The Volokh Conspiracy
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Is Restitution Punishment?
Next week, if the Supreme Court decides to reach the merits in the U.S. v. Ellingburg case, it should recognize that restitution to crime victims serves compensatory rather than penal purposes.
Next Tuesday, the Supreme Court will hear argument in Ellingburg v. United States. The question presented is whether criminal restitution under the Mandatory Victims Restitution Act (MVRA) is penal and thus subject to the restrictions of the Constitution's federal Ex Post Facto Clause. This is an important issue for the crime victims' rights movement. If restitution is characterized as punishment rather than compensation, then the restrictions of the Ex Post Facto Clause (and perhaps other restrictions as well) apply to Congress and state legislatures as they craft restitution regimes. Because of the importance of the issue to the movement, I've joined Allyson Ho, Brad Hubbard, Matt Scorcio, and other lawyers at Gibson Dunn in filing an amicus brief urging the Court to affirm the judgment below in Ellingburg and hold that restitution compensates victims rather than punishes defendants.
Our amicus brief is filed on behalf of a crime victim's mother, Ms. Debra Ricketts-Holder, whose son was senselessly murdered in cold blood in 1993. His murderer was sentenced to life without parole. When the murderer was resentenced thirty years later, as required by the Supreme Court's decision in Miller and Montgomery, Michigan sought restitution to reimburse Ms. Ricketts-Holder for the costs she paid to bury her 17-year-old son—a cost no mother should have to bear. The trial court awarded Ms. Ricketts-Holder restitution for her son's funeral expenses.
The murderer (Neilly) then challenged the restitution award as having been awarded under a new regime, in violation of the Ex Post Facto Clause. In Neilly, the Michigan Supreme Court rejected his argument. The Court held that restitution statutes operate to "provide a civil remedy for victims' injuries rather than to provide a criminal punishment for defendants." Neilly has sought review of this Michigan decision in the U.S. Supreme Court—and his petition is apparently being held for resolution of the federal Ellingburg case.
Yesterday, I blogged about how the Supreme Court should DIG Ellingburg, because Ellingburg was sentenced under the discretionary Victim Witness Protection Act (VWPA) rather than the MVRA. So any issue about the MVRA is not properly before the Court. But if, nonetheless, the Court considers the merits, it should affirm the Eighth Circuit's decision below that restitution is not criminal punishment and therefore is not subject to the Ex Post Facto Clause.
Starting from first principles, it would be odd to call restitution punishment. Consider a case (like Ellingburg) where a bank robber is caught escaping with cash from a bank. It makes no sense to say that, when the bank robber is ordered to give the cash back to the bank, that is "punishment." Instead, in common understanding, the bank is simply being restored to the position that it was in before the robber took the bank's money.
Our amicus brief adopts this commonsense approach. It argues that, from antiquity to today, Anglo-American law has understood restitution as a means to compensate crime victims for their losses, not to punish offenders for their crimes. This victim-centered understanding runs from the Old Testament through the English common law familiar to the Founders to contemporary American statutes—including the federal Mandatory Victims Restitution Act. Any attempt to recast restitution as a criminal penalty misunderstands both its legal heritage and its fundamental design.
Our amicus brief explains that English settlers brought the private-prosecution model to the American Colonies, and with it restitution's role of compensating victims. At the time of the Founding, victims in the colonies routinely prosecuted offenses and obtained restitution for their losses directly from offenders, as I have explained in my article on the history of the crime victims' rights movement. Because the victim herself instituted and advanced the proceedings, restitution was pursued and considered as recompense, not retribution. So "restitution has historically been understood as a 'civil' and not a 'punitive' remedy." United States v. Visinaiz, 344 F. Supp. 2d 1310, 1324 (D. Utah 2004) (collecting historical evidence).
Nothing in the Constitution displaced the traditional understanding of restitution as compensatory rather than punitive. To the contrary, the Founders "would have seen the likelihood of victim-initiated prosecution" and expected the practice to continue. Cassell, 56 U. Pac. L. Rev. at 404. By leaving the responsibilities of day-to-day criminal justice to the States, the Founders "were clearly crafting a federal constitution that envisioned state prosecutions initiated by victims." Id.
Against this historical backdrop, the Supreme Court has explained that "the ordinary meaning" of restitution is to "restor[e] someone to a position he occupied before a particular event." Hughey v. United States, 495 U.S. 411, 416 (1990). More recently, the Court has recognized that the "primary goal of restitution is remedial or compensatory." Paroline v. United States, 572 U.S. 434, 456 (2014). For good reason. "Although restitution may be included in a criminal judgment," it has "distinctive attributes" that make it "much like a civil judgment." Nelson v. Colorado, 581 U.S. 128, 146 (2017) (Alito, J., concurring in the judgment). Restitution is an independent basis of recovery in criminal cases with a striking resemblance to compensatory damages in tort cases.
This is how restitution under the Mandatory Victims Restitution Act operates, functionally like a tort statute that harkens "back to a much earlier era of Anglo–American law, when criminal and tort proceedings were not clearly distinguished." United States v. Bach, 172 F.3d 520, 523 (7th Cir. 1999). Consistent with the compensatory aim of tort law, the MVRA mandates full restitution for the victim's actual losses without regard to the defendant's financial or other circumstances. See 18 U.S.C. § 3664(f)(1)(A). In this way, the decision to impose restitution turns on compensating the victim for her injury—not on the penal goals of retribution, deterrence, or rehabilitation.
Further underscoring restitution's civil character, the MVRA "does not allow victims to obtain double recovery or a windfall through restitution." United States v. Louper-Morris, 672 F.3d 539, 566 (8th Cir. 2012). If restitution were punitive, the victim's injury or her total recovery wouldn't matter. But "[r]estitution recognizes rights in the victim, and this is a principal source of its strength." Randy Barnett, Restitution: A New Paradigm of Criminal Justice, 87 Ethics 279, 291 (1977). The Court should affirm that, as a matter of history and tradition, restitution remains what it has always been—a non-punitive remedy that compensates crime victims. As a result, statutes that provide for restitution—like the Mandatory Victims Restitution Act and the Michigan statute at issue in Ms. Ricketts-Holder's case—are categorically compensatory and therefore not subject to the Ex Post Facto Clause.
Our amicus brief also provides an additional reason for affirming: Even if the Supreme Court declines to adopt the categorical approach that history and tradition require, then the Court must undertake an individualized purpose-or-effect analysis that focuses on the particular statute under which restitution was imposed to determine whether the Ex Post Facto Clause applies. Numerous States—including Michigan in Neilly—have held that "restitution imposed" under their respective statutes "does not constitute punishment" that could be subject to the Ex Post Facto Clause. See, e.g., State v. McClelland, 357 P.3d 906, 909 (Mont. 2015); R.S. v. Commonwealth, 423 S.W.3d 178, 188 (Ky. 2014); People v. Foalima, 239 Cal. App. 4th 1376, 1398 (2015); State v. Lucas, 758 S.E.2d 672, 680 (N.C. Ct. App. 2014); State v. Freeman, 848 P.2d 882, 885 (Ariz. Ct. App. 1993). Under the purpose-or-effect approach, the "categorization of a particular pro[vision] as civil or criminal" for Ex Post Facto Clause purposes "is first of all a question of statutory construction." Kansas v. Hendricks, 521 U.S. 346, 361 (1997). As a result, any decision in the Ellingburg case reached under a purpose-or-effect test as applied to the MVRA should have limited significance for the retroactive application of other restitution statutes, as the Government has conceded in its briefing on these issues.
An analysis of the Michigan restitution statute in Ms. Ricketts-Holder's case confirms that it (like the MRVA) doesn't implicate the Ex Post Facto Clause, and also underscores that, at the very least, a one-size-fits-all result can't follow from the purpose-or-effect analysis. Like dozens of other state constitutional amendments, Michigan's victims' rights provision wasn't focused on punitive crime-control objectives, but on providing and protecting victims' procedural rights throughout the criminal-justice process. See Cassell, 56 U. Pac. L. Rev. at 436–37, 454, 495 n.830 (restitution in state and federal criminal-justice systems serves remedial, rather than punitive, purposes). In concluding that restitution was not punishment, the Michigan Supreme Court noted that the Michigan Constitution expressly enumerates a crime victim's right to restitution and authorizes the legislature to enact statutes "for the enforcement" of that right. 15 N.W.3d at 567 (quoting Mich. Const. art. 1, § 24). The Court then discussed the long-standing practice of using restitution to compensate victims before determining that "the focus of the current restitution statutes remains on the victims' losses rather than on further punishment of the defendant." Id. at 570. In reaching that conclusion, the Court explained that restitution under these statutes was "tailored to the harm suffered by the victim rather than the defendant's conviction or judgment of sentence." Id.
After detailing the various potential statutory measures of restitution, all of which are "tied to definable, specific costs and losses suffered by the victims of a defendant's crimes," the Michigan Supreme Court concluded that "the intent of the statutes is to provide a civil remedy for victims' injuries rather than to provide a criminal punishment for defendants" because "the amount of restitution is not dependent on the severity of the crime." Id.
Our amicus brief concludes that the order that Neilly make restitution to Ms. Ricketts-Holder for her son's funeral expenses, like the order that Ellingburg reimburse the bank for money he stole, simply doesn't violate the Ex Post Facto Clause. The Court should hold the defendants are not being punished when they are ordered to restore their victims to the positions they were in before the crime.
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This seems egregious.
https://abcnews.go.com/US/trumps-pardons-shortchanged-fraud-victims-millions-dollars-restitution/story?id=122747969
"By Oyer's count, the recipients of Trump's second-term clemency cumulatively owed more than $1 billion in restitution -- money intended for the victims of fraudulent schemes. Instead, according to Oyer, "victims are just out all of the money that they expected to be repaid as part of restitution, due to the pardons.""
One guy even sued, unsuccessfully to recover 2 million he'd already paid.
I thought pardons didn't have any effect on civil liability.
"pardons didn't have any effect on civil liability."
You are correct but restitution is part of the criminal sentence.
The victims of fraud can, assuming no statute of limitation problems, bring civil actions.
I don't disagree with you at all. But apparently Prof. Cassel does, his whole argument is that restitution is *not* part of the criminal sentence.
No, that is not the "whole argument" and you are trying to conflate criminal sentence as a whole with punishment. As civil courts distinguish compensatory and punitive damages, it is reasonable for criminal courts to distinguish punitive from compensatory components of a sentence. And it seem rather nutty to suggest that crime victims who have endured criminal trial should then have to enter civil court system as a matter of course to restore what has been taken by the convict.
Is it nutty for non-victim 3rd parties to obtain the "compensatory components," especially in a non-disgorgement scenario (and especially through post-sentencing legislation that creates new "rights" for the 3rd parties)?
"expected to be repaid"
Not a very reasonable expectation.
One situation that raises concerns about the retroactive application of mandatory-restitution laws has to do with plea bargaining.
Suppose I'm charged with involvement in a minor brawl, in which some parties were punched by others. My lawyer negotiates a plea agreement that lets me off with a small fine, and I agree to that deal, figuring that even if I'd win in an eventual trial, my legal expenses and other costs in time, money, and worry would be worse for me than just paying the fine and getting it over with. Later, though, one of the punchees in said altercation declares that it's left him with PTSD and a host of other psychiatric ailments that necessitate expensive therapy and prevent him from holding a job. Under a mandatory-resitution regime, would I be able to avoid being mulcted for large sums of money, since I've been convicted? Had I known that this was a possibility, I'd have contested the charge rather than accepting the plea deal, which I only did because of the light sentence.
A lot of cases of this nature came up when the Lautenberg amendment was adopted, imposing a prohibition on gun ownership for conviction of domestic violence misdemeanors, including ones that had happened prior to enactment.
A lot of people had been previously charged with such misdemeanors, and not contested them on the basis that the fine that was the only legal consequence of conviction was cheaper to pay than hiring lawyer to defend you in court.
Then the Supreme court let them lose their rights despite the ex post facto clause, reasoning that having your 2nd amendment rights stripped from you wasn't a "punishment". Because at the time they weren't yet treating it as a right, just a privilege...
It's a legal wrong that has cried out to be addressed, but the Court has no interest in addressing it, regarding the matter as settled.
Anyway, this was my point below: A lot of decisions are made at time of trial and sentencing that hinge on the consequences of conviction, and whether you're calling those consequences "punishment" or not has nothing to do with it. It's simply unfair to ask people to make decisions, and then retroactively change the basis on which those decisions were made.
And that unfairness was exactly what the ex post facto clause was meant to address.
What Superme Court case held that the Lautenberg Amendment did not violate the ex post facto clause?
Looks like I had that wrong, can't find the case I was thinking of.
Some questions:
1. If restitution is just like civil liability, shouldn't that mean the defendant is strictly entitled (if the amount is over $20) to have a jury determine the amount of the damages? How does that work if the liability is imposed years after the criminal trial?
2. If restitution is civil rather than criminal, does that mean it can be applied even after the defendant has received a pardon?
3. If restitution is not punishment, does that mean the Eighth Amendment has no application?
Why am I asking? Making restitution part of the criminal penalty seems reasonable. Allowing ordinary civil lawsuits by the victim seems reasonable.
However, if the restitution can be applied without a jury determining the amount, years after the original trial, and without the other protections that apply to those facing punishment, this seems like a giant loophole to allow the authorities to evade constitutional requirements.
2. If restitution is civil rather than criminal, does that mean it can be applied even after the defendant has received a pardon?
It seems so.
If I remember correctly, Daniel Perry is still facing a wrongful death lawsuit.
Yes, but that's a lawsuit that he can try to defend against in front of a jury in a new trial*.
Suppose instead (wild hypothetical I know) that some future Democrat-controlled legislature passed a law twenty years later saying that Daniel Perry owed restitution based on his conviction. That seems to be what Professor Cassel is advocating for.
*Based on what the criminal jury voted, and the lower standard of proof in civil cases, Perry's chances don't look good and IMO rightly so. But I fully believe he should get to make his case with all the constitutional guarantees, undiluted.
OJ was acquitted criminally, but then found liable civilly. Nothing new in that.
That's not the issue we're worried about. Everyone here agrees there can be a criminal trial and a civil one.
OJ's civil case was a real trial with a jury that determined the damages. I don't think that is what Prof. Cassel is advocating for, I think he is saying the criminal conviction can result in civil liability that wasn't even brought up at the original trial. Decades later and using a law that didn't even exist at the time of the crime by a judge.
The issue is whether this is a bypass around juries.
"Yes, but that's a lawsuit that he can try to defend against in front of a jury in a new trial"
See my comment below. Res judicata from the criminal conviction to the civil case would usually establish liability. Only issue to be tried would be damages.
Restitution is a word that can only be applied to blacks that were never slaves receiving money from whites that never owned slaves.
Or Blacks who’s Ancestors sold the Slaves in the first place.
If an act was neither a tort nor a crime at the time it was undertaken, it's a violation of the ex post facto clause to make it into one afterwards. Because people need to know when they act what they may legally do, you can't CHANGE what they could legally do, after the fact.
That doesn't apply here, obviously.
Similarly it ought to be a violation to increase the consequences of a conviction post-sentencing, regardless of how you characterize those consequences. Punishment, restitution, I don't care what you call it.
The same general principle applies: People are making decisions today, they have to be able to make them based on the legal facts today, not foresee future legal developments.
The conduct of trials, jury deliberations, sentencing, are all done in light of the law as it is at the time, it's simply unreasonable to then go and change things after the decisions have been made and can't be recalled.
For years now the legal system has been laboring to minimize the impact of the ex post facto clause. No, let's take it seriously.
I think this is spot on, as are ducksalad's and Old Smokin' Egg's points.
If I'm understanding it correctly, I think the Michigan case Prof. Cassell describes illustrates the unfairness of calling part of a criminal sentence a civil penalty. The murderer was sentenced 25/30 years ago with no restitution included. The family of the victim could have brought a civil suit but didn't, and the statute of limitations is long passed. Then, at resentencing, they're allowed to evade the statute of limitations for civil claims by tacking a "civil" claim onto the criminal case.
The only reason they aren't barred by the statute of limitations is that it isn't a civil case. And yet Prof. Cassell and the Michigan appellate court say, well, actually, it is civil. Seems like a bit of a "heads I win; tails you lose" kind of argument.
Well, it is, leaning very heavily on the defendants being unsympathetic, so you just don't care.
So if I rape a woman and have to pay for her pain and suffering that’s “Punishment”?
You know what’s “Punishment”?? Dirty Hairy Callahan stabbing “Scorpio” in the leg, then chasing him down at Kezar Stadium and grinding his shoe into the wound.
Oh yeah, he kills Scorpio later SPOILER ALERT!
C’mon Man! It came out in 1971
Frank
So if I rape a woman and have to pay for her pain and suffering that’s “Punishment”?
It would be civil damages, and being pardoned woiuld not absolve civil liability.
If it is part of a criminal case, restitution is punishment. If it is a civil wrong, it belongs in a civil case, brought by the person civilly wronged.
"If it is part of a criminal case, restitution is punishment."
Agreed, I do not see any other way to look at it.
Just as civil courts can distinguish compensatory from punitive damages, criminal courts can distinguish compensation from punishment. Given the higher burden and protections for the accused, the latter makes more sense, and it would be perverse (to everyone other than the litigators' guild) to require crime victims as a matter of course to seek restoration through civil courts against a convict after enduring criminal trial.
But I don't think the argument here is over criminal vs civil. It's over "imposed at a trial" vs "imposed afterwards by legislation".
If you enact legislation which adds consequences to a conviction, AFTER the trial is over, without a new judicial proceeding, that's ex post facto. It wasn't a consequence of conviction at the time of the conviction.
Yes, that is what I always thought.
One thing to keep in mind is the concept of res judicata. Once something is decided in one case against a party, then that is binding in later cases.
If the defendant is convicted of murder, that means it has been found that he intended to kill the victim. In a later civil case for wrongful death, the defendant is collaterally estopped from disputing that he wrongfully killed the victim. The only issue at that point is damages.
In criminal restitution who determines the amount of damages? You say this is civil in character and compensatory, but in civil cases it is the jury that determines the amount of damages as a matter of fact. And that is constitutionally required by the 7th A. in federal cases, and likely by state constitutions. In moving it to the criminal realm under your theory we lose that. And a criminal jury doesn't determine damages, the judge does. So you are trying to call in compensatory and civil-like but you've completely removed the jury as the finder of fact as to damages. If the judge is determining it, it has to be punishment in character because that is what the judge is authorized to do on his own. If it was purely compensatory and the amount of damages had to be proven then you run in 6th A. Apprendi issues with the judge making that determination.
I hate legal gymnastic. Any negative consequence imposed by the government stemming from a criminal conviction is punishment. Any new law imposing additional consequences for those already convicted is unconstitutional. Keep it simple.
But that's exactly it: The government has been engaged in gymnastics for decades now to minimize things like the double jeopardy and ex post facto clauses. Creating doctrine after doctrine to rationalize they don't apply to this or that.
Because the government doesn't like being told it can't do things.
IT's a simple philosophical confusion. Restitution is not punishment but the sometimes unavoidable consequence of restitution is punishment,
Case A: a fraudster rips off someone to the tune of $1mm. He has to repay the $1mm. That is not punishment. Any punishment comes from a conviction.
Case B: a contractor 's negligence causes a homeowner's loss of $1mm. He is sued and has to pay $1mm. There is no conviction but the contractor may well be out $1mm - so it has the effect of punishment, Such is life.
A lot of good points above. I just want to note that not a single person is opposed to the criminal being ordered to pay restitution. The dispute here (between the courts and all commenters here other than Prof. Cassell) is what procedures are required in order to impose such an obligation.
If the defendant ordered to pay restitution is on parole, and fails to pay, then a Judge can revoke parole and send the defendant to jail / prison, correct? If a restitution order can lead to incarceration that would or might not otherwise occur, that sounds like criminal punishment.
Seems pretty audacious. The resentencing was a resentencing that gave this cold blooded killer a second chance that he absolutely did not deserve and, if you check the Michigan inmate search website, he's currently out on parole breathing free air that he does not deserve to breathe. And he's going to court to whine about the resentencing including restitution? Procedurally, is it possible for the court system to say, "You know what, we were wrong, life without parole it is?" If so, then we should do that and start a GoFundMe for the deceased's mother. There's no reason I can see from the record showing why the court went so soft on this killer in the first place.
"Consider a case (like Ellingburg) where a bank robber is caught escaping with cash from a bank. It makes no sense to say that, when the bank robber is ordered to give the cash back to the bank, that is "punishment." Instead, in common understanding, the bank is simply being restored to the position that it was in before the robber took the bank's money."
This is a poor analogy. Taking the bank's money from the robber is a simple disgorgement of unlawfully taken property that the robber never had title to in the first place.
A better analogy would be if the bank robber smashed a teller window in the course of a robbery. Having to repay that money from his own funds would typically require a civil judgment gained by the bank against the robber. Or the repayment could be a criminal punishment tied to the offense of conviction.
I share the bulk of the posters' concerns that too much of what is by all common sense a criminal penalty is simply restructured by the government and the courts to be called a "civil" penalty for the sole purpose of sidestepping constitutional protections.
It's amazing how much extra effort they will put in to take an 'easier' path rather than just doing their jobs.
They'll spend more time and money on lawyers arguing in court whether this is compensation or punishment rather than just modifying the law which is their actual job.
It has to be one or the other? Because I would have thought it was both.
If it's both, then the ban on ex post facto laws applies.
For Prof. Cassel, it "has" to be compensation because he supports retroactive legislation to help crime victims.
Why does it matter if it is civil or criminal? There is nothing in the text of Article I section 10 to suggest that the ex post facto clause is limited to criminal laws.
There's nothing in the 6th amendment to suggest that the right to trial by jury is limited to "serious" crimes, either, yet here we are.
The Court invents doctrines like that to limit the degree the Constitution constrains the federal government.
Because that has been the law since Calder v. Bull, 3 U.S. 386 (1798). https://supreme.justia.com/cases/federal/us/3/386/
Ex Post Facto is only an issue in criminal cases.
This catches pro se litigants all of the time. In the law, and in other areas of life, words mean more than the dictionary definition of each one strung together.
In this case while a civil law could literally be "after the fact" (ex post facto) you have to look at the long history of what is meant by the TERM ex post facto. And it has no application outside the criminal context.
This is a criminal case. I think the ex post facto clause should apply to any aspect of the criminal law, whether judges choose to characterize it as civil or criminal in nature.
To do otherwise risks, in a constitutional crisis situation where judges still follow the forms of law, the equivalent of the Nazi regime’s imposition of the cost of Kristalnacht on the Jewish community as “restitution” for all the trouble the police had to take to vandalize, loot, beat, and kill them. It was exhausting work, and the police deserved compensation for it.
Restitution is fine in principle, but the government's argument here is really about enriching the government's power to punish.
There is already a pathway for restitution via civil action.
Further, statutes of limitation should apply. Waiting 30 years to ask for compensation seems unreasonable, and courts don't wait that long to sweep away debts (except perhaps tax court.)
Stop the power grab, let the restitution happen as it does already.
"There is already a pathway for restitution via civil action."
In fairness, that is a hollow remedy. Some guy kills a member of your family and trashes your house, chances are he doesn't have two nickels to rub together to pay you. No lawyer will take your case on a contingency and by hiring a lawyer to get a civil judgment you will pay more than you will ever collect.
By funneling it through the criminal law, the conviction operates as a de facto civil judgment. And although the criminal can't pay, if he earns $50 per week working his prison industry job, say $25 of that goes out of his account to repay the victims. That gives the criminal skin in the game and is a constant reminder of the monetary harm he did.