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88 Problems for Kurt Lash
Evan Bernick's first in a series of guest-blogging post: Part I of a critique of an important defense of the constitutionality of Donald Trump's executive order on birthright citizenship.

On February 24, 2025, Kurt Lash posted 8 pages on SSRN. It was an introduction to a work-in-progress about the original public meaning of the Citizenship Clause. Lash stated his intention to challenge a scholarly consensus which spans the ideological and methodological spectrum, asserting that "children born in the United States to noncitizen parents who intentionally refuse to comply with the legal requirements for entry into United States" are not constitutionally entitled to citizenship. He gave assurances that although the paper was still in production, it would be "written with all deliberate speed."
We now have 80 more pages. Lash has described the resulting 88 as a "completed article." I expect Lash's paper to be the leading academic defense of the constitutional position articulated in President Trump's January 20, 2025 executive order, "Protecting the Meaning and Value of American Citizenship" ("EO"). The EO purports to end birthright citizenship for the children of people who have entered the country unlawfully ("unlawful entrants"), as well as the children of temporary visitors. Lash's status as one of the leading Fourteenth Amendment scholars in the country compels careful attention to his arguments.
What follows will be overwhelmingly critical. But I want to begin by giving credit where it is due. Lash prudently distances himself from two other kinds of pro-EO arguments that have been advanced in recent months and which I will engage in subsequent posts. The first argument turns on a supposed requirement that the parents of birthright citizens be "domiciled" in the United States. The second turns on a claimed need for reciprocal consent on the part of the parents and the polity: The parents, to allegiance to the sovereign; the sovereign, to the protection of the parents.
Lash acknowledges that requiring reciprocal consent "would seem to exclude children of families kidnapped into slavery and smuggled into the United States in violation of bans on the international slave trade." I agree, and I believe that the requirement should be rejected for that reason alone. Lash allows that it is "possible" that parental domicile is required, but he does not commit to this claim. I think it apparent that there is no domicile requirement and that even if there were, it would not exclude the children of unlawful entrants. Still, I appreciate Lash's careful hedging in the face of what he takes to be "mixed" evidence.
If only this care were evident throughout. Overall, Lash's draft is shockingly unpersuasive, given the reputation for rigor and attention to detail that Lash has earned through prior Fourteenth Amendment scholarship. I am not sure why he decided to post it in its current state, but I mean to show that this decision was unwise.
Problems With Allegiance
Lash's core thesis is admirably straightforward. The Citizenship Clause establishes a strong presumption that any person born within the United States is a citizen of the United States. That presumption cannot be overcome by a child's race, a lack of reciprocal parent-polity consent, or even a parent's criminal conviction. It can, however, be overcome by a demonstration that the child's parent lacks sufficient allegiance to the United States. Parental allegiance determines the child's entitlement to birthright citizenship.
Most scholars of the Citizenship Clause agree that whether one is "subject to the jurisdiction of the United States" is somehow related to one's allegiance to the United States. The conventional wisdom holds that allegiance in the sense meant by Lyman Trumbull, Jacob Howard, and other leading Reconstruction Framers who used the term was a duty imposed by a sovereign power. Whether a person owed allegiance turned on the power that the state was entitled to exercise over them because (in political theory, anyway) it was offering protection for their natural rights. Roughly, if you're protected by the lawmaking, adjudicatory, and enforcement powers of the United States in the ordinary course of things, you're obligated to comply with those powers.
Lash disagrees. He asserts that allegiance "refers to one's loyalty to, or fidelity towards, a sovereign, in return for which the sovereign provides protection." Loyalty to the United States is presumed, but if there is no loyalty, there can be no allegiance. And again, Lash claims that the allegiance of parents is determinative of a child's citizenship status.
All the evidence Lash needs to see why what's wrong with his loyalty-based account is right in front of him, in his own sources. One of the starkest examples is James Kent's Commentaries on American Law, which Lash traces through several editions leading up to the ratification of the Fourteenth Amendment.
Lash observes that Kent insisted upon birth within US territory and within the "allegiance of the United State." But this tells us nothing about what allegiance means. The 1848 edition, cited by Lash for the latter language, asserts that "[t]his is the rule of the common law, without any regard or reference to the political condition or allegiance of their parents, with the exception of the children of ambassadors, who are in theory born within the allegiance of the foreign power they represent." This language appears in all subsequent editions through the ratification of the Fourteenth Amendment.
Lash does not deal convincingly with this language, which is in pronounced tension with his account of allegiance. First, he says it's "not clear" whether Kent wrote it, since he was working on the 1848 edition just before he died. Second, Lash says that it summarizes a decision that was "not representative of a consensus understanding" of its subject matter at the time of the Fourteenth Amendment's framing and ratification. But Kent's death is irrelevant absent evidence that whether Kent or his son wrote it somehow affected its reception. And the second claim is unsubstantiated, resting on at least one premise that is outright false.
The 1848 language summarizes the holding of Lynch v. Clarke, decided in 1844. This appears to be the only antebellum case which adjudicated the citizenship of a child born in the United States to foreign nationals who were temporarily visiting the country. In it, Vice-Chancellor Sandford of the New York Court of Chancery determined that Julia Lynch, a child born in New York of Irish parents, was a citizen of the United States. Sandford described a common-law rule which he asserted "prevailed and was the law … in all the states" and treated "every person born within the dominions and allegiance of the United States, whatever were the situation of his parents" as a "natural born citizen."
Lynch was widely reported as an important decision, cited by Lincoln's Attorney General Edward Bates (twice), and invoked by a leading Republican framer, Ohio Representative William Lawrence, during debate over the Citizenship Clause. Still, Lash tries to cast doubt upon its relevance to the Citizenship Clause. He reports that "as far as I [Lash] can tell" no newspapers "report[ed] Lawrence's attribution."
In fact, several Ohio papers printed Lawrence's remarks. They reported his citation to Lynch; Lawrence's statement that the Citizenship Clause "is only declaratory of what the law is without it"; and his claim that Lynch held that "children born here are citizens without any regard to the political condition or allegiance of their parents." What is striking about Lash's error is how easily I found these papers. "Great case" and "lynch" generated the first, and "political condition or allegiance" the others.
It's also hard to understand why Lash omitted Sandford's extended discussion of one of the few exceptions to birthright citizenship recognized by any antebellum court. This exception allowed people who were loyal to Britain during the Revolutionary War to elect to remain British subjects and thereby exclude their children from U.S. citizenship. Indeed, counsel in Lynch contended for a broadly applicable requirement of parental allegiance, citing the election exception.
Vice-Chancellor Sandford rejected this argument. He wrote that cases involving the "state of allegiance produced by the Revolution" were "anomalous" and could not "with propriety be deemed authorities against well established principles, as applicable to the ordinary questions of alienage and allegiance." Lash omits this discussion entirely, even though it is highly relevant to his own claim that parental allegiance was well-established in antebellum law. Ultimately, we are left not only with a paucity of evidence supporting Lash's concept of allegiance but questions about Lash's reliability as narrator.
Problems With Abolition
Concerns about Lash's reliability are exacerbated by his neglect of abolitionist contributions to the antebellum legal and political landscape. The word "abolitionist" appears once in Lash's essay, and he cites one abolitionist source—what Lash refers to as an 1859 "declaration" by the American Anti-Slavery Society that "citizenship, as the term is used in the Constitution of the United States, is the inevitable consequence of birth and allegiance."
First, it's not a declaration—it's a summary of an opinion given by the Supreme Court of Maine in response to a legislative inquiry about the right of Black people to vote. Second, it's unhelpful to Lash except on the assumption that allegiance means what he thinks it means. In context, the summary is solely concerned with denying that birthright citizenship is "dependent on race or color."
So, what did Lash miss? Despite acknowledging comments by, and occasionally citing, Gerard Magliocca, Lash does not engage Magliocca's pathbreaking work on the development of abolitionist support for Tribal sovereignty. This solidarity, forged in the wake of the genocidal removal of the Cherokee, Muscogee (Creek), Choctaw, Chickasaw, and Seminole Nations from their ancestral lands, shaped Republican support for Native freedom and Republican understanding of Indian law circa 1868, and it informed their decision not to impose birthright citizenship on citizens of Native nations. Republicans spoke of Worcester v. Georgia as the "law of the land" long after the Supreme Court had retreated from Worcester's premise of territory-centered Tribal sovereignty. Tellingly, Lash cites United States v. Rogers, a notoriously racist and anti-Tribal decision written by the author of Dred Scott, as evidence of the state of antebellum law. As Indian law scholar Bethany Berger has shown, this is precisely the kind of antebellum law that Republicans rejected.
Comparably problematic is Lash's omission of the work of Amanda Frost, who has documented how abolitionist struggles shaped an understanding of citizenship that placed little significance on the legality of border crossing. What Frost terms "birthright freedom" was established through legislation and litigation, not only in northern states and in territories governed by the Northwest Ordinance but in a few courts in enslaving states. It entailed that all children born within the borders of free states were automatically free, regardless of the status of their parents. Indeed, the fact that enslaved parents had broken the law by fleeing across state lines did not affect the child's entitlement to freedom, even as the child's mother faced removal. Republicans framed the Citizenship Clause "against a backdrop of antebellum legal rules in which birth within borders granted new status and rights of membership."
I do not mean to suggest that Lash deliberately disregarded abolitionist history or Citizenship Clause scholarship which investigates it in great detail. I do mean to assert that Lash fails to confront scholarship that either contradicts or challenges his account of the Citizenship Clause—including cutting-edge originalist scholarship—or engage scholars from whom he might have learned. He cites Michael Ramsey's authoritative 2020 pro-birthright article but his most substantial engagement with it comes in the form of spotlighting a concession in Lash's favor. He cites Mark Shawhan's 10-page student comment suggesting a possible domicile requirement but not Shawhan's full-length article advancing an original-public-meaning case for expansive birthright citizenship without any such requirement. Lash thanks and cites John Eastman, the disgraced and disbarred architect of a scheme to overturn the 2020 election who has a track record of misrepresentation concerning birthright citizenship. But he doesn't discuss the work of Bethany Berger, who has written extensively on the intersection between Indian law and the Citizenship Clause and has never tried to sabotage the constitutional order.
Problems with "Prima Facie"
Finally, Lash's treatment of the foundational source upon which he relies for the concept of "prima facie citizenship" is unsatisfactory. There is no gainsaying the all-things-considered importance of Lincoln Attorney General Edward Bates's 1862 opinion on citizenship, particularly with respect to abolitionist struggles. And Lash is right to underscore its presence in debates over the Civil Rights Act of 1866, during which Iowa Representative James Wilson praised its "careful and painstaking examination" of Black citizenship and its affirmation that a "free man of color … if born in the United States, is a citizen of the United States." Yet he leaves out and underplays crucial components of Bates's opinion.
Lash briefly discusses an 1821 opinion by James Madison's Attorney General William Wirt in which Wirt denied the citizenship of free people of color in Virginia. Lash touts this as evidence that "to some antebellum legal commentators, the wide-spread denial of equal civil rights constituted evidence that free [B]lack Americans were not 'citizens of the United States.'" But it also expresses an understanding of allegiance that Bates rejected. Indeed, Bates protested that he could scarcely "understand" Wirt's argument that free Black allegiance to Virginia must follow a consensual oath because "if it be true that the oath of allegiance must either create or precede citizenship, then it follows, of necessity, that there can be no natural-born citizens, as the Constitution affirms, because the child must be born before it can take the oath."
Lash does not inform readers about Bates's emphatic rejection of Wirt's account of allegiance. More, he fails to note about Bates's insistence that citizenship "is as original in the child as it was in his parents …. always either born with him or given to him directly by law," even though scholars like Garrett Epps and Michael Shawhan have centered it as evidence of broad birthright citizenship.
What little of Bates's reasoning that Lash does engage does not support his thesis. Bates identifies only one exception to the rule of birthright citizenship beyond the no-longer-relevant exclusions for slavery, color, and race. This is "the small and admitted class of the natural born composed of the children of foreign ministers and the like." Lash seizes on "and the like" and infers that Bates did not mean to be exhaustive. Still, this language goes nowhere near the articulation of a general principle according to which executives in 2025 might be authorized to create new exclusions covering countless children. The limited nature of the one "small … class" of children excepted Bates is yet another unacknowledged problem for Lash.
I'll be blunt: I don't think Lash's thesis can survive his failure to demonstrate the centrality of his concept of allegiance to antebellum law and political practice—at least, not any law or practice that Republicans would have wanted to preserve. But there is much more to say about Lash's draft—in particular, about his treatment of Indian law and his effort to analogize Tribal citizens to unlawful entrants. To preview: the analogy fails, owing to the profound differences between the former and the latter. Lash missed a lot, in ways that will hopefully be instructive to any who venture unaided well beyond the borders of their expertise.
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Supporters of the EO are arguing in bad faith, and this is a waste of time.
These aren't French fur trappers who set up an outpost on the Missouri river in 1809.
Nor have the EO-supporters proven themselves good stewards of immigration enforcement.
Congress is fully capable of updating our laws on birthright citizenship and establishing practices that prevent the deportation of lawful residents and citizens. Republicans have majorities in both houses. They should do this.
Until then, they can fuck off.
Come again? If the 14th Amendment requires birthright citizenship, then it doesn't matter what laws Congress adopts. The INA language on birthright citizenship (8 USC 1401(a)) mirrors the language in the 14th Amendment. I don't think it provides an independent basis for birthright citizenship.
Federal law could always be improved, but it already forbids illegal entry. It's mostly a matter of enforcement.
You don't get to change long standing interpretations of law by executive order. The 14th Amendment was written to *include* Slaves while not including Natives. It does not specifically mention immigration.
If you want to change that, do so.
Fourteenth Amendment
Section 1
All persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens of the United States and of the State wherein they reside
Yes, executive orders can change longstanding policy. So could Congress, but it has not addressed the issue.
"You don't get to change long standing interpretations of law by executive order. "
You are right, you need a Supreme Court decision for that. However, to get in front of the Supreme Court or even lower federal courts you need an actual case or controversy.
I support the long standing broad reasoning of the citizenship clause. That said, the President does not.
So other than by doing this EO, how is he supposed to get the matter in front of the federal courts for reconsideration?
The truth is that he shouldn't be able to get it to the Supreme Court in good faith because regardless of who is right on the constitutional merits (and to be clear, the pro-birthright citizenship people are right on the merits), it doesn't matter because Congress enacted a statutory law that formally adopted the pro-birthright citizenship view in the 1950s. You don't even need to reach the constitutional stuff for Trump to lose.
He should tell his lackey to file a bill in congress.
"You don't get to change long standing interpretations of law by executive order."
Interpreting the Constitution should not, does not, and can not require an Act of Congress.
You admit as much by moving on to discussing the actual text of the clause here. If you want to understand more about what "jurisdiction" means see my comment below.
You highlight the folly of engaging with Trump positions as if they were offered in good faith.
They are . . . meanwhile you have nothing to contribute, just garbage.
There is no “long standing” interpretation of law and a bureaucratic misconception of what the 14th amendment provides can certainly be corrected by the chief executive.
You don't consider a SCOTUS decision from 1873 long standing?
https://www.law.cornell.edu/supremecourt/text/169/649
"88" EB?
why not 87, or 89?
better watch out or the Language Nazi's will cancel you,
"88" has all sorts of Bad Jew-Jew, the Real Nazi's used it as shorthand for "Heil Hitler" (H being the 8th letter of the Alphabet), I first learned that in Med School when a bunch of us got "88" stickers for our Cars, we weren't Nazi's, it was the year we were grad-jew-ating.
One of the Jewish "Fleas" (med slang for Internist, as Fleas are the last things to leave a dying dog) thought he'd uncovered a new Neo-Nazi group, called Moe Dees, (more like Dees Nuts), until cooler heads prevailed.
More recently the "My Pillow" guy's been getting his balls busted for the same thing, advertising some of his ridiculous overpriced merchandise for "$14.88" (don't ask me where the "14" comes into it)
Frank
I believe it's a reference to the number of pages in Lash's paper.
8 is a lucky number in Chinese. 88 is luckier still, and 888 even more so.
Thus when I am transferring money between bank and broker accounts I always transfer $50,000.88 or even $58,888.88 - which encourages the gods to bless the investment.
There is a journalist who worked for the NYT many years ago named "Jennifer 8 Lee." Yes, her middle name is actually "8," precisely because of that good luck association.
The problem starts with the whole notion of "unlawful entry" into the United States. Absent a constitutional amendment creating a power to regulate immigration, there's no such thing (see Article I, Section 9; Amendment 10; and Madison v. Marbury).
Article I, Section 9 says that Congress can't limit migration before 1808. That would be an odd provision if Congress didn't have the power to limit migration at all.
That provision was intended to prevent banning the slave trade prior to 1808.
If that provision of the constitution is exclusively about the slave trade, why mention both importation and migration?
Importation is certainly about the slave trade, but I think most people would view migration as being necessarily voluntary which means migration is not about the slave trade.
The bigger problem is that a negative prohibition on something should not be interpreted as an implication that such a power would exist in the absence of the prohibition. It may be "odd" but odd doesn't mean incorrect, the 1st and 2nd amendment were also considered odd because they thought Congress didn't have any delegated powers to do the things prohibited by those amendments in the first place.
There is a difference between a categorical rule and a conditional one as far as negative implications go. A sign on a door that says "Do not enter" cannot be interpreted as saying you can enter. A sign on a door that says "Do not enter on Tuesdays," on the other hand, implies that you can enter on other days.
Yes! A wonderful example of "the exception proves the rule."
Ok. But to complete the analogy, there is another sign in the establishment that says "Do not enter any doors ever, except as expressly permitted by signage, otherwise all doors are for employees only"
I know. But it says "migration or importation."
That seems like a usual lawyer's way of writing a rule.
You can't ban the slave trade before 1808. Also, don't think that you can get cute by passing what is nominally an immigration law but acts as a back door ban on the slave trade prior to 1808.
I'm not sure what that provision has to do with modern immigration.
Because most people would view "migration" as necessarily being voluntary on the part of the person migrating. Therefore while "importation" is most certainly a reference to the slave trade, "migration" can not be about the slave trade.
See Article V -- which forbade amending the Constitution to create a federal power to regulate immmigration before 1808 - - and Amendment 10 which says that powers not delegated to the federal government are reserved to the states or the people.
The Constitution includes no federal power to regulate immigration. A constitutional amendment would be required to put such a power in there.
That provision is about the slave trade.
This is always interesting. The power to regulate immigration would be reserved to the states then, correct? And the states can refuse entry across their borders, regulate who may settle and reside there, who may be a citizen of that state, etc?
The language of Article I, Section 9 strongly implies that, and the 10th Amendment and actual practice from ratification through the early 1880s confirm it.
An activist Supreme Court miracled a federal power to regulate immigration out of thin air in 1875 (Chy Lung v. Freeman), but Congress seems not to have trusted that ruling, basing the first federal immigration regulation (the Chinese Exclusion Act) on treaty provisions instead.
It wasn't until the 1890s that the feds started taking over immigration "processing" from the states (with e.g. Ellis Island), and it moved fairly slowly after that -- it wasn't until 1947 that a passport was required to enter the US, and then not at the Mexican and Canadian borders until after 9/11.
What is the reference to Marbury about?
I found an interesting reference to an early federal regulation of immigration.* To cite the Wikipedia page:
The Steerage Act of 1819, also called the Manifest of Immigrants Act, was an Act passed by the United States federal government on March 2, 1819, effective January 1, 1820. Its full name is An Act regulating passenger ships and vessels. It was the first law in the United States regulating the conditions of transportation used by people arriving and departing by sea.
Art. 1, sec. 9, cl. 1 by the way is limited to "any of the States now existing." New states that entered the Union after the ratification of the Constitution (e.g., Texas) would not be covered by that.
Also, the provision doesn't block all "regulation." It limits prohibition before 1808. The clause, e.g., specifically allows for a tax or duty on "such importation" (curiously not "such migration") not exceeding $10 per person.
==
* The Interbellum Constitution: Union, Commerce, and Slavery in the Age of Federalisms by Alison LaCroix. The author notes there were various possible grounds for the legislation including the implication of that section.
"What is the reference to Marbury about?"
Laws repugnant to the Constitution -- which would include all federal immigration laws -- are void.
The Migration and Importation Clause in the original constitution says that Congress can regulate immigration starting in 1808. Since it’s after 1808, Congress has that authority. It’s at the start of Article I, Section 9:
“The Migration or Importation of such Persons as any of the States now existing shall think proper to admit, shall not be prohibited by the Congress prior to the Year one tuousand eight hundred and eight.”
Importation refers to slaves, who come against their will and are imported like goods. But migration refers to people who come voluntarily. “Immigration” just means migration in.
"The Migration and Importation Clause in the original constitution says that Congress can regulate immigration starting in 1808."
No, it doesn't. It says that Congress CAN'T regulate immigration BEFORE 1808. There's a difference. And the Article V language forbidding amendment of the Constitution in contradiction to Article I, Section 9 establishes that after 1808 a constitutional amendment would be required to create any new powers not elsewhere enumerated.
"...we are left not only with a paucity of evidence supporting Lash's concept of allegiance but questions about Lash's reliability as narrator."
LOL! I too find the anti-birthright crowd has a tendency to conveniently fail to find the plethora of easily accessible historical evidence contrary to their viewpoint.
“It is difficult to get a man to understand something, when his salary depends on his not understanding it.”
— Upton Sinclair
You just succinctly defined Originalism as a whole.
88 pages? Interesting number...
It also happens to be the decimal value of the letter "X" in ASCII or UTF-8.
Seems to be cropping up a lot among these folks.
Is someone making fun of "I've got 99 problems", but loves the piano?
Interesting side comments here on numerology. Learning every day.
On the main topic, legislative clarification on jurisdiction is preferable to an EO--especially due to long-standing practice--but once again Congress has left a vacuum for others to fill. Especially when numbers indicate a crisis. Outside the coastal urban bubble mass evasion of jurisdiction certainly appears relevant to some degree on the question of what was intended with respect to enforcement of sovereign borders and immigration policy.
Why do you say 88 pages? The full document is 92 pages. Even if you remove the abstract and ToC it's 89 pages.
He wants to imply that only a Nazi would want to preserve a national identity.
…based on race.
Although Lash called it a "completed article," he revised it *today* after Bernick's post to add another page and revise and drop false claims that Bernick called out without acknowledgment. This is on Lash, not Bernick.
Then it was 91 pages? It's one thing to say 88 pages of body and another to write "posted 8 pages ... now we have 80 more pages." Lash's argument is stupid but tying it to 88 is disingenuous.
I misspoke. He added additional pages. It was 88 pages when Bernick wrote and posted this.
He needs to expand it to 99 pages. Makes for a better title to say "99 problems"
What cannot survive is giving citizenship to the babies of illegal aliens who are in the USA for 5 minutes. Scotus is going to say that birthright citizenship can be limited. Bernick's post has no argument for how those limits will work. It is just a polemic against Lash, and mostly about ancient, obscure, non-precedential opinions that no one cares about.
.
It is nice to see someone on this side of the argument at least making a gesture toward admitting that the word "jurisdiction" here had special meaning that included "allegiance."
Unfortunately, Bernick immediately turns to redefining "allegiance" down to nothing. A back and forth might be:
"Jurisdiction just means subject to US laws, so obviously universal birthright citizenship is correct."
"But jurisdiction did not mean that, as used here, it means a full and complete jurisdiction, not owing allegiance to anyone else..."
"Ok fine, it involves allegiance. But allegiance just means subject to US laws."
Bernick's position is plainly contradicted by the ratification debates. The ratification debates indicate that Indians who maintained tribal relations had allegiance to quasi-sovereign entities, and for that reason would not be citizens at birth, regardless of the location of their birth. So an Indian with tribal relations who was born in the U.S. outside of their territories would not be a citizen. Indians physically within the territories, for their part, were explicitly likened to Mexicans in Mexico. That a foreign person with allegiance to a fully sovereign entity would not be a citizen at birth was barely discussed because it was so well understood, that's why the edge cases of Indians took up most of the discussion. There is also a sideshow with Cowan arguing for explicitly racial/ethnic distinctions, and his comments were roundly dismissed as irrelevant because there already were no such distinctions in the law and the clause's adoption would have no effect whatsoever on the things Cowan was complaining about (e.g. certain classes of foreigners having citizenship).
The various extraneous evidence covered here (such as some 1848 commentary) is interesting, and I would like to analyze that more closely some time. But it seems hard for any of that to overcome the words of the framers of this clause. I have read and commented on Ramsey's paper before. A lot of this academic commentary resides more in the realm of the theoretical, and playing games with logic to see who can make the neatest little bright line that disposes of everything cleanly, rather than grappling with the fact that original meaning wouldn't foresee and dispose of all future issues.
Your entire basis for this claim is misunderstanding the facts of U.S. v. Elm, mistakenly thinking he was born outside a reservation.
No. I'm speaking solely about the ratification debates here, taking that discussion by itself, it is clearly explained that Indians who maintain tribal relations are not "within the jurisdiction" because they owe allegiance to a qausi-foreign sovereign.
Note, that's not Indians who happen to be physically present within their territories at a given moment (who by contrast are likened to Mexicans physically in Mexico) - it's Indians who maintain tribal relations.
This is supported by the language in Elm, though. As I recall in that case the tribe had disbanded and did not maintain tribal relations.
If you maintain "tribal relations" can you be brought into US (federal or state) courts for any action you commit anywhere in the US (including on reservations which are part of the USA)? The answer is "yes" for almost all aliens (save the diplomatic staff).
Right, which is why "subject to jurisdiction" did not merely mean subject to US laws, as Indians were not subject to jurisdiction even though they were subject to US laws. But also the answer to your question is different today than it was back then. And Indians were made citizens by statute as well as subject to more laws by statute.
What is the answer to my question (in 1868)?
Depends on the particular action, the location where it was committed, the particular tribe, what treaties there are with that tribe, and what legislative choices have been made with respect to those things.
Here's a quote from the ratification debate. Trumbull:
"Can you sue a Navajoe Indian in court? Are they in any sense subject to the complete jurisdiction of the United States? By no means. We make treaties with them, and therefore they are not subject to our jurisdiction. If they were, we would not make treaties with them. . . . Is it not understood that if we want to make arrangements with the Indians to whom he refers we do it by means of a treaty? . .
Does the Government of the United States pretend to take jurisdiction of murders and robberies and other crimes committed by one Indian upon another? .. ."
Johnson slightly disagrees with Trumbull, saying we do regulate Indians in some instances and places, such as a murder in some cases. Trumbull says yes, but only by special provision and legislative choice, and "we propose to make citizens of those brought under our jurisdiction in that way. Nobody objects to that, I reckon." Johnson explains he has no objections to their being citizens, but his point is that the U.S. and initially England basically took over this land and they're not apparently under an obligation to recognize Indian sovereignty, the very fact that the U.S. could choose to bring them within its jurisdiction shows that maybe, there is some ambiguity at least, that they are already within such jurisdiction, and therefore Doolittle's amendment could perhaps be adopted for clarity if there's no harm in doing so. There's a lot more discussion and Fessenden at one point clarifies that all this discussion about Indians not being subject to criminal laws only applies to acts committed by one Indian upon another "within the territory." Outside the territory they would of course be subject to US laws. But still not "within the jurisdiction" because of their allegiance and subjectship to a quasi-foreign sovereign.
Of course Doolittle's amendment did not pass. They all generally agreed on the aim but were disagreeing about what language would best accomplish it.
A salient point here for our purposes is that Congress chooses, to a significant extent, who is brought within the jurisdiction of the United States.
The answer is not always yes. And, that's why Indians are not subject to the jurisdiction while other aliens are.
The answer is always yes, while they were on US soil outside of their sovereign territories, they were subject to US laws just like any other foreigner who leaves their sovereign and visits the US.
The answer is always no, while they are in their sovereign territory of a tribe they belong to, they were not subject to US laws just as any other foreigner when they are in their own country (e.g. Mexicans in Mexico as Trumbull likened them to).
Do you agree that based on these debates, Congress and the U.S. has latitude to choose who is "subject to jurisdiction" ?
By the time of the case, yes. But not when he was born.
Is this a reference to Elk v. Wilkins?
No, US v Elm is a more obscure 1877 district court case David and I have discussed before.
thanks
I agree that there is more nuance to this than those who dismiss the EO out of hand. The phrase "subject to the jurisdiction thereof" carries some weight and I believe that there is merit to the argument that one born here to parents who don't submit themselves to the legal authority of the United States could plausibly fall outside of that class.
If "subject to the jurisdiction" simply meant that we would assert our authority de jure or de facto in the courts, then an argument could have been made that all Indians were "subject to the jurisdiction" at the time of the Fourteenth Amendment which was clearly not the case.
What aliens don't submit themselves to US legal authority?
Could you bring an Indian into US court for what they did while on a reservation?
Isn't whether they "submit" an irrelevant point? The operative language is that they may be subject to the jurisdiction.
I'm not sure if we punished crimes committed on the reservation. I know Lincoln hung 38 Sioux Indians for various atrocities. One could argue that we considered them subject to our jurisdiction.
Also, if an Indian woman was off the reservation for some reason and gave birth, was her child a U.S. Citizen?
I think all of these at least should inform our understanding about how we look at this.
I agree "submit" is irrelevant. But, you said, "I believe that there is merit to the argument that one born here to parents who don't submit" are not citizens at birth. That sure sounded like you think "submit" is relevant.
I'm not sure whether Indians born off the reservation were citizens at birth. I'm also not sure if they could be hauled into US courts for their conduct while on the reservation. And yes, answers to these questions would be helpful.
Just to clear up, I realize that I said "submit" but my point was that seems to be a poor choice of words.
The Native tribe issue, especially before the later expansion of federal power over internal matters, was something of a special category. See, e.g., FN 187 of Michael Ramsey's article.
If you read the ratification debates, the key is whether they are foreigners with a foreign allegiance, or not. That would exclude those here temporarily for example, or by extension in the modern context those here illegally. The clause was meant to mean the same thing as the 1866 Civil Rights Act which said "all persons born in the United States and not subject to any foreign power, excluding Indians not taxed, are hereby declared to be citizens of the United States."
So you would take the position that a woman from the UK, here legally on a tourist visa who gives birth, that such woman's child would not be a US Citizen? Is she and her child not "subject to the jurisdiction" of our courts and laws, at least while here?
She is subject to our laws while here but not "subject to jurisdiction" in the "full and complete" sense as the framers put it, because she is a citizen or subject of a foreign state.
The discussion begins at the middle of page 12 of this PDF which is page number 2890.
https://www.congress.gov/congressional-globe/congress-39-session-1-part-4.pdf
That is not, and was literally never, the law of the United States, at any point in the history of the United States.
So your position is that "subject to the jurisdiction" is a term of art that had a particular meaning to the drafters and does not literally mean amenable either de facto or de jure to be hailed into courts in the United States?
And that is because literally everyone in the world who murders an American citizen has committed a federal crime and is thus punishable in our courts, but that doesn't make the whole world U.S. Citizens. El Chapo is not a U.S. citizen even though he was punished in our courts.
Am I on the right path?
*eta, not "citizens" but subject to the jurisdiction for 14A purposes.
Yes, full jurisdiction includes for example things like being subject to the draft and jury duty, generally, "the same jurisdiction in extent and quality as applies to every citizen of the United States now" as Howard put it.
That is an interesting read. It seems that there was some debate over whether Indians were excluded and the proposal to specifically exclude them was defeated as unnecessary as one senator believed that they owed their allegiance to some other government. The second senator noted that Indians were in all different stages of "wildness" but that line of inquiry was ignored.
One senator complained that Chinese, Mongolians, and gypsies should not be included and the other senator stated that while he was unfamiliar with gypsies, that Chinese and other races were industrious peoples and that if they were here and born here we should share citizenship with them. That seems to have won out.
The portion you quote---that the amendment doesn't apply to aliens or those owing partial allegiance to another government seems to have gone unchallenged.
I think you probably have the better of the argument. The problem is that if we look at these debates, it is pretty clear that Brown v. Board was wrongly decided as well. I don't know how much our law has given credence to these debates.
Yes, good summary. One nitpick, on the part about Chinese etc, the key response to Cowan was that his comments were irrelevant, as Conness said at the beginning. Regardless of whether the Chinese were industrious or any merits of the matter, the issue wasn't really presented by this citizenship clause because they were already citizens and there was already no racial distinctions regarding citizenship.
FYI for those following. Looks like Lash's paper was updated on this very same day, some time before 11:15AM. Seems some of the issues mentioned by OP are addressed.
https://x.com/kurtlash1/status/1906727146095026658
This is an interesting wrinkle (I read GM's book on Jacksonian jurisprudence & he covers the subject there somewhat):
Magliocca's pathbreaking work on the development of abolitionist support for Tribal sovereignty.
It's an example on the value of learning the history even if originalism itself is a dubious way to do law.
All of this would be way simpler if SCOTUS hadn't made such a mess of dual-citizenship law between 1950-2000 or so. Although to be fair, it was a mess in different ways before then, too. Has been for the entire history of the Republic.
But in a perfect world, Congress would have the power to compel adult persons claiming to be " subject to the jurisdiction thereof" of the United States to make binding renunciations of any and all other loyalties, allegiances, or jurisdictional subject status which might in any way conflict with American Citizenship.
So if you claimed to be BOTH a Citizen of the United States, AND a Citizen of the Soviet Union, Congress would be well within it's rights to enact a law stating that you could be imprisoned until you renounced one or the other, and that if you were caught lying about the renunciation of Soviet Citizenship afterwards, you could be sentenced to lengthy prison terms in an American Prison for that crime.
If we implemented that sort of policy consistently for all forms of dual citizenship, it would make these sorts of questions SO MUCH simpler. They wouldn't disappear completely, but the total size of the problem would shrink a lot.
A statute which required people to renunciate foreign loyalties in order to be considered "subject to the jurisdiction" would not take precedence over a judicial determination that "subject to the jurisdiction" does not require such a renunciation.
Note, that applies even if we assume that dual-citizenship was not permitted.
Other way around.
In a perfect world, a judicial determination would happen first, saying that even if you ARE "subject to the jurisdiction of the USA", that doesn't prevent the USA from using it's jurisdiction over you to throw you into prison until you aren't subject to anyone ELSE's jurisdiction. Because that's what the "Jurisdiction of the USA" is FOR. And if you don't like it, you can just renounce your citizenship and STOP being subject to the jurisdiction of the USA.
Then, after that judicial finding, congress would just pass a law saying in what circumstances it was or wasn't worth the effort of actually making and enforcing those particular threats. For example, Congress might say that TECHNICALLY it can make that threat against any 18-year-old claiming dual citizenship, but in the interest of allowing for attending college before making a major life decision, Congress will only choose to enact laws making that threat against 24-year-olds and up instead.
Or Congress might say that it will only make that threat against persons claiming dual citizenship in foreign countries which don't have a friendship treaty with the USA describing precisely how the conflicting loyalties between those two countries shall be resolved. Or Congress might say that making the threat against 'dual' citizens sounds like too much work, but it will totally make the threat against 'triple' citizens, because you have to draw a line somewhere....
Judicial doctrine first, Congressional Decision second.
None of this has anything to do with birthright citizenship, though.
What Nieporent said. Congress cannot define "subject to the jurisdiction" for the purpose of denying birthright citizenship.
Yeah, but they sometimes have imposed a PRICE to having birthright citizenship, such as forcing you to renounce your parent's home country, or mandating that you couldn't serve in foreign armies, or insisting that you couldn't vote in foreign elections, or a lot of other things.
The last time the USA even tried to enforce a meaningful 'price' of that sort was sometime in the 1980's, and when the test case got to SCOTUS, they basically ordered the government to stop doing that, and SCOTUS more-or-less endorsed at-will dual-citizenship.
Under the circumstances, it's not a surprise that complaints about people who are only 'halfway in' on being American Citizens have grown over the last forty years. Stopping Birthright citizenship is certainly the wrong call, and constitutionally invalid, but in theory, we should be more able to consider taking actions on the other side of the equation, to make attempting to acquire and retain American Citizenship a lot less easy, and a lot less attractive. And to make attempting to claim dual-citizenship status nightmarish.
For example, as recently as the 1960's, there would have been very serious legal arguments that Meghan Markle had renounced her American Citizenship by marrying into the British Royal Family and accepting formal ceremonial duties on behalf of the British Government AS a member of the British Royal Family.
But when she actually DID get married... nobody really brought it up anymore. We just stopped thinking in those terms of forcing people to choose, or of making your own American Citizenship something you actually had to specifically respect.
"Congress would be well within it's rights to enact a law stating that you could be imprisoned until you renounced one or the other, "
The problem with such a thing (and such a renunciation is part of the naturalization process) is that it has exactly zero legal effect on the immigrant's foreign citizenship. There is no way for US law to make such a renunciation effective.
Sure there is. If we find out that you made the renunciation, but that you failed to behave for the rest of your life as if you MEANT the renunciation, we kill you. Or imprison you for life. or revoke your american citizenship.
In january 2025, you swore in front of a federal judge that you would NEVER AGAIN consent to be ruled by the Sultan of Brunei, and renounced all loyalties to him. You acknowledged that the United States considered it to be a bit of overkill to expect them to INVADE Brunei in order to force the Sultan to RECGONIZE that you were no longer your subject, but you promised that YOU would never again do anything that implied that YOU recognized that he was your lawful Sultan.
You promised not to serve in his armies, nor travel on his passports, nor pay his taxes, nor vote in what laughably passed for his 'elections', nor travel with minor children through his territory, nor provide him with sensitive information, nor sell him privileged services, nor say nice things about him in public.
US Law would be well within it's rights to say that until you make such statements before a federal judge, you can't be a naturalized US Citizen. and if you were born as a US Citizen, you are under an implied identical restriction not to do those things either, and if you violate the restriction, you lose your natural-born citizenship.
And if you get caught perjuring yourself before a federal judge about making such a renunciation, you face death, imprisonment, banishment, or treason charges.
There used to be an actual law on the actual books, In theory up until 1970-1980 or so, although it was ALMOST never enforced, which said that the mere act of voting in any foreign election was presumptively a sign that you accepted that you were THEIR voting citizen, and therefore NO LONGER an AMERICAN voting Citizen.
But then SCOTUS overturned that with some impossible standard nobody understands about how it doesn't count unless you 'meant in your heart of hearts' that the act of voting in a foreign country's elections was SUPPOSED to constitute renouncing your american citizenship, which is an impossible standard to ever actually prove in court.
Dual-citizenship law has been messed up ever since. But to be fair, it was pretty messed up before then, too. The Republic never has actually gotten dual-citizenship to make sense, be stable, and have general broad-based agreement behind all the rules. At best we managed to achieve two out of three at any given time, and usually more like one out of three.
Tomoya Kawakita was born in California to Japanese parents. He was in Japan when World War II broke out and stayed in Japan until the war was over. After returning to the United States, he was arrested, charged with and convicted of treason for having abused American prisoners of war. SCOTUS affirmed his conviction in Kawakita v. United States, 343 U.S. 717 (1952).
He was a dual citizen of Japan and the United States. The special verdicts of the jury contained, with respect to each overt act as to which the defendant was found guilty, an affirmative answer to an interrogatory that he was at that time "an American citizen owing allegiance to the United States, as charged in the indictment." Id., at 722.
SCOTUS affirmed the treason conviction, opining that "An American citizen owes allegiance to the United States wherever he may reside." The Court expressly rejected Kawakita's contention that, being a national and a resident of Japan, he owed no allegiance to the United States even though he was an American citizen. Id., at 736.
Of course, the problem is that "voluntary citizenship" doctrines have gone back and forth for the entire history of the republic, and in some decades, it would have made perfect sense for people to have said "Well, if Kawakita didn't want the responsibility of being a US citizen and subject to it's treason laws, he was absolutely free to simply file a form renouncing his citizenship at any time, and we totally would have honored that without further difficulty, as long as he hadn't already started committing treason prior to filing the form"
The modern state of US Law, which permits things like exit taxes upon renouncing citizenship, is really contradictory to the notion of voluntary citizenship which has prevailed for about half the history of the Republic. We kept going back-and-forth on the issue every forty years or so.
During the leadup to the War of 1812, it was a big deal that the US claimed that all US sailors originally born on British Soil prior to the Revolution were NOT British Subjects any more, whereas the British Navy claimed that they totally WERE still British subjects, in ADDITION to being US Citizens. US said that you can just stop being a British subject voluntarily any time you want to, Britain said no you can't, you need permission from the Monarch before you can renounce that status.
It mostly mattered in terms of whether or not the British Navy could impress dual-nationality citizens on the high seas into maritime service.
Then of course, in the 1860 Civil War, we suddenly switched sides on the issue, and said that people COULDN'T just quit the Union at-will without getting permission from Congress first....
Um, that is not at all what we said. Renouncing one's citizenship doesn't make one's house into foreign territory.
We charged people with treason for serving in the Confederate Army, on the grounds that they were still American Citizens, despite many of them having a semi-plausible argument that they had gone through all 'proper' procedures to renounce their citizenship.
That's what ended up with the compromises around amnesty for junior confederate soldiers, and the 14th amendment only disqualifying people from officer who had originally taken actual oaths to the constitution as such, rather than all former/current US Citizens generally.
We also flipped back-and-forth in terms of citizens being allowed to serve in foreign armies....
in WW1, prior to US entry, Congress took the stance that anyone who wanted to volunteer to fight in the British Army in WW1 needed to renounce their american citizenship as part of that process, but they could get it back quickly after the war was over. (or French Army, Russian Army, Italian Army, etc.)
By the time of Vietnam, Congress was JUST FINE with Canadian Citizens serving as enlisted men in the US Army without needing to renounce their Canadian Citizenship....
And then there was the mess of what marriage did to citizenship, and whether or not the rules were different for men and women... At some points in time, the policy was that women automatically inherited their new husband's citizenship, and renounced their prior citizenship, simply by getting married, but never vice-versa.
Key point being, American Citizenship Legal Doctrine has always been a contradictory mess, and was not above 'motivated reasoning' to keep pace with the changing times.
Which is why it's often really difficult to figure out what the 14th amendment actually MEANS, because they imposed a new rule without ever actually clearing stating what the OLD rule was, or which PARTS of the old rule they actually MEANT to change, or to preserve. There were AT LEAST two different competing old rules out there at the time....
Could the sovereign not have some say on who they will give consent?
Someone captured and brought into the US as a slave is in a different category from and someone who snuck in. I could see the former (as a victim of a crime) being given consent without requiring it to be given to the latter (a criminal - even if you do not think what they did was wrong or should be illegal).
Even without it though - what obligation does the USG have towards victims of private crime? If my car is stolen the USG finds the thief and punishes them but has no obligation to redress the damage done to me. Same with a victim of slavery. Or their children. The victim can sue for restitution from their victimizer like anyone else.
Most of the conversations about victims of slavery have to start with the fact that historically slavery was explicitly permitted by law in most cases, and wasn't a 'crime' as such. Therefore, in theory, there aren't such things as 'victims' of slavery, or 'restitution' for slavery, just like how, barring exceptional circumstances, there aren't normally 'victims' of the prison system, or 'victims' of the draft, or 'victims' of taxation.
From Balkinization:
https://balkin.blogspot.com/#1461943157083759367
The lack of first principles in both you and Lash means that people with a more than academic interest will 'pile on' and so they have
27 States File Brief with Supreme Court Backing Trump’s Use of Alien Enemies Act
As to both of you and your silly "indians' debate....
"Perhaps in the spirit of the founding-era maxim Abundans cautela non nocet, one additional example—this one from outside the Constitution’s text—wouldn’t hurt: From founding-era descriptions of Indian tribes as “nations,” some scholars have concluded that European-Americans recognized tribes as sovereigns, and therefore did not apply state law to them. In fact, this particular use of “nation” was a Latinate usage deriving from natio—meaning an ethnic group. Robert G. Natelson,
The Original Understanding of the Indian Commerce Clause, 85 Denv. L. Rev. 201, 259 (2007). Incidentally, Abundans cautela non nocet means “Overflowing caution doesn’t hurt.” It is a canon of construction
explaining that the rule against surplus is not invariably applied.
And speaking of state law
27 States File Brief with Supreme Court Backing Trump’s Use of Alien Enemies Act
A normal non-lawyer person would see the huge tactical error of Roberts...Sitting and sitting and sitting on birthright citizenship but jumping right in about Boasberg....I mean, DO YOUR JOB, MAN