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The Supreme Court Will Hear Another Home Equity Theft Takings Case
This one addresses the issue of whether the owner of a home foreclosed for nonpayment of debt is entitled to "fair market value" compensation, or only whatever the government gets from auctioning off the property, minus the debt owed.

In Tyler v. Hennepin County (2023), a unanimous Supreme Court ruled that "home equity theft" is unconstitutional. If the government forecloses on a property for nonpayment of taxes or other debts, it can only keep as much of the value of the land as is necessary to repay the debt in question. The rest belongs to the property owner. Otherwise, the Court ruled, there would be a violation of the Takings Clause of the Fifth Amendment, which bars taking of private property without payment of "just compensation" (see my analysis of the ruling here).
After Tyler, I did not think the home equity theft issue would return to the Supreme Court anytime soon. But, yesterday, the Court decided to hear Pung v. Isabella County. In this case, Isabella County, Michigan seized the late Timothy Pung's house because he supposedly failed to pay some $2200 in taxes and fees (his estate claims he didn't actually owe this money). They then sold the property at auction for about $76,000; the County kept the $2200 it thought it was owed and transferred the remaining funds (about $73,800) to Pung's estate.
But the usual standard for takings compensation, according to longstanding Supreme Court precedent, is "fair market value" - the price a property would fetch if sold on the open market. And Pung's estate argues the fair market value here is actually $194,400 (the value at which the county itself assessed that value for property tax purposes).
If a seizure of home equity after foreclosure is a taking - as Tyler v. Hennepin County rightly held - then I think the estate is obviously right. The property taken is the residual value of the home (after delinquent taxes and other debts are repaid). And that may be more than the government got from the highest bidder at the auction.
To be sure, the highest bid at the auction is relevant evidence of fair market value. But it is not always the only evidence that must be considered. The government could potentially do a poor job of marketing the property, and end up accepting a below-market value price. That's especially likely if, as is usually the case, they have no incentive to maximize value, so long as they secure enough to repay the debt that supposedly justified the foreclosure in the first place.
Here, it seems clear the auction price was indeed subpar. We know that because the winning bidder quickly resold the property for $195,000 (very close to the Pung estate's $194,400 estimate of the fair market value). That suggests the County was either incompetent at marketing the property or just didn't care to make a serious effort.
The lower court ruling by the US Court of Appeals for the Sixth Circuit held there is no taking here. But it is largely based on previous circuit precedent, which offers little in the way of analysis on this point. Tyler makes clear that a property owner subject to tax foreclosure "must render unto Caesar what is Caesar's, but no more." Here, Caesar pretty obviously did take a lot more, even if he wasn't able to appropriate its full value for himself.
In addition to considering the Takings Clause issue, the Supreme Court will also weigh the question of whether this kind of home equity theft violates the Excessive Fines Clause of the Eighth Amendment. The Court need not decide that issue if they rule in favor of Pung on the Takings Clause question. In Tyler, the Supreme Court similarly chose to rely on the Takings Clause, and did not to decide the Excessive Fines Clause issue. In a concurring opinion, Justice Neil Gorsuch (joined by Justice Ketanji Brown Jackson), argued that home equity theft does indeed violate the Excessive Fines Clause, as well as the Takings Clause.
I hope - and tentatively expect - that the Supreme Court will reverse the Sixth Circuit and rule that the Pung estate is entitled to fair market value compensation. I doubt the Court would have chosen to hear this case just to affirm the lower court decision. There is no split between circuits here of a kind that might lead the justices to take a case to resolve it.
Pung is somewhat unusual, in recent years, in being a major Takings Clause case that reached the Supreme Court, but was litigated by conventional private counsel, rather than by one of the major property rights public interest firms, such as the Institute For Justice and the Pacific Legal Foundation (which litigated Tyler). Philip L. Ellison, the Michigan attorney representing the Pung estate, wrote a strong cert petition that must have persuaded the justices to take the case.
Regardless of how the case got to the Court, the property rights community will surely support the victimized owner here. I myself intend to file an amicus brief, and I suspect I will not be alone in that.
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I was thrilled with the Tyler decision, but I'm not sure the petitioner is right in this case. It sounds like Pung got screwed (I mean, he's dead, but that's not what I'm referring to), but I don't see how courts can be used to second guess the outcome of every public auction. Unless Pung can show that the auction itself was conducted in bad faith in some way (whether true malfeasance — collusion between the government and the buyer — or just failure to sufficiently publicize it) I don't think he should have a claim. (Once again, I opine without reading the documents, so perhaps that is Pung's contention.)
The remedy, if you think the government is auctioning off your property for much less than its value, is for you to bid on it.
I don't understand the point or benefit of bidding on your own property. Maybe I don't understand how these things work.
Suppose you think the fair market value is $200K but the high bid (so far) is $100K (I'm assuming a live auction, not sealed bids). You bid $101K and keep forcing others to bid higher; when they stop, you've established fair market value. But you have to pay that bid for your own property. Then the government refunds you the difference. Still, by the time all is said and done, you've probably had to pay a fair amount of overhead to borrow the money to buy your own house.
Or if it's sealed bids, you have to bid what you think the fair market value is, hoping someone else bids more. If you win, you have the same overhead loss.
And if you could borrow the money for these bids, why not borrow the much smaller sum necessary to pay off the tax debt?
Seems to me this whole scenario can only arise when everything happens before you have a chance to do anything about it, whereupon your only remedy is to take the government to court.
This seems like more of a process question.
Did the owner have sufficient notice and time to either pay the $2200 or sell the property themselves?
If so, then I don’t see them having much standing to complaint about the method of auction used by the government.
If not, then that’s the real complaint.
Better said than I did. But the remedy is the same: the government screwed up the auction and owes you the difference.
My understanding is that Michigan foreclosure statutes for unpaid property taxes is moderately more aggressive/favorable to the government than most other states. Less property owner protection than most other states.
I recall another case from late 1990's early 2000's with a property in the detroit area with similar facts that the michigan SC upheld.
I see this as going against the original home owner
The defendant had a debt. The defendant could have sold the house to pay the debt. They could have chosen to try to get "fair market value." They chose not to.
The house was seized to pay the debt. The house was sold. The debt was paid, the remnants of the proceeds were delivered to the original owner. Now the original owners argues "they should've gotten more, they should've gotten fair market value"...when they chose not to sell the property initially.
Homes and houses seized in foreclosures or for non-payment of taxes often are auctioned for less than "fair market value" due to the unknowns. The title often isn't entirely clear. The tenants can be difficult to remove. There are often unknown difficulties with the house that are explored on inspection. Given the choice, it is almost always preferable to buy a house from a willing seller, rather than one up for auction that was taken.
A policy that the government must provide a "fair market value" rather than the actual value obtained for a property seized for tax non-payment places far too high a risk burden on the government, and far too little on the debtor. Every time non-payment of taxes comes up, the debtor is incentivized to not sell the property. If they try to sell it, it takes work, and they might get below market price. Let the government take it and sell it. The government can do the work of selling it. If they get a good price, great! You didn't need to do any work. If they get a "below market price value"...you sue, and get the difference back.
For the government, every seizure represents a financial risk. The owner could owe $50,000 in back taxes and just not pay it. You can seize the property, and sell it for $500,000, giving the owner back $450,000. Only the owner will sue and say "No fair market was $600,000!" Lose the case, and instead of getting its back taxes back, the government instead loses another $50,000.
Why should government get the benefit of the doubt and not the property owner?
The property owner already had the option to sell. They get the choice.
When did the owner get the option? He was dead. The heirs didn't get a choice.
Well, assuming the debt is valid, the property owner is a deadbeat. Don't repay your debts, lose the benefit of the doubt.
Arm- I agree that the various risk of purchasing of a foreclosed home reduces the fmv (possible dispute of title, etc that you mentioned). My experience is the drop in fmv is in the 10-20% range. However, this case seems egregious.
A few points.
1. I'll point you towards my $500,000 - $600,000 example. That's right in the range you cite. The precedent set is "every time" fmv isn't obtained the government owes the difference. But almost by default, foreclosed homes won't get fmv.
2. The percentages tend to be amplified at the lower end of the prices. A title conflict or need for significant repairs (ie, mold remediation) on a $600,000 house can cost the same in absolute terms as a title conflict on a $200,000 house. But as a percentage, those costs are far higher on the $200,000 house. If it's going to cost $50,000 in mold remediation, that's 25% of the value of the $200,000 house. But only 8.3% of the cost of a $600,000 house.
3. The cases taken here tend to be the outliers (ie, best case scenario). Not the "normal.
Arm - as I stated, most foreclosures have a 10-20% drop in value due to the unknowns. There is or should be some fiduciary responsibility not protect the property owners interest in the property. As I stated, this case seems egregious, almost as if the municipality took active steps to punish the homeowner.
I would point you towards the following publication. 10-20% seems too moderate. 20-30% on average seems more accurate. With sometimes higher drops for foreclosed homes.
https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S0094119023000153
The government said the value was $194,400. When they seized the property they should have paid the balance after deducting the amount owed for taxes.
If the value was only $76,000 then taxes were being overcharged and he wouldn't have owed $2200 and there would have been no basis to seize the property to satisfy the tax debt.
In this particular case...no. See, the taxes paid for the particular levy for this particular year (2012) by the owner was..."zero". So, the assessed value doesn't really matter, so long as it was above zero.
I just don't see how the government can say "Your property is worth X and you owe taxes based upon that value and then turn around and say, "Now your property is worth Y because we don't want to pay you what it is really worth".
And if governments have to take the risk of not getting FMV at auction then they should find another way to collect the taxes owed without taking the property.
An assessed value is not a fair market value. The two are not the same.
https://www.experian.com/blogs/ask-experian/assessed-value-vs-market-value/
I think Harvey has a point. Why not go back and see how much excess Pung paid in property tax because of the presumed overvaluation and credit him with that amount. Would it be surprising if Pung came out ahead that way?
Another way to address the issue is to require the government to make a serious effort to sell the house, thereby avoiding at least some of the issues with auctions.
The best way to do this by getting the county out of the real estate business and requiring them to hire a professional realtor, on the same terms as anyone else, to sell the property. Then there would be an argument that the final price was a good estimate of FMV.
I've just done a bit of digging, and it appears that under Michigan law, prospective buyers of tax-sale property can't enter it without the permission of the owner (whether or not it's occupied). That could depress the auction price considerably: if the owner doesn't cooperate, the potential bidder would have no way of knowing the condition of the interior. If Pung's executors didn't grant permission to inspect the place, then they bear considerable blame for the low auction price. Do we know that detail?
Unlike the earlier takings case case, this one does not involve the government granting itself a superior right to private parties. Any creditor with a judgment can have seized property sold at auction for less than it is "really" worth.
This seems like an argument worth following. Suppose a bank holds a mortgage on my house. I've paid most of the loan off, but then fail to make further payments, so the bank must foreclose to recover the balance of the loan. Does the bank have an obligation to seek the highest possible price when re-selling the place? If they sell it by public auction, does that satisfy any such requirement?
If a private lender doesn't have to take extraordinary measures to obtain the highest possible price in a foreclosure sale, I don't see why the government should be held to a higher standard in a tax sale. Presumably, there're requirements that have to be satisfied for it to be a legitimate public auction—there has to be adequate public notice of the sale, and sufficient time for prospective bidders to investigate the place and make a decision. But if Isabella County's satisfied such requirements in this case, they can't be held responsible for a lack of buyer interest.
Yes.
And, again, the property owner's remedy is to bid what he thinks the property is worth. Either he wins and gets to keep the house less the mortgage balance or tax bill (plus some transaction costs), or he loses and someone else pays that amount, and he gets their bid less the mortgage balance or tax bill (plus some transaction costs).