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Supreme Court Reaffirms Rule that Discrimination Based on Sexual Orientation is Sex Discrimination
Yesterday's ruling in Ames v. Ohio Department of Youth Services unanimously applies this once-contested principle.

Yesterday's unanimous Supreme Court decision in Ames v. Ohio Department of Youth Services is primarily notable for the ruling that members of "majority" groups alleging employment discrimination under Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 must not be held to a higher standard of proof than members of "minority" groups. That holding is correct for both the reasons advanced by Justice Ketanji Brown Jackson's opinion for the Court, and the additional points made in Clarence Thomas's concurring opinion (joined also by Neil Gorsuch). But there is another noteworthy element of the ruling that also deserves attention: it reaffirms the rule that discrimination based on sexual orientation is a form of sex discrimination.
Marlean Ames, the plaintiff in the case, explicitly argued that she was a victim of discrimination based on sexual orientation, not generalized discrimination against women, as such. She claims she got passed over for a promotion and then later demoted because she is a heterosexual woman, and her employer—the Ohio Department of Youth Services—discriminated against her in favor of gays and lesbians (first, a lesbian woman, and then a gay man). Nonetheless, all nine justices appear to agree this is a form of discrimination covered by Title VII's ban on discrimination based on sex.
In this case, the sexual orientation discrimination was discrimination against heterosexuals. But, obviously, the same logic applies to the far more common type of sexual orientation discrimination aimed at LGBT people.
The Supreme Court first ruled that sexual orientation discrimination qualifies as sex discrimination under Title VII in Bostock v. Clayton County (2020) (see my analysis of the ruling here and here). At that time, the ruling was highly controversial and three conservative justices (Kavanaugh, Thomas, and Alito) forcefully dissented. In Ames, by contrast, there is not so much as a hint of disagreement. That doesn't mean the Bostock dissenters have changed their minds. But it does suggest there is little or no support on the Court for trying to overrule that decision, or the general principle underlying it. Otherwise, I would have expected one or more conservative justices to at least write a concurring opinion indicating they are backing the majority only because of adherence to stare decisis.
The principle that sex orientation is sex discrimination goes beyond the Title VII employment context. It also applies to the issue of discrimination under the Equal Protection Clause of the Fourteenth Amendment. Back in 2015, Northwestern University law Prof. Andrew Koppelman and I filed an amicus brief in Obergefell v. Hodges (see also shorter summary of our argument here), urging the Court to strike down laws banning same-sex marriage on that basis. The Court instead invalidated them on different, more dubious, grounds. It is not clear to what extent those grounds also invalidate other types of state discrimination against LGBT people.
But if the Court—including all or most of the conservative justices—now accepts that sexual orientation discrimination is sex discrimination, that logic covers discrimination outside the marriage context. And, as Justice Gorsuch's majority opinion in Bostock holds, it applies to discrimination against transgender people, as well as discrimination against gays and lesbians.
As I argued back when Obergefell was decided, the sex discrimination approach offers a much clearer and more generally applicable standard for assessing sexual orientation discrimination claims than the hodgepodge of reasoning advanced by Justice Anthony Kennedy's opinion for the Court. It renders all state-enforced discrimination against LGBT people presumptively unconstitutional.
That doesn't necessarily mean all such discrimination must be struck down. Sex discrimination is subject to heightened "intermediate" scrutiny under which laws that discriminate on that basis can only be upheld if they are "substantially related" to an "important state interest." In some situations —most obviously segregated bathrooms and sports teams—courts generally accept sex discrimination in contexts where racial discrimination (subject to "strict" scrutiny) is forbidden. That has potential implications for situations where, e.g., transgender women seek to play on women's sports teams.
But when governments discriminate against LGBT people in situations where more conventional sex discrimination against men or women is forbidden, the anti-LGBT discrimination must also be struck down. If Marlean Ames qualifies as a victim of sex discrimination, the same is true of, for example, LGBT people discriminated against in state education programs, denied adoption rights available to heterosexuals, and so on.
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You state that transgenderism is covered because sexual orientation is covered, but that is false: a male identifying as a woman could be attracted to other men, or to women, or both, or neither. Transgenderism is not a “sexual orientation” like being gay or straight or bi.
The problem with that argument is that the Supreme Court already rejected it and found that sex discrimination laws can apply to discrimination against transgendered people. See Bostock. You can argue the Court was wrong but you’d look pretty dumb arguing that it isn’t the law.
The problem with your comment is that Bostock outlawed “sex stereotyping” in the context of transgenderism, and the ruling specifically said this wouldn’t necessarily apply in other contexts (sports being an obvious one)
It is not merely a question of attraction. It is discrimination on account of sex. And, Bostock held that covered multiple things, including discrimination based on trans status.
you’re right, its not a “sexual orientation” it’s a Mental Illness, like Schizophrenia, has it’s own ICD10 code and everything.
That is not correct. Transgenderism no longer has an ICD10 code. Gender dysphoria does, however.
They removed trangenderism with the stated goal of normalizing it and reducing stigma. However, they discovered that without an ICD10 code, no insurance will cover your surgeries. So they created this parse of “transgenderism is perfectly normal and healthy, BUT, if you are distressed by it, you can be diagnosed with gender dysphoria and get your insurance covered surgeries.
No science. Just activism.
That’s not so much a problem as the fetishists that get off on seeing themselves as women and forcing others to play along, let alone the predators that use this to access victims.
everything past LGB is narcissism or just perverts.
Bostock is an abomination, Gorsuch’s major blunder so far. Sex did not mean “sexual orientation” in 1964 and does not now.
Bostock makes the profound and frequently overlooked point that anti-gay prejudice is a subset of misogyny (at least as applied to male homosexuals; the mirror image point applies with equal force to lesbians).
The argument is this: “Males should not be giving oral sex or receiving anal sex because that’s something women do. By allowing themselves to be used as women, they degrade themselves. Hard and fast gender roles are a thing, and any man who performs what is considered the submissive role is demeaning himself.” Which, if you think about it, is about as misogynistic a view as can be imagined.
And it’s precisely that point that the Supreme Court made. Homophobia, distilled to its essence, is that men should be men.
The church I grew up in was clear as day on that point. It taught what is called the “order of creation”: Adam was created first, and then Eve was created to serve Adam. Woman is to be subservient to man. Men should not do women’s work; it degrades them. God gave us two genders for a reason. Further, the male is to the female as Christ is to the church: Her lord and master. “Like Sarah, who obeyed Abraham and called him lord.” I Peter 3:6
I’ve never yet met someone who was anti-gay who wasn’t also a misogynist, at least in part. One is a subset of the other.
The 1964 CRA does not incorporate your church’s idiosyncratic views on homosexuals.
So what? The question is whether sexual orientation discrimination is founded on sex discrimination, which it is. Doesn’t matter that nobody had thought of that yet in 1964.
Its not founded on it though
“Doesn’t matter that nobody had thought of that yet in 1964.”
Yes it does. The law was passed to ban a certain thing, not things “thought of” later.
It matters for purposivist arguments, not textual ones.
That’s not even close to the argument. Your ignorance of the actual opinions of your political opponents is astonishing in its apparent willfullness.
The argument made *by whom*? Some people most certainly are making that argument; not everyone, and not as much in public any more.
But that’s not what I said anyway. I was talking philosophically, that objectively, homophobia is a branch of misogyny. Whether that’s true is a separate and independent question from what its proponents subjectively believe and say.
Is it possible for you to explain why it’s acceptable to fire an employee because they’re in an inter-racial relationship without reference to the employee’s race?
Gorsuch did not argue that “sex” means “sexual orientation.” Quite the opposite he assumed “sex” means “status as either male or female [as] determined by reproductive biology.”
Bostock critics like to pretend there’s a different textualist opinion than the one Gorsuch actually wrote rather than admit that the best argument against the result isn’t the textual one, it’s the intentionalist or purposivist one that considers the extra-textual social context at the time of passage.
If I could rephrase Bob’s comment.
“Because of sex” did not mean “because of sexual orientation” in 1964 and does not now.
It means what it says and it’s logically impossible to fire someone for being in a same-sex relationship and it not be because of the sex of the employee in the same way it’s logically impossible to fire someone for being in an interracial relationship and it not be because of the employee’s race.
It’s too clever by half. “Because of sex” simply meant you can’t have a single sex workplace or roles restricted to a certain sex; you can’t ding women for being women or men for being men. That didn’t mean you couldn’t ding them for cross dressing or doing strange things like chopping off their penis and creating a gaping wound where it once was that needs to be continually dilated and pretending it’s a vagina.
Explain to me why you can fire someone for being gay and don’t reference the sex of the employee.
You can fire someone for being gay without violating Title VII because such a firing would not be “because of sex” under the original meaning of the statute. (In theory, not under current law of course).
Not that it would be a good thing to do. It’s just not what what the law meant in 1964.
That’s not what I asked you to do.
You can plausibly argue Title VII doesn’t protect sexual orientation, you just can’t do it on textual grounds.
Sex is physical, sexual orientation is not. No matter how you want to frame it. Sexual orientation is not based on sex. No matter how many times you repeat this nonsense.
“Sexual orientation is not based on sex.”
Explain what sexual orientation is without referring to biological sex.
The “but-for” standard dings a gay man (or woman) for being a man (or woman). To be sure, few in 1964 expected the CRA to apply to sexual orientation. But Gorsuch emphasized that those expectations have no sway when the text is clear.
Gorsuch did not say that sex meant sexual orientation in the CRA. You misunderstood the reasoning of the decision.
*willfully misunderstood.
It seems like a rigid interpretation of the law. I wouldn’t imagine, for example, that if you would fire a with person for using the word nigger in a derogatory sense, you have to fire a black person who uses it to mean “buddy” or “person”.
I wouldn’t, for example, hold that the law prevents an employer from firing a white employee who says that he identifies as a black person.
Good analogy. And yet by the logic of Bostock such a firing would be “because of race.”
But for the employee being white, or if the employee had been black, he would not have been fired.
The principle that sexual orientation discrimination is sex discrimination [the OP phrases it in a way that seems like a typo] is reasonable.
Nonetheless, it simply has not received much traction as a way to protect same sex marriage. People as a whole treat it as a matter of sexual orientation. As has the courts generally.
The Supreme Court ruling was reasonable. There is a longstanding right to marry. There is no good reason why it should not apply to same sex marriage (Mildred Loving agreed). SCOTUS rulings from the 1990s generally over time recognized same sex couples should have the same privacy rights as different sex couples.
The opinion also argued equal protection (sexual orientation) factored in. Kennedy explained the connection between due process and equal protection in Lawrence v. Texas.
Again, illicit sex classification is a factor here. From ancient times, animus against same sex couples and behavior was based on assumptions about “natural” sex roles. No need to use one “bucket,” to use a metaphor commonly tossed around these days.
And that also will factor in regarding trans issues and so forth.
Ah, the principles of living constitutionalism.
“There is no good reason why we should not have this policy, so let’s judicially make it a Constitutional requirement!”
I’ll quote something instead of making up a strawman & putting it in quotes. I will quote what I said:
“There is a longstanding right to marry. There is no good reason why it should not apply to same sex marriage (Mildred Loving agreed).”
If there is a constitutional right, such as freedom of speech, and it is abridged, there has to be a very good reason to do so.
Applying the principles of the right to marry, there is no good reason to deny it to same sex couples. Likewise, there was no good reason to deny the Lovings the right to marry.
In this case, the sexual orientation discrimination was discrimination against heterosexuals. But, obviously, the same logic applies to the far more common type of sexual orientation discrimination aimed at LGBT people.
You have it backwards. Because SCOTUS earlier decided sexual orientation discrimination is sex discrimination, they have to abide by that rule both ways. It’s not ok to discriminate, even if you think it’s ok to “punch up”.
Justice Thomas joined the opinion even though he dissented in Bostock, because no party in the case asked to overrule Bostock.
Yup. People were on his case for doing more or less the same thing last week in the two genders case.
“In this case, the sexual orientation discrimination was discrimination against heterosexuals. But, obviously, the same logic applies to the far more common type of sexual orientation discrimination aimed at LGBT people.”
Really? Cite some evidence that this is a “far more common” type of discrimination. We’re literally in the middle of an entire MONTH where the LGBT flag is waved. Hardly looks like discrimination to the objective observer.
Let’s see… the feds are busy erasing gays from history and pretending trans people don’t even exist.
Should we do a state-by-state analysis? Oh guess what, it’s been done.
https://www.aclu.org/legislative-attacks-on-lgbtq-rights-2025
Hmm, “Boys should go to the boys bathroom” and “boys should not play in girls sports” are “trans people do not exist”?
Schizophrenics exist. We do not agree that we ALSO hear the voices in their head.
Why do you want to make these people even MORE suicidal?
As far as “erasing gays from history”, only thing close is when they removed the name of a pedophile who was best buddies with Jim Jones’ name off a ship. Where it did not belong as he did not have a terribly impressive service record.
…but, again, he WAS a pedo. So we know why you’re so upset.
LGB would do well to distance themselves from T. Trans people are people, who should be treated as the mentally ill people that they are.
“Erasing gays from history”… fucking EL OH EL that’s retarded. Even for you.
It looks like Bostock is safe for now. Both Bostock and Ames, however, are decisions interpreting a federal statute. Whether LGBT status is sex discrimination for equal protection purposes is one issue which may be decided in United States v. Skrmetti, Docket No. 23-477.
“It renders all state-enforced discrimination against LGBT people presumptively unconstitutional.”
Unconstitutional? Or is “unlawful” a better term?
“It renders all state-enforced discrimination against LGBT people presumptively unconstitutional.”
No. This is a decision interpreting a federal statute, which may be modified or amended by Congress.
The Equal Protection clause is at issue in United States v. Skrmetti, Docket No. 23-477, which will likely be decided later this month. The District Court there opined that transgender individuals constitute a quasi-suspect class:
L.W. ex rel. Williams v. Skrmetti, 679 F.Supp.3d 668, 690-691 (M.D. Tenn.) (footnotes omitted),rev’d 83 F.4th 460 (6th Cir. 2023). The District Court also found that SB1 discriminates on the basis of sex, which in turn provides an alternative basis for the application of intermediate scrutiny. Id., at 692.
The Sixth Circuit Court of Appeals reversed the District Court. L.W. ex rel. Williams v. Skrmetti, 83 F.4th 460, 486 (6th Cir. 2023) (“But neither the Supreme Court nor this Court has recognized transgender status as a suspect class. Until that changes, rational basis review applies.”)
Bostock means that there is no such thing as “male” or “female” in the traditional sense. Trans-women now receive priority over natal-women so we are back to people traditionally identified as “male” getting priority over people traditionally identified as “female.” So it is “Meet the new ‘women’, same as the old ‘men.’ “
Ames went out of its way to say gays do not receive priority over straights. So, why do you think trans women receive priority over trans women?
“the far more common type of sexual orientation discrimination aimed at LGBT people”
There are no LGBT people. Homosexual men and women, and those who self-identify as the opposite gender are two separate classes. One has nothing to do with the other. Gay men are not ‘LGBT people’ – they are neither lesbians, bisexuals nor transgender. Today ,LGBT is used only to refer to trans, and should not be used otherwise. Gay is gay, trans is trans.
Unclear on what the acronym means, JonFrum?
Professor Somin fails to grasp that the other justices have adapted Chief Justice Roberts’ method of chess playing. He narrows the question presented and then decides only that question, as narrowed.
The question asked was whether the standards for discrimination on the basis of “something” against a member of the majority under that basis are different for those for discrimination against a member of a minority under that basis.
Nothing to do with what the “something” is. Applies to discrimination cases generally. The question of what kinds of characteristics discrimination can be based on was left completely undisturbed by this decision.
The Court could easily overrule Bostock if it chose to without disturbing this decision in the least.
Great point, if accurate – I did not read the decision but seems quite plausible.
This interpretation of Title VII is still bunk. Here’s why. If you don’t want to hire a transgender at your ice cream stand, it’s not “because of sex.” You have no problem hiring guys or girls, as such. There might be “but for” causation, but there is no proximate causation.
Of course, reading this rule into the Constitution would be even far more bunk.
As I periodically point out, white people who identify as black, and for that matter white people who dress in blackface, are engaging in trans behavior that is, under Bostock, every bit as protected by the Civil Rights Laws as any other kind of trans behavior.
I think it could be argued that immigrants who represent themselves as born in America are also engaging in trans behavior with respect to national origin, trans behavior that would seem to be protected under Bostock as any other kind of trans behavior. I find myself astonished that nobody has argued this in court.
Under Bostock, people have every bit as much of a right to have society accept that their race and national origin is what they say it is as they have a right to have society accept that their gender is what they say it is.
And as I periodically respond, this doesn’t get any less dumb the more you say it. Actual human beings do not get confused about analogies like this.
That says a lot about you — none of it good.
They do not, and that literally has nothing to do with the holding of Bostock.
“And as I periodically respond, this doesn’t get any less dumb the more you say it. Actual human beings do not get confused about analogies like this.”
What’s wrong with it? Per Bostock:
Nothing in Bostock or Title VII indicates there would be a different rule for race.
So if an employer fires and employee because they wore black makeup and they were white, that would violate Bostock’s straightforward rule, no?
Explain why it’s acceptable to fire someone for being trans and do so without referring to the concept of biological sex in any way shape or form.
I take issue with the idea that biological sex can’t be “referred to in any way shape or form.” Again, as I mentioned, there may be “but for” causation. But it’s not proximate.
What do you think about the example of a white person who identifies as black?
You take issue with the challenge because you know it’s logically impossible to meet. Hence why textual arguments against Bostock are so weak. And there’s no formulation of proximate cause that would lead to a different result. How on earth could you claim that an employee’s sex was a remote cause of an injury when they were fired for identifying as a different sex?
As for your race hypothetical, that would be covered by Title VII.
The issue with the “challenge” is that it’s completely farcical. The only “logic” that it is, is circular.
Why is it farcical? If you can’t do it you have to concede that firing a trans employee for being trans is because of the employee’s sex. I’m perfectly willing to consider that Title VII doesn’t protect trans identity or sexual orientation under an intentionalist or purposivist theory with reference to social context in which it was enacted. But I’m not going to pretend that it’s not “because of sex” for the same reason that no one would pretend that being fired for being in an interracial relationship isn’t “because of race.”
So if you have a white person that identifies as black, you cannot fire them for that reason, because that would be race discrimination. That is your view correct?
“How on earth could you claim that an employee’s sex was a remote cause of an injury when they were fired for identifying as a different sex?”
Easily. The employer doesn’t have any problem with hiring men. The other 99.9% of men have no issue getting hired by employer. So, while his being a man may meet a “but for” test, the real reason is not simply that he’s a man. It’s something else that is more proximate.
This is just my theory for explaining it in a lawyerly way. The basic issue is that the 1964 law didn’t mean what you want it to mean.
I do understand Gorsuch’s textualist argument of course. I can’t say it’s completely ridiculous. It’s a good lawyerly argument. I just don’t think it should carry the day according to the original meaning of the text.
What’s the “real reason” and explain it without reference to biological sex.
You need to review Price Waterhouse v. Hopkins: it’s not enough to say that you’re willing to hire women; it’s sex discrimination if you’re only willing to hire women who fit your stereotype of what women should be like.
No, hiring should be based on the job not whether you are a trans or a perv. Why do you do this, Ilya? If I hire a bisexual trans person for a certain job , almost certainly I am discriminating. Only you lawyers ever have these assshole illogical views of things.
I’d fine the hirer if he provoked the person to say they are lesbian.
Perverted to ask and perverted to be.
Scotus merely overturned the Sixth Circuit’s “background circumstances” rule. That’s all.
Had to scroll this far down to finally see some truth. This article, and these comments are reading WAY more in this decision than the justices intended.
The opinion references Bostock twice and does so in mundane ways. The two references:
The “law’s focus on individuals rather than groups [is] anything but academic.” Bostock v. Clayton County,
and
Our case law thus makes clear that the standard for proving disparate treatment under Title VII does not vary based on whether or not the plaintiff is a member of a majority group. Accord, Bostock, 590 U. S., at 659 (“This statute works to protect individuals of both sexes from discrimination, and does so equally”).
I question how much we should read into that.