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The Twelfth Amendment and the ERA
New historical evidence on the ERA's invalidity.
As promised, my new paper on the Equal Rights Amendment, "The Twelfth Amendment and the ERA," is now available on SSRN. The paper lays out new historical evidence on prior Article V amendments, to show that Congress can and has placed legally operative language in its proposing resolutions, and not just in the proposed article text. The implication is that the ERA's seven-year time limit is valid—and that the article the ERA proposed to add is not.
Here's the abstract:
Whether the Equal Rights Amendment is—right now—part of the Constitution is a matter of serious dispute. Thirty-eight states have sought to ratify the ERA, several of them only after the seven-year deadline in its proposing resolution. After President Biden's statement disregarding the deadline and describing the ERA as the Twenty-Eighth Amendment, its doubtful validity may provoke a minor constitutional crisis.
But there may be a legal answer. Not only in the resolution proposing the Bill of Rights, but also in those proposing the Twelfth and Seventeenth Amendments, Congress included operative language that modified the legal force of the newly proposed text. This language was deliberately chosen, was repeated by state ratifications, and seems to have been accepted as legally effective. This historical practice suggests that under Article V, the resolution is the amendment—the constitutional change proposed by the resolution as a whole, not just by the particular language it proposes to append.
This understanding means that certain parts of the 1788 Constitution have been repealed, not just superseded. It also means that the ERA's deadline rendered it incapable, even with thirty-eight states' assent, of making any valid change to the Constitution's text. The recent lobbying efforts on its behalf, including President Biden's statements, are therefore seriously misguided. In a divided society, losing consensus on the Constitution's text carries an especially high cost. The National Archives is the wrong place to play with fire.
And from the introduction:
If there's one thing that Americans are entitled to expect from their law professors, to paraphrase Justice Robert Jackson, it's rules of law that let them tell whether the Constitution has been amended, and if so, how. Unfortunately, whether the Equal Rights Amendment is, right now, part of the Constitution is a matter of serious dispute. Thirty-eight states have sought to ratify the ERA, the required number under Article V's three-fourths ratification requirement. Were these ratifications successful, the ERA would have come into effect on January 27, 2022. But three states acted only after the lapse of the ERA's seven-year deadline, which Congress put in its resolution proposing the Amendment fifty years earlier. (Four more states had purported to rescind their ratifications before the deadline expired, and a fifth did so on its expiration. ) Nonetheless, in the waning hours of his term, President Biden endorsed the ERA's validity, announcing his view that it was "the 28th Amendment" and "the law of the land." Similar claims had been made by the majority of Democratic members of Congress, joined by influential scholars and groups such as the American Bar Association. To date the ERA hasn't yet been published as valid by the Archivist of the United States, whose statutory duty it would be; nor is the second Trump Administration likely to recognize it as valid. But in the meantime, or under a future Congress or Administration, the ERA's doubtful validity could provoke a minor constitutional crisis.
This makes the ERA's validity an urgent question for constitutional scholars. If its proposed text really were valid, and the seven-year deadline really were void, then officials, lawyers, and academics alike would all be obliged to proclaim them so. By contrast, if the deadline really were valid, and the proposed text really were void, then declaring the ERA as adopted might be seen as a shocking act of constitutional vandalism, one that threatens to destroy one of the last remaining areas of consensus in American law: our agreement on the Constitution's text.
But the legal answer may be clearer than many recognize. Underappreciated historical evidence suggests that Congress was right to think it could place legally operative language in a proposing resolution, without repeating that language in a proposed article's text. Not only in proposing the Bill of Rights, but also in proposing the Twelfth and Seventeenth Amendments, Congress included operative language in the proposing resolutions that specified which changes were to be made in the Constitution, altering the legal force of the newly added text or repealing contrary language in the then-existing Constitution. Congress's language was deliberately chosen; it was repeated by states in their instruments of ratification; and it seems to have been accepted as legally effective at the time.
In other words, our earliest and longest-held understandings of Article V, on which Congress relied in the eighteenth, nineteenth, and twentieth centuries, treat proposing resolutions as legally operative. Yet despite its importance, this historical practice has gone almost entirely unnoticed by legal scholars.
This practice also suggests a different understanding of the amendment process, one that might seem novel today but that's more consistent with the actual text of Article V. The "Seventeenth Amendment" isn't just the 134 words that follow that heading in a standard copy of the Constitution : it's a particular change worked in the text of the Constitution, a change proposed by Congress in a joint resolution in 1912 and then agreed to by the states in 1913. As a legal matter, the resolution is the amendment. When acting under Article V, Congress isn't limited to proposing pieces of extra language to be tacked on at the end. It can make detailed edits, can delete provisions of the existing Constitution, and can include conditions for its various proposals—say, that they'll add specified language to the Constitution only "when ratified . . . within seven years." Each of these options carries the same legal force as the text of any proposed article, and each is equally immune from future legislative alteration.
This understanding of Congress's Article V powers entails that, while the text of our familiar printed Constitutions is correct, some familiar editorial notes to that text might be in error: some provisions of the Constitution of 1788 have been repealed, and not just "affected" or "superseded," by subsequent amendments. This understanding also entails rather straightforwardly that the ERA has failed to alter the Constitution's text. Whether or not states can rescind ratifications, the original deadline in Congress's resolution means that the article it proposed was never added to the Constitution, and that the only way of adding it is for another amendment to the same effect to be proposed and ratified. In other words, despite having attracted ratifications from thirty-eight different states, the ERA makes and can make no valid change to the Constitution's text, no matter how many states ratified it after the deadline or might choose to ratify in future.
Finally, this view suggests that the declarations by President Biden and members of Congress in favor of the ERA, as well as the recent lobbying efforts on its behalf, have been seriously misguided. In a deeply divided society, in which legal experts already disagree on key questions of constitutional law, losing consensus even as to the content of the Constitution's text could be quite dangerous. While the best legal account of that text may be one thing and popular belief another, any competing account needs to be supported by adequate evidence—and on the arguments presented here, this evidentiary bar is one the ERA simply can't clear. Advocates of the ERA should take note of this evidence and should identify a different path for pursuing their constitutional goals.
As they say, read the whole thing!
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The conservatives would never buy this argument to the extent that it relies on legislative intent, that is, it reads what the legislature intended to approve as part of what it did approve. If the legislature wanted to approve a constitutional amendment that had time frames, it would have included it in the text!, This is akin to the argument that legislative history should inform how to interpret laws.
That is not to say that the time frames the legislature approved were not valid. It is just that the argument that the time frames were part and parcel of the amendment is not persuasive.
No, this is a complete misunderstanding of the argument. It's talking about what the legislature did approve, not what it "intended" to approve. The text of the resolution was approved.
The legislature did not approve constitutional amendment language that included a deadline. It approved a measure that said "we approve a constitutional amendment with this language", anything else is excess drivel. Perhaps that extra stuff would be akin to an act, having passed Congress, but it was not.
What if the Congress had written: "this will become an amendment only if 85% of the states agree to it"? Would 75% of the states agreeing have been enough?
With a law, what if Congress passed: "This will be a law only if the president signs it within 24 hours of passage"? Would this make a presidential signature 36 hours afterwards invalid?
Again, I am not taking a position on whether Congress can or cannot do what they did. I am taking a position that the conservative view (at least as far as not accepting legislative history as an indication of what a law means) does not support the position the author takes.
IANAL and think that's an interesting argument. I probably ought to read the full article ... but IANAL and it's not bedtime yet.
So, I took this as my own little thought experiment.
Presumably most amendments are simple textual amendments, such as the Bill of Rights.
But some, like the one which changed how the President and Vice-President are elected (the twelfth, I bet), actually revised previous parts. In my imagination, I think of them as something like this:
* Strike the 7th through 11th words in Article 10 Section 9 Clause 8 paragraph 7.
* Replace the 14th word in that same paragraph with "marzipan".
Editing instructions, as it were.
Then this article is saying that since those editing instructions are not actually in the amendment, but merely instructions on how to revise it, it is perfectly proper to include other out-of-band instructions, such as "must be ratified within 7 years."
And you are saying that if that were the case, the amendment could add further conditions, such as "85% of the states".
Is that even close?
You are entitled to your opinion. But prior precedent suggests that you are wrong - that what Congress approved was the resolution, and part of the resolution was the text of the ERA, and part of it was the time limit. Likely, it will be litigated, and my bet is that your opinion will be rejected. For the courts, one reason for rejecting it, is that if they don’t reject it, then they would have to address the 5 rescissions. Much easier for the courts to say that Congress said seven years. That’s what they said. And that was what they meant.
The use of legislative history is fundamentally different. Those who object to the use of legislative history object because it doesn't reflect what Congress, as a body, passed. When there is a floor speech from Senator X about what the the law means, that isn't a reliable indicator of what the entire body thought when it passed the law.
Here, the seven-year time limit was in the text of the resolution passed by Congress. It is indisputable that Congress meant to impose the time limit. There's an argument Congress didn't have the constitutional authority to impose that time limit. But there's no argument that Congress didn't really mean it.
That's the thing. The black and white text of the resolution gave a time limit. If the time limit is void, then so is the entire rest of the resolution. This isn't some unintentional result or clear error that the courts can smooth over with common sense. It's the clear and unambiguous word of the law.
Trying to impose it without the time limit means that we are starting from zero. Because that's not what congress passed and not what the states ratified.
So either it failed to pass. Or it's void on it's face. There is no third option.
The actual text enacted by a full vote of congress is not "legislative history." What conservatives have complained about as "legislative history" is things like committee reports or statements in the congressional record. The former have been approved by the committee (and we can take as a legal fiction that they read the reports first), but not by the whole body of congress. The latter haven't been approved by anyone; there's no way to know who, if anyone, agrees with it. (Other, obviously, than the one person who said it or inserted it into the record.)
But that argument depends on ignoring what the actual conservative view is. The time limit wasn’t just part of the background discussion in a way that would make it part of the legislative history: it was contained in a real piece of legislation that was actually passed by congress.
So you didn't bother to read the paper before commenting?
What you're talking about is nothing like what is being addressed. Even if you think it is. Not mentioned in the paper, the time limit for adoption is not unlike the 22nd amendment not applying to Truman, because he was president at the time of its ratification.
That was exactly my argument a few days ago: The resolution is the amendment, because it IS what gets the Article V super majority vote.
There is no separate vote on the time limit. The time limit is one with the textual alterations.
And, yes, to answer Katall, if the amending resolution said, "This amendment only becomes valid if approved of by 85% of the states.", it WOULD take 85% of the states to approve it, because otherwise, if you claimed it was ratified by a mere 3/4ths of the states, congratulations: You just 'ratified' the text saying that it wasn't ratified!
This logic allows adding ratification requirements, but can't subtract them, because the text purporting to subtract them doesn't get ratified, and thus never becomes legally effective.
I don't think the states ratify anything but the language of the amendment that was affirmed.
If the other language "is the amendment", that other language would be recognized in other amendments that were ratified. But it is not recognized as such. Perhaps it should be.
It's got to be the amendment, because there's nothing else being voted on. It's not like Congress votes on a resolution to amend the Constitution, and then, afterwards, holds a vote on the amendment itself. There is only one vote.
Then the National Archives has a faulty constitution on its website.
I don't think so. Suppose Congress wants to force presidents to be more mature and passes a resolution saying, "The constitution is hereby amended to strike 'thirty five' from Article II, Section 1 and replace it with 'forty.'"
And then the appropriate number of states ratify that. What goes in the constitution? Not the words "The constitution is hereby amended to strike 'thirty five' from Article II, Section 1 and replace it with 'forty,'" Rather, the word 'forty' simply replaces the phrase 'thirty five.'"
I'd rather have an amendment saying "The constitution is hereby amended to strike 'thirty five' from Article II, Section 1 and replace it with 'between the age of forty and seventy as of their first day in office for any elected term'"
... but as to construction, I agree 🙂
This is a matter of serious dispute among people who have no role in amending the constitution.
Among people who get paid to write articles proving what is already obvious.
That's true. As demonstrated by the National Archivist's reaction to Biden's announcement.
Certain amendments have a time limit in the text but apparently, this is a bit silly since you can just put it in the resolution & it's the same thing. I think not. I would not negate the actual text of multiple amendments in this fashion.
The Congress could have followed the path 18th, 20th, 21st, 22nd, and the unratified District of Columbia Voting Rights Amendment and put a time limit within the text of the amendment. The text could not be changed by a majority vote.
They did not. They used a separate resolution which is not the same thing. We don't need this dubious approach to explain why the ERA was not ratified, an opinion that is not that controversial though respectable scholars have accepted it.
https://verdict.justia.com/2025/01/22/does-it-matter-whether-the-equal-rights-amendment-is-now-part-of-the-constitution
Congress had the authority (see Coleman v. Miller) to use the resolution (and extend it) to put in place a time limit to establish a timely process and determine if the amendment was still timely. It retains the ability to determine that.
Congress did not extend or revoke the second deadline. The amendment was not ratified.
"Congress did not extend or revoke the second deadline. The amendment was not ratified."
Go back to Gilead with your patriarchal sexist logic. If Biden's proclamation doesn't pass the ERA, then the spells of a thousand woke witches will.
If the seven-year deadline was unconstitutional, can it be severed from the proposed amendment, or would both the deadline and the proposed amendment collapse together?
Any subsequent action would have to be a new constitutional amendment, requiring its own super majority vote and independent ratification. Article V doesn't give Congress any further role in the amending process after the amendment is originated.
Yes, the 1979 extension was invalid...
To think: The ERA was ratified back in 2022, but the President of the United States didn't realize this for another couple years - by which time he was a lame duck, coincidentally trying to claim a last-minute legacy for himself.
I blame his mental decline...took him that long to notice!
When President Biden (or, more precisely, whoever runs his social media accounts) issued that statement, the consensus reaction of the nation was a collective eye roll.
If anyone seriously thought the ERA was now part of the Constitution, there would be public celebrations and parades all over the country. Notably, there are not any.
His statement was simply his opinion without instruction of the archivist. Biden himself knew that it would not immediately result the ERA being made official.
Multiple legal experts (I provided a link above citing a few; others can be found) agree with the position though it is a minority viewpoint. A segment of the population also does.
They all, again, knew the statement was not magic. Some were pleased with the statement but knew it was not time to celebrate with parades etc.
Either you or the person who writes your material should know this.
/snark
I suppose you could say that it was meant to provide a hook for a future administration to attempt to enforce it, but more likely it's just going to go down in history as the ravings of an old man.
Two observations from abroad:
- All constitutional amendments should have a clock on them. The intuition is that a supermajority of Americans, through the democratic process, supports the amendment. If states ratify decades apart, that's not a meaningful measure of support *at any particular time* across the nation.
This is a problem that's come up in the Netherlands as well. Since the Netherlands is not a federal state, this issue of state ratifications doesn't arise. But the rule is that any constitutional amendment has to be adopted by both houses of parliament twice, with an election to the lower house intervening. But it doesn't say that the second vote has to be in the immediate subsequent parliament. So people have tried to pass the second vote years and years after the first one, because in the meantime parliament simply didn't take up the issue. And that too undermines the rationale of the rule; the idea is that the election that intervenes should be fought in part on whether the constitutional amendment should be adopted. So the suggestion has been made that the parliament immediately following should be required to hold that second vote, and vote it up or down, with no opportunity to keep the amendment dormant indefinitely.
- The US constitutional amendment process is also weird because amendments don't say what they're amending. For the Bill of Rights that's fine, because those amendments just add, they don't replace. But particularly from the 12th amendment onwards it gets dicey. Proper legal drafting would have included a clause in those amendments that spells out exactly which bits of the previous constitution are no longer good law. It's frankly a miracle that no disasters have happened as a result of this poor drafting.
Sure, but that's not a problem with Article V, it's a problem with the drafters.
As I've pointed out here, if you were to take the reasoning of the ERA proponents seriously, you could have a scenario where every two years, a state ratified an amendment, and then everybody who voted for it got kicked out of office in the next election, with their replacements voting to rescind.
And after 76 years, an amendment would be ratified that never had the support of more than one state at any given time, and which had been decisively rejected by the public in every state.
The honest approach here would be to re-originate the ERA, but they can't do that, because the public support for it isn't there anymore. The ERA's opponents won the debate back in the 70's, and everything that has subsequently happened as a result of the Court trying to moot that refusal to ratify by 'reinterpreting' the 14th amendment has only strengthened their position.
I agree.
Some amendments have a time limit in them.
Others do not & it nearly never was an issue since the amendment was either ratified or the effort petered out.
The Supreme Court a long time ago assumed the ratification process is implicitly a short-term thing for basically the reasons you say. But, it said Congress has the authority to determine when that time runs out when the amendment doesn't clearly say.
The exact nature of the enterprise is vague and the courts aren't the best to set exact standards. For the sake of argument, I think a time limit inside the amendment is a reasonable idea. In this case, so much time has run, that it is unreasonable for Congress to determine it is still a ripe amendment. But, the Supreme Court did technically in Coleman v. Miller left it to Congress.
As to your last point, the 21st Amendment clearly says an earlier amendment was repealed. As for others, I'm not sure where the confusion necessarily arises.
As to the Bill of Rights, I'm not sure why the problem does not necessarily also arise. For instance, the Second Amendment adds a gloss on federal power over the militia. James Madison wanted to insert the amendments inside the constitutional text for clarity.