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Amy Coney Barrett's "Suspension and Delegation" Revisited
One of the justices wrote extensively about when and whether the writ of habeas corpus may be suspended.
Last week, President Trump and Stephen Miller commented that the Administration is "looking" at whether the privilege of the writ of habeas corpus may be suspended. Insofar as Administration officials are actually looking at this question, they may want to revisit "Suspension and Delegation," an article from the Notre Dame Law Review written by then-Professor Amy Coney Barrett. (I blogged about this article in 2020 when then-Judge Barrett was nominated to the Supreme Court.)
In "Suspension and Delegation," Barrett concurred with the conventional understanding that only Congress has authority to suspend the writ of habeas corpus. More provocatively, she also suggested that there are limits on the extent to which Congress can delegate suspension authority to the President, and that some such prior suspensions were unconstitutional.
Here is the abstract:
A suspension of the writ of habeas corpus empowers the President to indefinitely detain those suspected of endangering the public safety. In other words, it works a temporary suspension of civil liberties. Given the gravity of this power, the Suspension Clause narrowly limits the circumstances in which it may be exercised: the writ may be suspended only in cases of "rebellion or invasion" and when "the public Safety may require it. " Congress alone can suspend the writ; the Executive cannot declare himself authorized to detain in violation of civil rights. Despite the traditional emphasis on the importance of exclusive legislative authority over suspension, the statutes that Congress has enacted are in tension with it. Each of the suspension statutes has delegated broad authority to the President, permitting him in almost every case to decide whether, when, where, and for how long to exercise emergency power. Indeed, if all of these prior statutes are constitutional, Congress could today enact a law authorizing the President to suspend the writ in Guantanamo Bay if he decides at some point in the (perhaps distant) future that the constitutional prerequisites are satisfied. Such a broad delegation undermines the structural benefits that allocating the suspension decision to Congress is designed to achieve. This Article explores whether such delegations are constitutionally permissible. It concludes that while the Suspension Clause does not prohibit Congress from giving the President some responsibility for the suspension decision, it does require Congress to decide the most significant constitutional predicates for itself that an invasion or rebellion has occurred and that protecting the public safety may require the exercise of emergency power. Congress made this determination during the Civil War, but it violated the Suspension Clause in every other case by enacting a suspension statute before an invasion or rebellion actually occurred and in some instances, before one was even on the horizon.
Assuming that Justice Barrett still adheres to these views, she is unlikely to embrace Administration arguments in favor of suspending the writ or limiting its use by individuals alleged to be unlawfully present in the country or otherwise subject to deportation.
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For whatever reason I think the media is really misfiriing on this one. This is wildly unconstitutional, and ACB - probably the swing vote - is articulating a position much less favorable to Trump than the consensus.
I appreciate the posts Jonathan, as you know I think this is five-sigma removed from a close question.
Dellow felagates!
Except the supine, cowardly legislature offloaded it a long time ago. And no "regerts" accepting it.
I'm not sure what this means. The legislature hasn't delegated it.
I think there's a legal analysis and a "practical" analysis. Deporting people without due process is illegal but the GOP-led Congress is fine with it. So from a practical sense, Trump can take any illegal action he thinks he can get away with, which is a lot. The only thing getting in his way are judges, but if he suspends habeas corpus, that barrier becomes trivial to sweep away as he can detain them indefinitely.
But he can't suspend habeas (i.e. judicial review of detention) unless the judges recognize the suspension as valid. So I don't think, as a practical matter, suspending habeas moves the ball at all.
He cannot legally suspend habeas but he can act as if it doesn't exist and get away with it. I'll have more confidence in what the judges recognize when Abrego Garcia is returned from El Salvador. A judge ordered that he could not be deported to El Salvador and more than one judge ordered that he had to be returned. None of these orders have amounted to anything so, from a practical perspective, the ball was removed entirely.
He’ll just ignore any court orders and say they’re illegitimate. They’ve been telling the world this is coming for a while now.
Which people do you think are being deported (or the government is trying to deport) without due process?
Are there any beside the AEA plaintiffs?
Some of the AEA detainees are, the admin now claims, removable under Title 8. Some Title 8 removals were never covered by the AEA Proclamation. There are due process questions whether there are AEA removals or Title 8 removals, though. But the questions are different.
Sure, I agree with all that.
There is this other narrative out there, that a whole bunch of aliens are being deported without due process. This misunderstanding persists because people misrepresent what due process is owed them, perhaps because they disagree with the underlying policy being pursued, despite its legality.
That's why I'm interested in knowing what someone who talks about deportation without due process means when they say this.
I'm not sure what you mean. Do you mean that there is a "misunderstanding" because (1) people aren't being removed or (2) because the removals are lawful? I don't agree with either one of those propositions. You seem to be implying the second. There are 240+ AEA detainees sitting in CECOT that would certainly dispute the suggestion that they received notice and opportunity to be heard on: (1) whether the Proclamation was invalid because there's no invastion/predatory incursion; (2) whether the Proclamation was invalid because TdA isn't Venezuela's alter ego; (3) whether AEA removals are exempt from Title 8 requirements: (4) whether AEA detainees are entitled to torture screenings; (5) whether admin notice procedure is facially invalid; and (6) whether they are in fact TdA.
There's much imprecision in claims regarding lack of "due process"
For those in the country illegally, their due process rights are different than for those here legally.
Immigration courts operate differently than regular courts. The mass entries processed were given notices to appear. The notice to appear must be followed precisely. Aliens must keep in contact at all times. Failure to do so can or will lower the bar to allow removal without any further process. Illegal aliens have little due process rights because they have no credentials that state otherwise.
I'm not sure what all this means, it doesn't feel like a legal argument. Noncitizens, including undocumented folks, have due process rights in removal proceedings. There is no question about this. There were and are questions about the scope of permissible objections to the AEA removals, but SCOTUS has squarely held that there are some due process rights there too.
Trump chose to invoke the Alien Enemies Act. The AEA, passed in the 18th Century before the rise of the administrative state, provides for judicial enforcement. Courts interpreted this long ago to mean that all AEA aliens get a right to a habeas corpus hearing in court even if other kinds of aliens don’t have an automatic right to one. They get more process than others. That’s how Congress left things.
The Trump administration fundamentally misunderstood this when it invoked the AEA. It thought it only needed to be concerned about constitutional due process rights, not statutory rights. But AEA aliens get the additional statutory rights and additional process Congress provided for. The Admnistration is stuck with its choice, even if it could have moved faster by using a different and more straightforward statutory category to proceed on.
If this is not a close question, what should happen when Trump does it?
When Trump declares that courts shouldn't issue opionions the courts should issue opinions.
They may be writing those opinions on smuggled toilet paper in their detention cells, but they'll issue them promptly.
Related question: if the DOJ and ICE are willing to violate court orders and detain people without a bench warrant (which there are numerous examples of already), what's the real downside for them if they follow through and detain judges without due process?
I'm not sure I quite understand your premise; a bench warrant is not required for ICE to make immigration arrests in public places.
I appreciate Justice Barrett's analysis on this question when she was a professor, but for many people, any limit would be akin to closing the barn door after cows wandered out of a bucolic family farm & were captured to spend their lives in a cruel factory farm.
Abe Lincoln (R) holding on line two - - - - - - -
Genuine question for the group. Assume for the sake of discussion that President A allows 10 million aliens into the country with no regularity of law. Assume President B wants to remove said aliens. What is the legal, constitutional way to achieve that end, understanding that the nation cannot, in any practical terms, conduct ten million hearings and appeals to those hearings?
Congress suspends habeus for that class (illegal aliens) for a set time, renewable by majority vote for a set period of time. Or, Congress limits the jurisdiction of art 3 courts to hear habeus cases for that class (illegal aliens), that removes Art 3 courts from the equation.
You forgot about Congress first rewriting the dictionary to turn peaceful (even if illegal) migration into an invasion.
Re rewriting the dictionary, Congress has the power to determine "when the public safety requires it." And no SC, if they even granted certiorari, would rule that Congress did not have that power. As for presidents, they might, in the case of clear abuse, rule that Congress has not approved it. But saying Congress cannot determine that? Never going to happen.
Genuine reply, in two parts:
1) What's the need to achieve that end, let alone to do so on such an urgent basis?
2) Assuming that there is such an urgent need, why would Congress not provide sufficient resources to hold the appropriate hearings?
DN -
Re #1) I'm asking a hypothetical. Pretend you're at the SC (or OF the SC) and being asked/presented with these questions. So, in a hypothetical, you have to accept the premise. No Kobayashi Maru.
2) I don't think that's within the realm of possibility. District courts handle between 300,000-500,000 cases annually. And those cases aren't going away. And that's across 94 district judges. So, if you wanted to achieve the result in a year, you'd need as many as 2000 extra federal judges, PLUS appelate courts. So, not a reasonable suggestion. But you also have to accept this limitation as part of the hypothetical.
But my question was really about process. How can it be achieved, consistent with the Constitution, and in a reasonable timeframe?
If Congress won't do it because it's not 'within the realm of possibility' how does that not tell you something about what can be achieved consistent to the constitution?
There are a lot of things that Congress won't attempt and cannot do because they are beyond the realm of possibility; in fact, the list is endless. The fact that Congress cannot appoint enough government agents to certify that EVERYONE in America is wearing clean socks does NOT mean that that has any constitutional implication.
That fact means that there is no executive action that can, consistent with the Constitution, make sure everyone is wearing clean socks.
And that it is likely America will never be a place of pure and clean sockitude.
The legal, constitutional way is to have some sort of due process.
If that doesn't allow the president to simply remove "ten million people," which will involve a lot of mistakes and executive abuse mixed in, that's part of the system in place.
To be clear, moving past "discussion," ten million non-citizens were not just "allowed" in without regularity of the law.
Joe, if not "allowed" in, how would you characterize it?
The term "allow" has various connotations, so I don't know what you specifically meant by it, so I was careful to use quotes.
My general concern is the idea that they were "just" allowed, particularly by one person, when entry came for a variety of reasons, with multiple limitations in place.
In fact, a bit worse than merely “allowed“, they were enabled and even encouraged to come without visas, or even using official ports of entry. We then transported them into the country without cost, issued them free housing and other benefits, and gave them social security numbers so they could work. Our own government did this without asking anyone, or seeking any authorization from voters
I have never understood why the power to suspend should be limited to Congress. The placement of the restriction in Article I is not dispositive; other clauses of Article I clearly apply to the Executive.
At the time of the Framing, and indeed for many decades afterwards, Congress was normally out of session, and could not be assembled for weeks or months. Suspension is, rather obviously, an emergency measure, and imposing such delays on an emergency action seems absurd.
The Federalist Papers point out that the President's pardoning power should be immediate and plenary, because such pardons could be decisive in quelling a rebellion, and the delay imposed by reviews or confirmations could lose the opportunity.
Similarly, summary arrests could be critically important during "invasion or rebellion".
Senator Thomas Hicks was governor of Maryland in 1861. He said later "Arrests and arrests alone saved Maryland... I approved them then, I approve them now... and the only thing for which I condemn the administration... is that they let some of these men out!"
The crisis in Maryland was in April and May. Congress did not assemble until July. What could have happened in the intervening months if those secessionists had remained at liberty?
Lincoln saw the emergency and used an emergency power.
I don't assert that present conditions are comparable to the crisis of 1861. I only suggest that the assignation of the power to Congress is wrong.
I'll further add that IMO the clause is poorly written. It creates the power to suspend by backwards implication. It does not state who has the power to suspend, nor any formal prerequisite for suspension, nor limit the duration or make other any provision for restoration, or provide any safeguard against abuse.
RR-
I think the real test is when a president suspends it, and Congress *is* in session, and makes no move to support or disapprove that act. Is silence consent? If Congress passes an Act restoring HB, can the president just veto it and continue? Is impeachment and conviction/removal the only method of address?
Congress already gave the authority to the president to address emergency situations including calling up the militia when normal legal proceedings could not deal with the situation.
It could and did provide authority to the executive to address the situation when they were out of session.
The writ was a longstanding thing & the history behind it probably was meant to inform its use. Logically, the judiciary would have a role to play in determining its usage. It is after all a judicial device.
There's a reason why, notwithstanding your intuitions, even the strongest advocates of executive power - think Justice Thomas - have always written as though only Congress has suspension power. It's not just that the anti-suspension language is in a section devoted to restrictions on Congressional power. It's also (1) that habeas is fundamentally a check on executive power so it would be interpretively bizarre to suggest that the executive could suspend the thing that is supposed to check itself; (2) the executive suspension theory would counter-intuitively assign more suspension power to the president than to Congress; and (3) (1) the fact that the framers were responding to monarchal excess.
So there's all of that interpretive weight behind the universal view of judges and academics that only Congress can suspend - versus the idea that it just must be otherwise because Lincoln felt like a (failed) unilateral attempt at suspension was easier than the alternative.
I agree. I think Congress, under the constitutional design, gets the call. But that begs the question, that if the public safety requires it, and Congress will not act -- what then?
Then you don't get public safety?
Congress has the power to declare war. It is a safeguard against executive overreach. The executive retains the power to address "sudden attacks" before Congress can act.
The Lincoln example is one of those special cases that should not be taken to decide the norm, especially today when Congress can quickly come back in session & is not out of session for long periods as it was back then. It was not just a bit "easier."
There was a rebellion. Insurrectionists were interfering with the troops marching to stop it. The nation's capital was in danger. The Congress was out of session. Lincoln's argument that the text left it open to address the danger to public safety was reasonable.
At the time, it was not the "universal" sentiment that Lincoln was wrong. For instance, Reverdy Johnson, who later opposed the use of military tribunals to try the Lincoln assassination defendants, agreed with Lincoln's approach. He was not alone.
Also, not quite sure it "failed." It was a temporary measure. Taney surely didn't stop it.
https://www.loc.gov/item/today-in-history/may-21
I appreciate the thoughtful response.
I agree completely that it makes far, far more practical sense for the Executive to have this power. In spite of that, I'm not convinced the Framers intended to give the Executive this power. Why the difference? I suspect it's simply because the Framers didn't consider the practical need for it. What's my evidence? Read on.
On August 20th, 1787, Charles Pinckney proposed adding an early, significantly wordier version of the habeas corpus clause to the Constitution. Here's what his original draft said:
"The privileges and benefit of the writ of habeas corpus shall be enjoyed in this government in the most expeditious and ample manner: and shall not be suspended by the Legislature except upon the most urgent and pressing occasions, and for a limited time not exceeding _____ months."
Note how explicit this original draft is. It specifically guarantees habeas corpus and specifies that only the Legislature could suspend it. On top of that, there was a time limit. (Note that the blank is intentional—Pinckney had not come up with a specific time frame yet.)
Once Pinckney submitted it, there was no recorded debate or opposition regarding this amendment. Instead, the Convention promptly sent the proposal to the Committee of Detail, which was responsible for paring down and simplifying texts for the final version.
Eight days later, on August 28th, habeas corpus came up again, only with more debate. However, the debates on this day didn't bring up the Legislature at all. (At least, not according to the notes and records the Framers left.) Instead, the focus was on whether to include any exceptions at all. Pinckney still wanted a time limit, set to twelve months. John Rutlidge and James Wilson didn't want suspension possible at all. However, it was Gouverneur Morris proposed what eventually became the final text of this section, bar two minor changes:
"The privilege of the writ of Habeas Corpus shall not be suspended, unless where in cases of Rebellion or invasion the public safety may require it."
(The minor changes? "Rebellion" became "rebellion" and the comma became a semicolon.)
It went through two votes. The first was on the amendment up until the word "unless". This one passed unanimously—all present agreed that the government should not suspend habeas corpus in ordinary circumstances. However, the version with the exceptions for rebellion and invasion actually failed to pass on this round. It only received seven votes.
So why did the Framers drop the text specifying the Legislature could suspend habeas corpus? There aren't any notes talking about the need for the Executive to have this power instead of the Legislature. There aren't any concerns about making this power quick and easy to use in an emergency. In fact, Rutlidge was skeptical that there would ever be a need to suspend it throughout all the states. (This prompts some interesting questions about state power to suspend habeas corpus that I don't have time to explore now.) In a time period when debates about the power of the Executive were a major political issue, surely someone would've raised a fuss about this change.
Instead, the only thing that precipitated this change was sending it to the Committee of Detail. Since the Committee of Detail focused on cleaning up and making the text simple and clear, I suspect they viewed this text as extraneous and removed it. They viewed it as implicit that this was a Legislative power.
Incidentally, your complaints about the clause being poorly written (something I agree with) are partially addressed by Pinckney's original proposal and some of the delegates' complaints. There's a pretty rich history behind this clause. I just wish we had more detailed notes.
A temporary suspension of habeus would seem to require a reversible detention.
Having claimed that he can’t get people back from El Salvador, it would seem impermissible to use it during a “suspension” of habeus.
It might be different if he were holding them in a federal facility.