citizen is a US citizen because a statute enacted by Congress says that a child born to a US citizen is (most of the time) a US citizen, not because of anything relating to "jurisdiction."
Indeed. You are a 14A citizen at birth if you are both born in the USA and subject to the jurisdiction.
I think Raccroc reads "subject to the jurisdiction" to mean the parents can be held to account in US courts for the small number of US laws that apply to conduct while the parents are not in the USA. It's a strange interpretation that I have never heard of before, including from those who support Trump's EO and all scholarly material I am familiar with including the dissent In Wong.
Is someone living in the US who is neither a diplomat nor part of an invading force, under the jurisdiction of the US?
Yes. If they commit a crime, "illegal alien" or otherwise, they are prosecuted in the normal way of law. The same cannot be said of diplomats or invading armies, which both have separate rules. The former by international or treaty agreement, the latter by rules of war, and invading armies additionally are tautologically not actually under control of the invaded government.
Back under Clinton, IIRC, a Russian diplomat got drunk and killed someone. The US asked for a wavier to prosecute them, and got it. I thought this astounding at the time, as Russia was normally very much opposed to anything of the US.
We had friendly relations with Russia in the 1990s, under Yeltsin.
On the other hand, back under Trump the first time, an American claiming diplomatic immunity killed a British citizen in a reckless driving incident, and — shockingly — Trump said "Fuck you" to our British ally. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Death_of_Harry_Dunn
That whole thing was as stupid as can be. Anne Sacoolas seems to have mistakenly assumed she was actually going to get into trouble for mowing down a cyclist, but if she hadn't fled the scene, and instead had stopped to render what assistance she could, before pleading guilty to causing death by careless driving, she'd have been sentenced to a few hours of community service.
I have an idea, Raccroc. What if you completely ignore everything that has been said about a topic for years — well, for centuries, really, but for years here — and pretend you've come up with a new insight that nobody has thought of? And do absolutely no reading whatsoever about it, but just go by your uninformed intuitions?
I mean, this isn't even true, so it's an odd argument in favor of your uninformed intuitions.
Laos is an especially weird one on that list since it has a pretty robust tourist economy.
I know! I have to admit, the whole thing was bizarre, but I almost spit my drink out by that point.
Forget the whole stupidity of what he was saying ... just ... how does he think American journalists would report from those countries that they can't go to as American citizens? It's something so mind-bogglingly stupid it just shows you what happens when someone turns off their brain completely and posts whatever nonsense they think sounds right.
I admit, Laos was a mistake. I do know that there are several US citizen tourism bans in effect and could not come up with a list in a quick search and ended up asking Google AI and I didn't pay any attention to the results listed. I should have checked the list again the government sources, but was in a hurry and didn't since the actual destinations were not at all relevant to the point I was making. That was my bad.
I did not come up with this insight at all and never claimed to. I cannot remember who made did make it, but I first came across it in the 80's or early 90's while doing a research paper (way to many years have passed for me to remember the sources of it). This is also an argument that has been made much more recently by various folks. Just not on Reason, where the vast majority of the legal scholars who are posting are open boarder types are very much on the other side of this.
Yes, the countries I used where not true and a mistake. I've addressed that in other replies and is the result of quickly trying to get a post up. Not only was the mistake acknowledge, but a an example of the US exerting travel control on US citizens was given (Cuba) with references to the US position the the matter.
Be responsible with your drugs, kids.
Speaking of dogs that didn't bark.
Imagine if 100 years ago, the U.S. deported 1.2 million people who were born here and who would be citizens under the maximalist view of birthright citizenship. But who would not be citizens under the more restrictive view of birthright citizenship that was outlined in the ratification debates and endorsed in Slaughterhouse Cases and Elk v Wilkins.
http://www.leginfo.ca.gov/pub/05-06/bill/sen/sb_0651-0700/sb_670_bill_20051007_chaptered.html
"The Legislature finds and declares all of the following:
(a) Beginning in 1929, government authorities and certain private
sector entities in California and throughout the United States
undertook an aggressive program to forcibly remove persons of Mexican ancestry from the United States.
(b) In California alone, approximately 400,000 American citizens
and legal residents of Mexican ancestry were forced to go to Mexico.
(c) In total, it is estimated that two million people of Mexican
ancestry were forcibly relocated to Mexico, approximately 1.2 million
of whom had been born in the United States, including the State of
California."
I wonder how many Congress-critters had their qualification challenged on citizenship grounds before the 14th Amendment was passed? What if the dog that didn't bark is a Basenji? Because a Basenji never barks, so it's failure to bark doesn't mean squat.
Did anyone bother to check whether these members of Congress who might not qualify as citizens under the Trump administration's view of the 14th Amendment were nonetheless citizens under pre-14th Amendment law? The description of the study suggests not (it only looked at 1865-1871). And if you don't know what people were doing before the 14th Amendment was passed, there's no basis to attribute a lack of citizenship-based challenges shortly after it was passed to the supposed original understanding of the Amendment.
Um, the 14th amendment simply codified pre-14th amendment law and practice (while emphasizing that Dred Scott was no longer valid), so your "what if" is irrelevant.
So maybe that is why the Congressmen did not have their qualifications challenged. They could claim to be citizens for reasons that predated the 14A.
If Trump's EO is upheld, new children of illegals will not be able to make that argument.
Um, the "reasons that predated the 14A" are the same as for the "new children of illegals": they were born in the U.S.
No, the new children are born under Trump's EO, making them non-citizens. This assumes Trump's EO is upheld.
No. The EO is of no legal significance. The Supreme Court will be interpreting the constitution and/or the complementary federal statute.
If this is “powerful circumstantial evidence,” then you’ll love the Indian Citizenship Act of 1924. Interesting that Indians born in the US were not considered citizens unless naturalized until the enactment of this law. Indians did not have diplomatic immunity and were subject to prosecution for certain non-tribal crimes under the 1885 Major Crimes Act. But this 1924 law suggests an understanding that Indians owed their allegiance to a tribe and were not subject to the jurisdiction of the US within the meaning of 14th Amendment.
And of course Wong Kim Ark provides no authority for the extension of birthright citizenship to the children of nonresident aliens. A misunderstanding and misapplication of SCt precedent is a poor basis for policy.
"But this 1924 law suggests an understanding that Indians owed their allegiance to a tribe and were not subject to the jurisdiction of the US within the meaning of 14th Amendment."
Yes, it's very obvious that the original meaning of the citizenship clause excluded those who owed allegiance/were subject to any foreign power.
And that principle was strong enough to include (exclude) those who were merely subject to a "quasi-foreign" power, as in the Indian tribes. This is all explained at length in the ratification debates.
And, it's also very obvious that only racists pretend that this exclusion applied to anyone except Indians/diplomats/foreign armies.
Persuasive!
But as I've said before, at least you admit that the clause excluded those owing allegiance/subject to a foreign power. As far as I'm aware, no other advocate of the maximalist view admits this. They just hand-wave it away.
“As far as I'm aware, no other advocate of the maximalist view admits this. They just hand-wave it away.”
I imagine there are many things of which you are unaware, this being just one of them.
Thanks for your valuable insight, "John 4"
Care to provide a citation? I look forward to becoming aware of whatever it is that you already know. Don't hold out on me now.
Everyone admits that. It's just that you pretend it means something different than what everyone knows it means: everyone except diplomats, invading armies, and Indians.
No, they don't.
Ho dismisses the idea as being based on "stray references . . . to allegiance."
Ramsey: "It is true that aliens (and typically their U.S.-born children) also owed allegiance to a foreign sovereign even while in the United States. . . But the Citizenship Clause’s text does not require one to be subject to exclusive U.S. jurisdiction to claim U.S. citizenship."
As before, David adopts a different meaning of allegiance than you do. And David's meaning is the one used in Wong Kim Ark.
Wong Ark only applied to the child of permanent residents, not tourists or illegal aliens.
As David is fond of saying, Won Kim Ark only applied to people with the last name Wong. But, it's reasoning went further. Moreover, the opinion explicitly excluded only Indians, diplomats and invading armies. By "the exception that proves the rule" principle, the rule is everyone else is a 14A citizen at birth.
The ruling did not consider illegal aliens.
Not explicitly. But under "the exception proves the rule" the unlawfully present are covered. Additionally, they are covered under the justification given in the opinion (subject to US laws for their conduct throughout the USA).
A couple of Scotus justices might be persuaded of that. For the rest, we shall see.
There was no such legal category as "permanent residents" in 1898, so it could not have only applied to the child of permanent residents.
"As before, David adopts a different meaning of allegiance than you do."
Yes, I agree. And he adopts a different view than Ho, Ramsey, and other advocates of the maximalist view, as well. David has said that if you are present in the U.S., then you do not owe allegiance to a foreign power (unless diplomat/army/Indian).
"And David's meaning is the one used in Wong Kim Ark."
Not exactly. WKA does focus on the adequacy of mere temporary local allegiance, i.e. the mere obligation to obey laws (while also applying its holding to those with residence/domicil). But it does not go so far as to deny the existence of any other allegiance, nor admit that the citizenship clause requires exclusive allegiance. That is unlike Justice Gray's own prior opinion in Elk v Wilkins, which acknowledged that the clause excludes anyone "subject to any foreign power," but in WKA Gray cites his own prior opinion and just waves it away by saying that case only concerned Indians.
The Wong court held allegiance (the duty the obey laws) is what matters, and exclusive allegiance as you define the term does not.
There is a concept in mathematics of an "undefined" number, such as dividing by zero. Such an expression can never be calculated, because it is not, in fact, a mathematical one.
Seems to me that our supreme court could use a similar concept. Where a law is so poorly stated or so vague that any interpretation would be arbitrary, then the court could forward the difficulty to Congress to be clarified before it issued a final ruling.
Sure would save us from all this motivated reasoning and pretzel logic that gets thrown into our faces these days. Come on, the Constitution is a marvelous document, but its language can be very vague.
Congress copied the language of the 14th into statute. How should SCOTUS analyze the interpretation of that statute?
Or Scotus could let the Executive brance resolve the ambiguity.
I mean, it could simply declare the president to be God King. But otherwise, no. It is emphatically the province and duty of the judicial department to say what the law is.
That would amount to the SC acknowledging its lack of omniscience. Not going to happen.
Jonathan:
Next time use an example of the dog not barking where we won!
Best
JJV
This dog bark argument has no chance. There is a very long list of 14A interpretations that Scotus only discovered decades after the 14A was passed. The dog bark argument would wipe out all of them.
I have not followed this closely however foreign law should have some relevance. For example,
"Leaving Mexico and residing abroad, even for decades, does not result in the loss of Mexican nationality for someone who is a citizen by birth. This is explicitly protected under Article 37 of the Mexican Constitution.
Note: The rule about losing nationality after five years of continuous residence abroad only applies to naturalized citizens, not those who are Mexican by birth.
By Formal Renunciation (Formal Steps Required)
A Mexican citizen by birth can choose to renounce their citizenship, a process that is typically done at a Mexican consulate or embassy abroad. This is often necessary if the person is acquiring citizenship in a country that does not permit dual nationality.
The formal steps generally require:
Present documentation: Provide your Mexican birth certificate and passport.
Submit a letter: Present a formal, signed letter of resignation/renunciation.
Fill out forms: Complete required formats provided by the consulate.
Take an oath: The individual must sign an affidavit stating they are renouncing their original nationality for purposes of Mexican law.
Once the renunciation process is complete, it is a one-way door; the individual is no longer a Mexican citizen and gives up all rights and privileges associated with it."
Think about taxes, conscription, child support laws. Example, Mexico.
"To terminate tax residency in Mexico, an individual is required to file a notice of suspension of activities with the tax authorities. Failure to file this notice may mean they are still considered a Mexican tax resident."
Does birthright citizenship override foreign jurisdiction over that country's citizens?
"In 2025, a child born in the United States to at least one Mexican parent is considered Mexican by birth, according to Article 30 of the Mexican Constitution.
The Mexican legal system follows the principle of jus sanguinis (right of blood), which grants nationality based on parentage regardless of the location of birth."
I am quite confident that the meaning of the United States constitution can and will depend only on United States, not foreign, law.
Yes, of course. Otherwise tomorrow Algeria could declare that everyone born between December 24, 2025 and December 31, 2025, anywhere in the world is an Algerian citizen, and thousands of otherwise American babies would not be American.
BTW for your general (possible) amusement - as of last Friday I am eligible to have German citizenship.
This arises because my mother, who was born in Munich but had Polish nationality when she and her parents fled the Nazis, benefited from a change of German nationality law that allowed her to get German nationality and pass it to her children. Last Wednesday she was informed by the German consulate in London that her application had been accepted and she merely had to come into to town to sign some forms, My mother still drives at 95, but didn't fancy going to the consulate, and so a consular official drove to her home in Guildford on Friday.
So I have UK and US citizenship, and could also get German and Israeli citizenship. I doubt I'll take advantage of either of the latter, but if my nephews and nieces (most in England, two in the US) decide they want to move to, say, Italy or France, or any other EU country, they can now get German citizenship and do so.
Plus as a general rule Jews should always have an extra citizenship or two in our back pockets just in case...
You can have multiple passports, but you are only a citizen of one nation.
I mean, that's as wrong as everything else Schlafly says. Maybe he thinks it ought to be that way, but it is not.
More than a dozen congressmen were children of illegal aliens or tourists?
Who were they and what, specifically, were the circumstances of each one?
The Hiram Rhodes Revels case strikes me as making the citizenship clause of the 14th Amendment as being retroactive. Since he was born in the US under the jurisdiction of the US (he was born a free black) he had certainly established citizenship with more than forty years to spare.
I'm interested in whether we were denying birthright citizenship to children of Asian parents when the parents were not yet naturalized. I don't think we were.
Well, that's the Wong Kim Ark case. (Except that by then his parents could never be naturalized, so "not yet" isn't quite right.) So… sometimes we were, sometimes we weren't. But the debates over the 14th amendment made clear that they were in fact deemed citizens. Some didn't like that, but nobody said, "That's crazy; of course people born to foreign parents aren't citizens."
Sort of, but the entire point of this post is to note that birthright citizenship was always the rule. Hiram RR would've been undeniably a citizen all along if it weren't for the racist Dred Scott decision. The 14th wasn't meant to confer citizenship on people who weren't citizens; it was to confirm that birthright citizenship applied to everyone including blacks.