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Does the Smoot-Hawley Act Justify the Trump Tariffs? More, from Jed Rubenfeld and Philip Zelikow
I'm delighted that Jed Rubenfeld and Philip Zelikow decided to engage further on this matter. (For the original post laying out Prof. Rubenfeld's position, see here; for Prof. Zelikow's position, see here.) First, from Prof. Rubenfeld:
Let me first thank Hoover Senior Fellow Philip Zelikow for this. It's important for everyone to see forceful arguments on both sides of such an important matter. That said, I think Prof. Zelikow overplays his hand—considerably.
To make the issue clear: I've written that most of Trump's tariffs seem to fall squarely within the language of Section 338 of the Tariff Act of 1930 and that they can be upheld under that Section 338 even though the tariff executive orders don't cite it. (It's well established that executive orders can be upheld under statutes they don't cite.) Prof. Zelikow doesn't take issue with any of that.
Rather, Prof. Zelikow claims that Section 338, which remains on the books today at 19 U.S.C. § 1338, was implicitly repealed by subsequent tariff statutes. Or at least that Section 338(d)—a provision I quoted—has been so repealed.
But "repeals by implication," as Justice Scalia once wrote, "are disfavored—'very much disfavored.'" Here's the Supreme Court's 2020 pronouncement on implicit repeals:
"[R]epeals by implication are not favored" and are a "rarity." Presented with two statutes, the Court will "regard each as effective" unless Congress' intention to repeal is "clear and manifest," or the two laws are "irreconcilable." "[W]hen two statutes are capable of co-existence, it is the duty of the courts, absent a clearly expressed congressional intention to the contrary, to regard each as effective."
Maine Community Health Options v. United States, 590 U.S. 296, 315 (2020) (citations omitted).
None of the statutes Prof. Zelikow cites expressly repeals Section 338 or any part of Section 338 of the Tariff Act of 1930. None is in conflict with Section 338, much less "irreconcilable" with it. And Prof. Zelikow cites no language from those statutes' legislative history expressing a "clear and manifest" intent to repeal Section 338. The latter is fully "capable of co-existence" with the later statutes and hence, under Maine Community, "it is the duty of the courts … to regard [it] as effective."
Mr. Zelikow's claim will come as a surprise to many. If Section 338(d) of the Tariff Act of 1930 has been implicitly repealed, someone should have told D.C. District Judge Contreras, one of the judges who just slapped an injunction on Trump's tariffs, and who specifically referred to Section 338(d) as an example of a statute that expressly "grants the President the authority" to impose tariffs in specified conditions. Judge Contreras did not say that Section 338 "granted" the President that authority; he said it "grants" that authority.
If Section 338 has been repealed, someone should have told the non-partisan governmental Congressional Research Service, which describes "Section 338 of the Tariff Act of 1930" as "currently in effect" and as giving the President authority to impose tariffs under the conditions set forth in subsection (d) of that provision.
If Section 338 has been repealed, someone should tell the House of Representatives, where nine Democratic Congressmen have sponsored a bill to repeal it. If Section 338(d) in particular has been repealed, someone should tell the Senate, which in 2017 considered a bill to amend it. In fact, from 2017 until now, both Houses of Congress have been looking at bills to condition the President's Section 338(d) tariff-setting authority on congressional approval. Prof. Zelikow is in effect trying to pass legislation through argumentation.
I get Prof. Zelikow's Posadas argument, under which, he says, implicit repeal may be found if a later statute "covers the whole subject" of a previous statute. It's the right argument for him to make. But Prof. Zelikow neglects to mention that even under the Posadas test, "the intention of the legislature to repeal must be clear and manifest." Radzanower v. Touche Ross & Co., 426 U.S. 148, 154 (1976).
Bottom line: it seems a little hard to argue that a statute has been clearly and manifestly repealed when courts, commentators, and Congressmen alike believe it is still in effect.
And from Prof. Zelikow:
The issue is not whether there was an implied repeal of all of section 338 of Smoot-Hawley by the Trade Acts of 1962 and 1974. The issue is whether there was an implied repeal of section 338(d).
The other portions of section 338 address a finding that a foreign country had discriminated against American products, treating them differently than the products imported from other foreign countries, or actually blocking importation. Those portions of section 338 may still stand. A particular fact finding of discriminatory treatment is a different facet of trade law. As section 338 points out, those findings under other portions of section 338 were meant to interact with investigations by the U.S. International Trade Commission—an adjudicatory body that still exists. The House bill which Professor Rubenfeld mentions in his reply was meant to repeal all of section 338. The mention of the section by Judge Contreras refers, explicitly, to the other subsections, the ones that require a finding of discriminatory treatment.
Section 338(d) was different. It was a general power to respond to commercial disadvantage, foreign acts which somehow "burden" U.S. commerce. That is the precise subject area, even using that same language, that was addressed by section 252 of the Trade Act of 1962 and then again by section 301 of the Trade Act of 1974. It is also the character of Trump's tariff reasoning in both the universal and reciprocal tariffs.
Yes, implied repeal faces a burden of proof. But examination of the relevant statutory sections meets that burden, under the standard I mentioned that was set out in Posadas. It might also meet a standard of "irreconcilable conflict," since if section 338(d) authority was available, why would anyone have bothered with section 252 of the 1962 Act or bother with the requirements of section 301 of the 1974 Act. Those well established trade laws could become nullities.
Empirical evidence reinforces my argument, since for at least 63 years—and in fact since the Roosevelt administration took office in 1933 and adopted a different trade law approach the next year—no administration has ever proclaimed a tariff based on section 338(d) of the 1930 Act. This was true even in periods of high protectionist pressure, which was present throughout the 1970s and 1980s.
Profs. Rubenfeld and Zelikow have each reviewed each other's replies, and modified their posts accordingly.
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What this whole Smoot-Hawley kerfuffle really illustrates is that all laws should sunset. I’d expire them all in a year and a half, or perhaps at the end of the next Congressional session. That gives time to collect a full year’s seasonal data, or a full session’s data, and plenty of time to analyze the effects and see if they met expectations.
There’s something perverse about relying on a 95-year-old law, which has been modified so many times that two learned lawyers / professors can’t agree on what parts are still in effect.
You’d really want laws to swing left-right at every election?
Not a stable way to run a country.
If you want a law changed, revoked, enacted, then take the appropriate steps.
Also (and just learned this), there is no official tally of federal laws.
“According to the Library of Congress, the total number of federal laws and amendments has not been tallied. Besides many volumes of the U.S. Statutes at Large that are published by year, there is no official, single list of all federal laws.”
Eh? Why would sunsetting laws lead to new opposite laws next session? If the new Congress has enough votes to write a replacement for a sunsetted law, and the President wants to sign it, they’ve got enough votes and a willing President to do the exact same thing with one line added: “This repeals law XYZZY.”
Or turn it around: if you think a law is so worthy that it should hang around for another session, and if it is so popular, then pass it again, renew it.
What you’re really saying is that you want unpopular forgotten laws to hang around forever just so some prosecutor can nail someone that you don’t like. You’re the one wanting an unstable government.
Well 95 years old isn’t brand new, but for that matter the Civil Rights act of 1964 is 60 years old, did you want to take a crack about passing that again after years of filibusters to pass that? Although since Robert Byrd isn’t around anymore to lead the filibuster it might be a a little easier to pass.
This comment doesn’t make good sense.
You comment seems to be saying that the Civil Rights Acts would be filibustered by Dixiecrats if we tried to pass them today.
It would be filibustered *by Democrats* if we tried to pass them today.
Professor Zelikow’s repeated references to the fact that the statute is still “on the books,” i.e. in the bounded versions of the US Code evidences a real lack of understanding of how US statutory law works. Most statutes are not even in the US Code and plenty of inoperative statutes are in the Code. It is very, very inexact. Comes off as amateur to keep pointing this out. My $0.02
Then explain why Congress is still trying to repeal and/or amend the non-existent statute.
I don’t see that in the text. Here it is(emphasis added):
Not any burden or disadvantage, only those due to “impositions or discriminations aforesaid”. Those are the same 338(a) discriminations that the other sections reference, and require that imports of US goods be disadvantaged relative to those of some third country. In other words, “treating them differently than the products imported from other foreign countries”, exactly what Prof. Zelikow claims 338(d) doesn’t do.
It’s a very weak bar to get over though. It’s literally any tariff, practice, regulation, limitation, etc, direct or indirect.
The entire EU qualifies, simply because they’ve lowered barriers between their member nations. Any evidence China has treated any US interest not as well as any other foreign interest, ever, in any other country qualifies.
Yes. Prof Z seems to regard Section 338(d) as a stand alone provision. But it’s not, it’s a part of a Section-long scheme.
As you say Section 338 (d) explicitly refers back to the mischiefs of Section 338 (a).
But Section 338 (a) also explicitly refers forward to the duties imposed by Section 338 (d) and (e) :
The President when he finds that the public interest will be served thereby shall by proclamation specify and declare new or additional duties as hereinafter provided…
The OP seems to skip by the question of why 338(d) is applicable.
I don’t quite see how it is.
What are the various unreasonable charges or discriminatory behaviors that justify Trump’s tariffs under 338(d)?
I mean, which tariffs in particular?
China has a history of discriminatory behavior, artificial “regulations” sudden limitations on US companies doing business in China and more. It’s pretty easy there.
The ones claimed to be justified by 338(d).
I guess you have a point wrt the EU, though it seems a bit artificial.
…as well as technology theft.
The tariffs placed on American goods being imported by those countries.
For example, the EU has a ‘not trade barrier’ policy for nations within the EU. Nations not inside it (like the US) are discriminated against.
As lawyers we focus on what the law would permit or not permit. We pay precious little attention to whether this measure, or any particular measure is a good idea. And that’s fine, we are after all not economists.
But as virtually every serious economist, left or right has said, these tariffs are a spectacularly bad idea born out of ignorance about trade and finance.
At some point, we need to recognize that just because you have the right to do something does not mean that it is the right thing to do.
That’s better than the usual spambot, but hardly a good advertisement for your ethics. Makes one wonder how you treat the personal data you hoover up from suckers.
.
This was a reply to a spambot, whose comment was deleted.
I first added this comment to the actual reply, but it was added as a separate top level comment. I edited it down to nothing, and am trying once again.
Nope. Something broken. I suspect the reply to the deleted spam got lost in the ozone and now I can’t reply to it.