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Religious Hiring and Title VII's Religious Exemption
A textualist solution to controversies over religious hiring.
May a religious group legally fire a non-ministerial employee (like a secretary or janitor) for violating the group's religious beliefs about sex or marriage? As I explained yesterday, this is the question presented in a spate of recent cases and likely heading to the Supreme Court. It is also the question addressed in my forthcoming article in the Notre Dame Law Review, Religious Hiring Beyond the Ministerial Exception. In it, I set forth the arguments for and against six potential legal protections for the religious hiring of non-ministers.
In today's post, I'll make the case for what I believe is the most straightforward defense available in these cases: Title VII's religious exemption. Under a plain reading of that exemption, religious groups have the right to limit hiring to employees who share their particular religious beliefs, observances, and practices—including their beliefs and practices about sex and marriage.
Title VII's Text
Although Title VII prohibits sex discrimination in employment, it also includes a religious exemption: "This subchapter shall not apply … to a religious [organization] with respect to the employment of individuals of a particular religion…"
There are two competing interpretations of this exemption. Some courts interpret it narrowly to apply only when a plaintiff brings a claim of religious discrimination—not when a plaintiff brings a claim of sex, race, or national-origin discrimination. I call this the claim-based approach, because it focuses on the nature of the employee's claim.
Other courts interpret the exemption more broadly to apply to any claim of discrimination where the religious organization has engaged in specific, exempted conduct—namely, employing individuals of a particular religion. I call this the conduct-based approach, because it focuses on the employer's conduct rather than the employee's claim. This approach, I argue, is more faithful to Title VII's text.
The Textual Argument
Consider, for example, a case where a religious school dismisses a secretary for entering a same-sex marriage, and the secretary sues for sex discrimination. Does the religious exemption apply?
The textual argument for applying the exemption is simple.
First, the exemption provides that "[t]his subchapter shall not apply" to whomever and whatever falls within the exemption. The "subchapter" referenced is all of Title VII—not one subset of Title VII claims.
Next, the text identifies to whom Title VII shall not apply—"a religious [organization]"—and to what activity of a religious organization it shall not apply—"the employment of individuals of a particular religion."
The key question then becomes: What does is it mean for a religious organization to employ "individuals of a particular religion"? On that question, Title VII provides additional clarity by expressly defining "religion": "The term 'religion' includes all aspects of religious observance and practice, as well as belief…."
Thus, putting it all together, the exemption provides that all of Title VII "shall not apply" when a religious organization employs "individuals of a particular" "religious observance" "practice" or "belief."
This means, of course, that religious groups are free to employ only individuals who share their particular religious beliefs—such as belief in the doctrine of the Trinity. But it also means religious groups are free to employ only individuals who share their particular religious observances and practices—such as refraining from sex outside of traditional marriage. As several courts have said, the exemption "include[s] the decision to terminate an employee whose conduct or religious beliefs are inconsistent with those of its employer."
If Congress had wanted to limit the religious exemption to religious-discrimination claims, it could have said, "This subchapter shall not apply to a religious [organization] with respect to claims of religious discrimination arising from the employment of individuals of a particular religion …" But it framed the exemption not in terms of the plaintiff's claim ("claims of religious discrimination"), but in terms of the employer's conduct ("employment of individuals of a particular religion").
This understanding of the religious exemption is confirmed by the use of similar language in the religious exemption in the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA). The ADA's religious exemption provides: "This subchapter shall not prohibit a religious [organization] from giving preference in employment to individuals of a particular religion." If the narrower, claim-based interpretation of Title VII's religious exemption were correct, then the ADA's religious exemption would be superfluous, because the ADA doesn't authorize claims of religious discrimination; it authorizes only claims of disability discrimination. The same is true of the Pregnant Worker's Fairness Act, which expressly incorporates Title VII's religious exemption, but doesn't allow for religious-discrimination claims.
Counterargument
Courts that have adopted the narrower, claim-based approach have done so primarily based on policy concerns. In particular, these courts have warned that the conduct-based approach would "swallow Title VII's rules" on race and sex discrimination and permit odious practices like "terminat[ing] an employee who married someone of a different race."
But this misunderstands the conduct-based approach. Under that approach, religious groups remain subject to race- and sex-discrimination claims whenever they make an employment decision based on anything other than the employee's religious beliefs, observances, or practices. So if a group says the employment decision was based on poor performance—or tardiness, budgetary reasons, personality fit, lack of technological savvy, etc.—it can be sued for race and sex discrimination.
Even if a group says the employment decision was based on the employee's religion, the religious exemption still doesn't apply if the religious reason was pretextual. And beyond Title VII, any organization engaging in race discrimination is subject to damages under Section 1981, loss of federal funding under Title VI, and loss of tax-exempt status—all without any religious exemption.
On the other hand, strong policy considerations support the conduct-based approach. Tens of thousands of religious organizations have long asked their employees to share their religious beliefs and practices—including traditional beliefs on sex and marriage. This has long been permissible. And the Supreme Court in Obergefell said these organizations should receive "proper protection as they seek to teach" and "advocate with utmost, sincere conviction" that "same-sex marriage should not be condoned." But the narrow, claim-based approach would do the opposite—subjecting all these organizations to liability and making it impossible to form religious groups around traditional religious beliefs and practices regarding sex and marriage.
Precedent
Since Bostock, no court of appeals has yet ruled on the scope of Title VII's religious exemption. However, Bostock itself seems to lend support to the broader, conduct-based view. There, the Court highlighted Title VII's "express statutory exception for religious organizations" as one of several "doctrines protecting religious liberty" that may apply in "future cases" involving sex discrimination. And it would make little sense for the Court to highlight this exemption in a sex-discrimination case if it believed it had no application to sex-discrimination claims.
Since Bostock, too, three federal appellate judges (Judges Easterbrook and Brennan on the Seventh Circuit, and Judge King on the Fourth) have issued concurring opinions on Title VII's religious exemption. All three have argued that the conduct-based approach is the most "straightforward reading" of the text.
What Comes Next? Pivoting to State Courts
If and when this issue reaches the Supreme Court, I strongly suspect the Court will adopt the conduct-based approach, as it follows directly from Title VII's text and structure. However, adopting the plain meaning of Title VII's religious exemption won't resolve this entire genre of cases.
Due in part to Title VII's strong religious exemption, some plaintiffs have started bringing their employment-discrimination claims in state court under state law. And while most states have statutory religious exemptions that parrot Title VII's or are even broader, at least two state supreme courts—Washington and Maryland—have recently gutted their statutory religious exemptions, holding that they don't apply to the hiring of non-ministers.
This means that when a non-minister sues for employment discrimination under state law, there may be no statutory defenses available. The only defenses, then, will have to be based on the Constitution.
My next two posts will lay out the arguments for and against two of the leading constitutional defenses: the doctrine of church autonomy and the freedom of expressive association.
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" . . . religious groups have the right to limit hiring to employees who share their particular religious beliefs, observances, and practices—including their beliefs and practices about sex and marriage."
OK, fine with me.
One thing . . . define "religious groups."
Mucho beaucoup.
Since protection for religion has been part of the Constitution since the Bill of Rights was passed, there’s been a long-standing definition.
Objecting to banning or protecting something because it can’t be precisely defined is a longstanding and very tiring fallacy. Exactly the same issue is true of “speech” as “religion.” People who objected to obscenity laws argued nobody agreed on exactly what “obscenity” means. But nobody can agree on exactly what “speech” means either. If the argument is sauce for the gander, it ought to be sauce for the goose too. So if courts can’t address something unless it is first so precisely defined that everybody agrees, then people can’t agree o nexactly what constitutes speech, they can’t protect speech either, so there’s no enforcible First Amendment with which to strike obscenity laws down.
"the employment of individuals of a particular religion."
What does the actual conduct of the (would be) employee have to do with whether they are an individual "of a particular religion"? 200+ years of 1st amendment case law distinguishes between people's religious beliefs and their conduct, where at most their conduct might be taken as evidence that they hold certain beliefs.
"200+ years of 1st amendment case law distinguishes between people's religious beliefs and their conduct"
Not relevant because the employer makes these distinctions and the court is not reviewing those judgements of the employer.
Not at all. The Constitution in no way specially priveleges Calvinism, in which religion is about faith alone with conduct at most evidence of faith, over Catholicism, Judaism, or Islam, where conduct is part of what the religion about.
It protects “free exercise,” not just free belief disembodied from religion.
As a statutory matter, whether the person is a member of a particular religion or not is from the point of view of the exempt employer, not the prospective employee, not Uncle Sam, and not the judge.
"And beyond Title VII, any organization engaging in race discrimination is subject to damages under Section 1981, loss of federal funding under Title VI, and loss of tax-exempt status—all without any religious exemption."
I believe Title VI only applies if the funding was for the primary purpose of employment.
"May a religious group legally fire a non-ministerial employee (like a secretary or janitor) for violating the group's religious beliefs about sex or marriage?"
Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof . . . "
Yes.
It's way deeper than that. Come with me to the days of yesteryear!
One of my favorite references is something I learned in a history of Christian thought class from UMich. Perhaps the earliest known reference to Christianity outside the Bible itself was someone noting how fast it was growing, and how they cared for the poor and sick "without concern for themselves". This was immensely seductive, and the opposite of modern preaching, which just hardens the heart of non-observers.
Fast forward to last century, where government takes on many of the roles traditionally done by religions: the poor, the elderly, the infirm, hospitals, orphanages. Sociologists have tracked the decline in religiosity in Europe to the government taking over these things.
Things that made people stand in line to join Christianity millenia ago.
Now roll in observations the Founding Fathers, correctly, stripped religion from directly grabbing the levers of government. 100 years later government starts aping religious behaviors of caring for people.
One thing left to do. One more wooden stake to the heart. Define these behaviors like caring for people as non-religious activities! Religion, get the hell out!
Oh, you can do it, but must employ people not part of your mission of Good Works, even those actively against your religious mission.
I suspect that the First Amendment will be the subject of a later post. This one is just on the Civil Rights Act and its statutory interpretation.
Does it matter if the position was advertised as for a person of a particular religion? Wanted: a janitor who is a devout Roman Catholic, hiring a person who so claims, finding out they denounced transubstantiation and then firing them?
No, it doesn’t matter.
But maybe it should. A person who has quit their previous job, is performing their new one, and is then informed of a new religious requirement is in a different position from a someone merely in an applicant pool or just looking at ads. The second person has no expectation of a job even if they're perfectly qualified, and Malika's ad gives them fair warning of what the employer is looking for.
Someone looking at ads is not qualified for the vast majority of listings they see. Malika's ad is just another one they'd skim and skip, wasting maybe three seconds of their time. That's much less imposition that moving to another city for a new job and then getting fired for something not in the listed job requirements.
It seems that this is the solution; require informing the prospective employee ahead of time that they are subject to a ministerial exception and what that means. The church will perhaps have to pay their employee more (selecting from a smaller pool of candidates, and even those with the right beliefs may hesitate to take such a position) but there'd be no basis for such lawsuits.
That strikes me as potentially in the nature of a contract matter rather than a discrimination matter.
And I’m not sure it would always work. Suppose the congregation of Your Local Church votes to leave The Liberal Denomination and instead join The Conservative Denomination, and the rules of The Conservative Denomination are stricter about these things? Perhaps the congregation has gotten more conservative as well and wants this.
Would Your Local Church be prevented from re-aligning itself theologically in a manner like this? The consequences to the employees strike me as essentially contract in nature. The employees involved may be entitled to some severance or other compensation. But they would not be entitled to file a discrimination claim.
Oh, I agree there would still be plenty of problems. Deep down I'm inclined toward the libertarian model that employment is a private agreement between consenting adults, and the government's limited role is to have courts where contract disputes can be resolved.
But since we're a long way from that, how to come up with some kind of balance. A "fair warning in the ad" standard would help people not looking for trouble to avoid a workplace that isn't right for them. Conversely, an admission that you took the job with concealed intent to violate the employer's stated requirements would seem (to me) to be independent grounds for termination. If nothing else it makes you a much less sympathetic plaintiff.
*PS - my snarky answer to that YLC congregation would be that religion is supposed to be about eternal truths. Always found it amusing when a church council thought that God's Will could be changed by a 5-4 committee vote.
But that happens to people all the time. Why should this one instance be treated differently by the law?
Why should this one instance be treated differently by the law?
You are right it's not consistent. If we went back to absolute at-will employment, with "no reason I want to discuss" being an employer justification that can't be investigated or questioned by any court, then there would be no need to treat this case differently.
But here we are with both free exercise of religion and a government that wants to pervasively make private life "fair". There will be boundaries, compromises, and inconsistency.
It is very often the case with discrimination laws that what they protect is precisely what some people consider “odious.”
This is as true of Title VII’s protection of religious organizations from those who would consider their behavior odious as it is of any other aspect of Title VII. The protection is a feature, not a bug.
And a claim that the language should not be interpreted literally because Congress could not have intended to protect odious conduct is completely contradicted by Bostock.
This also seems like a form of cancel culture: I can’t even have someone who competently mops the floors at my business who disagrees with my religion!
In other words, you don't know what cancel culture is.
The full definition of "religion" from Title VII is:
The part starting at "unless" established the employer requirement to accommodate employee religious practices unless there is a hardship on the business. But, does the full definition makes sense in the exemption. What does it mean that a religious employer can fire someone who has sex outside of marriage "unless ..."?
You’ve quoted the definition of religion embedded in what a non-exempt employer is required to accommodate.
It’s a nice try to attempt to claim that that makes the exemption completely inoperable because (you claim) it should be interpreted the other way - an accommodation requirement is embedded in the definition of religion itself, rather than a definition of religion being embedded in the accommodation requirement. I understand that makes the set of exempt religions a null set.
Really, it’s a nice try. But let’s say it isn’t going to fly anywhere. Despite your extremely selective quoting, an accommodation obligation isn’t part of the definition of religion itself. Rather, the definition of religion is part a non-exempt employer’s accommodation obligation. The definition of religion ends with the comma, and “unless” and evereything afterwards lies outside it and is part of the accommodation obligation.
Among other problems, the interpretation you propose would be obviously void under the Establishment Clause. I understand you wouldn’t mind this. But courts are obligated to give statutory language an operative, constitutional meaning.
I am not claiming the exemption is inoperable. I am merely positing the exemption does not use the same definition of "religion" that is used elsewhere in Title VII. Maybe "religion" in the exemption does not include religious practice even though it does elsewhere in Title VII?
You leave out some language from the statute that I think weakens your argument somewhat by implying that the Title VII religious exemption is co-extensive with the ministerial exemption.
"This subchapter shall not apply to an employer with respect to the employment of . . . a religious corporation . . . with respect to the employment of individuals of a particular religion to perform work connected with the carrying on by such corporation, association, educational institution, or society of its activities."
That language could be interpreted broadly to mean any activity that the religious entity is engaged in, but such a reading would render the language unnecessary because, by definition, any employee is going to be involved in the "activities" of the employer. In my opinion, the stronger reading is that the "activities" that the employee needs to be involved in are those that are substantially connected to the religious entity's primary purpose. In other words, Title VII's religious exemption applies to employees who perform significant religious functions, just like with the ministerial exception.
Prior to 1972 Title VII said, "to perform work connected with the carrying on by such corporation, association, or society of its religious activities." Congress modified the statute to cover janitors (among others).
Fair enough. And I think that’s the critical issue.
"Claim-based" is your shorthand for limiting the exemption to the employee's religion rather than their religious practice. This interpretation doesn't require a religious claim under the ADA. It merely means the defense against a disability claim is limited to the employee's religion, not their practice.
Moreover, the ADA explicitly states "a religious organization may require that all applicants and employees conform to the religious tenets of such organization." This section would become superfluous if the ADA's exemption on the "particular religion" of the employee included religious practice.
I appreciate the legal discussion.
Going to a higher plane, "May a religious group legally fire a non-ministerial employee (like a secretary or janitor) for violating the group's religious beliefs about sex or marriage?" as a question of policy and constitutional rights to me is a tougher question.
Firing a teacher (even a choir teacher, while realistically knowing some are gay and violating your church's beliefs) is understandable. There are cases where it might seem unfair, like when the person claims age discrimination or something.
A janitor is a harder thing to defend, though I realize people can do so on broad principle. Even a secretary has some justification since they work with policy makers in a religious organization. A secretary can be the secretary to a minister.
Someone cleaning the church after hours, except maybe if there is a concern for purity because a "non-kosher" (or whatever word you use) is touching things, is more tangential.
A janitor is also who I visualize when thinking about people being denied health insurance coverage for contraceptives or the like.