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Wisconsin Supreme Court Rules Sidewalks are not "Pedestrian Ways"—thus Allowing Local Governments to Use Eminent Domain to Take Property to Build Them
The close 4-3 decision might well become a staple of textbooks.
Courts sometimes adopt highly counterintuitive interpretations of words. In 2022, a California court notoriously ruled that bees qualify as fish. Today, in Sojenhomer v. Village of Egg Harbor, the Supreme Court of Wisconsin ruled that a sidewalk is not a "pedestrian way." They thereby enabled local governments to use eminent domain to condemn property to build sidewalks, despite a state law forbidding the use of eminent domain to take property for "pedestrian way[s]." The close 4-3 decision might become a staple of law school textbooks.
It may seem obvious that a sidewalk is, in fact, a pedestrian way. Indeed, as the court notes, the relevant statute defines a "pedestrian way" as "a walk designated for the use of pedestrian travel." That seems to pretty obviously include sidewalks! You don't have to be a property scholar like me to see that.
But the majority opinion by Justice Rebecca Frank Dallet emphasizes that "[t]he ordinary meaning of a statute is dictated by more than the literal meaning of a single phrase, read in isolation." She argues that the statute uses "pedestrian way" and "sidewalk" in ways that indicate the two are supposed to be separate and distinct concepts:
Reading the text of this section as a whole, we find several indications that the definition of pedestrian way does not include sidewalks. For starters, both § 346.02(8)(a) and (b) use the terms "sidewalk" and "pedestrian way" in ways that signify that each term has a separate, non-overlapping meaning….
Section 346.02(8)(b) states that pedestrian ways shall be treated "as if" they were sidewalks for utility installation and assessment purposes. The phrase "as if" signals that one category (pedestrian ways) should receive the same treatment as a different category (sidewalks)….
The language of § 346.02(8)(a) also suggests that sidewalks are not pedestrian ways. That paragraph makes the rules of the road pertaining to sidewalks also applicable to pedestrian ways. But if sidewalks are pedestrian ways, then the rules of the road applicable to sidewalks would already apply to pedestrian ways. The point here, to be clear, is not that reading the term "pedestrian way" to include sidewalks would
result in surplusage….
These arguments are clever. But I don't think they overcome the definition of "pedestrian ways" spelled out in the text of the statute: "a walk designated for the use of pedestrian travel." When the legislature specifically defines a term, that definition trumps any indirect contextual inferences that judges can extract from other passages in the law.
Sometimes, a term might have a specialized technical meaning in a statute that is different from its ordinary language meaning. But that isn't the case here. The legislature specifically defined the term in a way that precludes interpreting it as a convoluted "term of art."
In addition, the seeming anomalies identified by the majority are effectively dealt with in Chief Justice Annette Kingsland Ziegler:
The plain language of the statute demonstrates that the term "pedestrian way" is broadly defined, and includes sidewalks. A sidewalk — that portion of the highway created for the travel of persons on foot — is clearly a subset of pedestrian ways —walks set apart or assigned for the use of pedestrian travel. It is a straightforward, common sense interpretation of the statutory language that a "walk designated for the use of pedestrian travel" necessarily includes that part of the highway "constructed for the use of pedestrians…"
[I]n other words, a closer look at the plain meaning of the statutes reveals that all sidewalks are pedestrian ways, but that not all pedestrian ways are sidewalks….
I acknowledge that Wis. Stat. § 346.02(8) employs both the term "sidewalk" and the term "pedestrian way" in two separate sentences, in close proximity. And under some
circumstances, these things might suggest that the terms have wholly distinct meanings. But a logical answer exists to this assumption: A sidewalk is always a pedestrian way, but the term "pedestrian way" is broader than solely being a sidewalk….
Once you recognize that "all sidewalks are pedestrian ways, but that not all pedestrian ways are sidewalks," then there is no mystery created by statutory language that, for example, says pedestrian ways must be treated "as if" they are sidewalks. The meaning of that section is that the rules applying to sidewalks also apply to pedestrian ways, even those that are not sidewalks. And, as the Chief Justice points out, that latter category includes a lot of things, such as "a skywalk or a walking path in a public park not adjacent to the highway."
I would add that the eminent domain context is also notable here. In Wisconsin, as in many other states, statutes granting the power of eminent domain must be "strictly construed" against the government. As a previous Wisconsin Supreme Court decision put it, courts must "strictly construe the condemnor's power . . . while liberally construing provisions favoring the landowner." If the government is going to use the "despotic power" of eminent domain, property owners should at least be given clear indication about the purposes for which their land might be taken.
The majority refused to apply this rule here, because it claimed that the relevant statutes are "not ambiguous" and clearly indicate the government can use eminent domain to condemn property to build sidewalks. That assertion is obviously wrong. It takes hyperconvoluted legal reasoning to reach the conclusion that a sidewalk is somehow not a "pedestrian way": the kind of legalistic mumbo-jumbo that leads people to hate lawyers!
Counterintuitive technical legal reasoning has its place. But Wisconsin Supreme Court was wrong to deploy it here.
While the decision reaches a dubious result, it could be a useful teaching tool for law professors. To get around the obvious import of the text, the majority deploys a variety of complex arguments, not all of which I have covered here. And the dissent has good answers to them. The case can help students see various ways in which judges can use context to get around a seemingly clear textual meaning. But I think the majority opinion is ultimately an example of what not to do.
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Follow the money – – – – – – – –
The Wisconsin Supreme Court is nominally nonpartisan, but this was a party-line vote with the liberal justices in the majority.
The question before the court is whether a sidewalk is a pedestrian way. The law says, “A pedestrian way means a walk designated for the use of pedestrian travel.” Is a sidewalk a walk? Yes, it’s right there in the name. Is it designated for the use of pedestrian travel? Yes. “Constructed for use of pedestrians” is right there in the definition of “sidewalk”. This shouldn’t be hard.
The circuit court had this argument:
>First, that sidewalks are defined by Wis. Stat. § 340.01(58) as part of the roadway, and municipalities indisputably may condemn property to expand roads.
This falls flat. The same statute that prohibits condemnation to build a pedestrian way prohibits condemnation to build a bicycle lane. And bicycle lanes are also defined in 340.01 as part of the roadway.
>And second, that reading “pedestrian way” to include sidewalks would result in surplusage
Given that the Wisconsin Supreme Court just ruled that a term defined as “a walk designated for the use of pedestrian travel” does not include sidewalks, is is it any wonder that the legislature resorts to surplusage? What else are they supposed to do?
The Wisconsin Supreme Court is nominally nonpartisan
As far as I can tell that describes most US courts. Which is why the US only ranks 26th in the world on rule of law: https://worldjusticeproject.org/rule-of-law-index/global
Nobody cares.
They have the CCP controlled Hong Kong rated higher.
CNN was crowing about the Wisconsin Supreme Court flipping a few months ago, in some abortion context, if I recall correctly. Because killing babies, stealing private property, and blessing sexual deviances are their holy grails.
This, I am sure, is somehow NOT courts writing laws themselves.
“liberal ”
Left wing is better. Nothing liberal about them.
A sidewalk is a portion of a highway; eminent domain can be used to expand a highway.
What about my bicycle lane argument? Bicycle lanes are also part of the highway, but the statute explicitly says you can’t use eminent domain to build one.
Are bicycle lanes defined as part of the roadway, similar to how sidewalks are explicitly defined?
Most bike lanes that I see are segregated from the road used by cars, either by bumps or by a full curb. Rarely I see them segregated by paint only, but I do see it. I could see a state defining a bike lane as not a road.
Yes. ““Bicycle lane” means that portion of a roadway set aside by the governing body of any city, town, village, or county for the exclusive use of bicycles, electric scooters, electric personal assistive mobility devices, or other modes of travel where permitted under s. 349.23 (2) (a), and so designated by appropriate signs and pavement markings. “
With this being the case, the majority ruling seems to me to be at odds with both the written text and intent of the law as written.
Bubba Jones and Comment Monkey below make the case as to why it is so closely decided, even if I would pick the dissenting side.
You obviously don’t live here. In most of our towns all the did was to take away a vehicular lane, paint a bike symbol on it, and leave it at that. Now all traffic is crowded into one less lane beside mostly unused “bike lanes”. In places with a left hand turn lane, they actually sandwich bokes in between two lanes of cars.
“In places with a left hand turn lane, they actually sandwich bokes in between two lanes of cars.”
I take it from this that you are in the UK. In the US, the bike lane would be adjacent to a right hand turn lane, not a left hand turn lane.
I will also note that in most areas of the US with bike lanes, the bike lane is significantly narrower than a motor traffic lane.
More likely just a thinko, left vs right. Especially with the picture he posted.
With buffer zone area in between so roughly the same size when you take the buffer zone and bike lane..
Here is an example:
https://i.imgur.com/vP3GcX4.jpg
I have not dug into this, but it looks like what they are calling a “sidewalk” is what most of us call the “shoulder.”
To most people (I think), a sidewalk is outside, not inside, the curb lines.
Actually, I read this wrong. The statute says the sidewalk is outside the curb lines.
This seems like the common sense reading.
A sidewalk is a function of the roadway, enhancing the safety of the roadway by segregating foot traffic from automobile traffic.
A “pedestrian way” is an independent route of non-vehicular travel. It’s easy to imagine why the legislature would ban eminent domain to create novel pathways, without intending to … curb the expansion or improvement of roadways.
I tend to agree. Also, construing “sidewalks” as a subset of pedestrian ways would mean that any road constructed through ED could not have a sidewalk. That seems counter-intuitive.
Precisely. And imagine building a new vehicular bridge in an urban area, which almost certainly would involve the use of eminent domain. The contrary reading of “sidewalk” as a “pedestrian way” would mean the bridge cannot permit pedestrian traffic.
Not all highways have sidewalks. A sidewalk on a highway is “optional” (and a pedestrian path)
Are there any lawyers left who still wonder why the public holds them in such contempt?
Rule of law my ass.
Exactly: This sort of sophistry is why the legal profession is hated.
Sidewalks aren’t the same as pedestrian ways, they’re a subset of pedestrian ways; All sidewalks are pedestrian ways, but only pedestrian ways adjoining a road are “sidewalks”.
Has it ever occurred to you that legislatures are actually pretty bad at their job and it takes the courts and legal profession to fix it?
Expand on this interesting notion.
Bad how ? Fix how ?
Has it occurred to you that the primary reason legislatures are so bad is because their membership is primarily and overwhelmingly lawyers? The fact that lawyers get paid twice (first to mess things up, then to fix them) doesn’t make them aby better. It’s all rent-seeking bullshit.
“lawyers get paid twice (first to mess things up, then to fix them) ”
Its good to be the king!
Bingo. Sidewalks are a subset of pedestrian ways.
Reminds me of a local road project I didn’t want constructed. It ran through a village where I lived, featuring houses built mostly during the long interval 1640—1920. It was an unusual place—a working seaside village steeped in history, which had escaped almost entirely any sign of gentrification. It was more shabby than otherwise, which is what enabled me to afford to buy there.
The political idea was to get state or federal funding to widen the main road through the village, and add sidewalks.
I thought the existing narrower road was more in keeping with the village’s antique character. So I foolishly got up at a public hearing to say so. Turned out every neighbor along that road—or at least everyone who came to the hearing—was eager to give up property and collect the eminent domain money. They had already been approached and signed on. They did not welcome me showing up to throw sand in the gears. I became the skunk at the garden party.
Somin is mistaken to assume eminent domain is uniformly regarded as a, “despotic power.” My neighbors thought it was a cool way to get money while giving up no more than a bit of front-yard space that was already almost too narrow for a flour bed. They may even have liked the idea of having sidewalks instead.
Heck, I’d give up 5 feet of my front yard to have a sidewalk. I grew up in Michigan, I never saw a residential area that didn’t have sidewalks until I moved here to SC.
Having to share the street with cars any time you want to go for a stroll? Hell, yes, I like sidewalks!
Would you feel the same way if local law required you to pay for it through a special assessment? Would you feel the same way if local law required you to shovel it and it snowed ~100″ a year?
I don’t want a sidewalk in my yard for that exact reason. Traffic is not heavy on my road, I’m happy sharing it (and p.s., the right of way extends beyond the paved road for 5′, so just walk on the grass if you want).
And the reason you haven’t installed a sidewalk on your property is…..?
What’s the point of a sidewalk in front of a single house?
Without eminent domain you’d still be able to voluntarily sell your property. The despotic part is that they can force it if you *don’t* like it.
But the market for that kind of sale if pretty constrained if you don’t know the other property owners are interested in selling too.
So ask them.
“no more than a bit of front-yard space that was already almost too narrow for a flour bed.”
Why would anyone want a bed of ground wheat in their yard?
I have many questions here. Let’s start at the beginning: What did pedestrians ever do to the state of Wisconsin? Why are they so nefarious that the public needs to be protected against the use of eminent domain powers to create “pedestrian ways”? Is there some secretive pedestrian lobby in Wisconsin that I’m not aware of?
You want to lose the corner of your yard just because the local kids cut across it instead of walking around it? That’s the issue.
How is that different from losing a corner of my yard because people park on it? In both cases you’d probably have a pretty good case under normal eminent domain law, and in both cases you can put up a fence and prevent the problem before it arises.
If people park on my yard, I get the towing company to tow them away. Then they stop.
If kids cross my yard, they’re gone before I catch them.
Because “pedestrian ways” are sometimes trendy and they take up a lot of space. I don’t have an opinion on the relative merits of this specific plan.
https://www.ecwrpc.org/programs/transportation/bicycle-and-pedestrian-planning/
Also, why does prof. Somin think this is at all helpful?
The whole problem arises exactly because the statutory definition doesn’t settle the matter, as it inevitably cannot 100% of the time.
It’s almost always possible to find ambiguity if one reads law in bad faith, and it looks like the majority did so in this case.
It’s almost as if it’s better not to have politicians pretending to be judges even though they have to run for re-election, so that maybe you end up with judges who won’t read statutes in bad faith, or are perceived to have done so.
The issue at hand is improvement to the roadway which includes “sidewalks”. ‘Pedestrian Ways’ are separately defined and are not generally the same as a ‘sidewalk’, Sidewalks are part of the roadway, designed for more than pedestrians to include some sort of drainage with the ‘sidewalk’ raised providing a barrier to water and a slight barrier to vehicles of the roadway.
Thus, I conclude, in this instance, the Wis. S.C. is correct.
Remember, the pedestrian came first followed by other means of travel and conveyance. Pedestrians have the right of way except where explicitly prohibited.
Are you saying that a sidewalk is not “a walk designated for the use of pedestrian travel”? Which part do you think it doesn’t fit? Are you saying a sidewalk is not a “walk” (which is undefined and thus takes its ordinary meaning)? Or are you saying that it’s not “designated for the use of pedestrian travel”?
Back around the 1970s the Supreme Judicial Court of Massachusetts ruled that a constitutional requirement that gas taxes be spent on roads did not prevent gax taxes from being spent on bike paths.
What’s the problem with that? Bike paths (I’m assuming we’re talking paved bike paths) plainly seem to be roads to me.
What’s wrong with it is that the constitutional requirement was adopted specifically to prevent taxes on using cars from being diverted to uses that didn’t aid people driving cars.
You know, like bike paths?
So we’re not a textualist today?
Bicycles are prohibited by Wisconsin Vehicle Code on sidewalks IIRC. Will Pedestrian Ways also be prohibited to Electric Personal Mobility Assist Devices, the flag under which E-bike motor vehicles sail?
“Bicycles are prohibited by Wisconsin Vehicle Code on sidewalks IIRC.”
IIRC (and I was born, raised, and currently live in Wisconsin), this is mostly, but not entirely, true.
My understanding is that adults and teens are prohibited from riding bicycles on sidewalks, but it is legal for younger children to ride bicycles on sidewalks.
Bicycles are presumptively prohibited on sidewalks but localities can make it legal. 346.94(1) says: “…the operator of a vehicle may not drive upon any sidewalk area… unless permitted to do so by the local authorities.”
346.94(18)(a)(1) says: “Except as otherwise prohibited in this chapter, a person may operate an electric personal assistive mobility device upon any roadway or sidewalk that is under the jurisdiction of the department.”
And of course we’ve seen that “All of the applicable provisions of this chapter pertaining to highways, streets, alleys, roadways and sidewalks also apply to pedestrian ways.”
Huh. That last one is actually kind of weird. Streets and alleys are mutually exclusive types of highway; roadways and sidewalks are mutually exclusive portions of highways. You’re going to get lots of things which are allowed in one context and not in another, and they all get mashed together, governed only by what the court decides is an “applicable” provision. You could get arrested for not walking on the left half of the pedestrian way if it’s considered a highway but not if it’s considered a sidewalk.
So, what are the lessons to be learned? Could the legislature have written a better definition that would have foreclosed this kind of legal wordplay? Or is the legal mind just too clever to ever be outmaneuvered by mere mortal politicians? Is there some way to install the legal equivalent of a dead man’s switch, such that any “creative” interpretations have such bad consequences that people don’t even attempt them?
They could have written a definition that would have forclosed this wordplay, sure. The problem is that you never know what word they’re going to nitpick. You can’t define everything.
What is the color black? If you shine enough light on a black surface it will look white.
The legal mind is too clever by half. That is why the public will get angrier and less respectful of the so-called “laws.”
Sure, or you could stop overreacting and predict that the state legislature will pass another law to overrule this decision, if they’re sufficiently unhappy about it.
Passing a new law will be the ideal solution. As for overreacting, maybe I am; maybe I am not.
“what are the lessons to be learned?”
Don’t elect Democrat to courts
But why did the lefty judges care so much, to torture the text so embarrassingly to achieve a victory for the eminent domained …..sidewalk ?
As Thomas More said –
“it profits a man nothing to give his soul for the whole world…….but for Wales ?”
Robert Bolt had him say that, I think.
“why did the lefty judges care so much”
Because union labor will build the sidewalk?
Don’t elect courts full stop. It’s a contradiction in terms. Something is either a court, or it is elected, but it can’t be both. Of course you can give a political body the power to veto certain laws, or to do other things that are normally done by courts, but that doesn’t make it a court. (Which is why, for example, the French Constitutional Council is intentionally not referred to as a court. It’s full of politicians.)
Beginning (!) to see many decisions concerning property ownership as “grab and go” measures. Just take the land and come up with a rationale later.
Completely agree the decision goes against plain language. Strict construction in favor of the landowner is icing on the cake but ought to remove any remaining doubt.
Agree with the dissent that a sidewalk is a pedestrian way that’s part of or adjacent to a highway for vehicles. All sidewalks are pedestrian ways, but not all pedestrian ways are sidewalks.
I thought so too until I read the opinion. It includes an important piece of information that Somin leaves out. There is a statutory definition of sidewalk in the Wisconsin Code: “that portion of a highway between the curb lines, or the lateral lines of a roadway, and the adjacent property lines, constructed for use of pedestrians.” 340.01(58). What that definition makes clear is that for purposes of Wisconsin law, a sidewalk is actually a “portion” of a highway. (Highway is defined as any public road.)
The definition of “pedestrian way” was added to the code later, and in a couple places it states that pedestrian ways should be treated like sidewalks. In that context, it seems to me the legislature was talking about two different things. If a sidewalk was merely one kind of a pedestrian way, (1) it would not be defined as a portion of a highway, and (2) there would be no need to specify that pedestrian ways should be treated for some purposes as if they were sidewalks.
The OP omits the best argument in the majority opinion, making it sound like the majority is engaged in wordplay. But I think the statutory law cited in the opinion makes clear that sidewalks are treated as part of the vehicular road they run along and pedestrian ways are independent paths not connected to roads. One is not a subset of the other.
In the dissent’s view, which I agree with, they are also two different things. Sidewalks are pedestrian ways which are invorporated into highways. Pedestrian ways which are not incorporated into highways are not sidewalks.
In biology (not necessarily in law), all humans are animals, but not all animals are human. Humans and animals are indeed two different things, yet anything that is true of all animals must be true of humans. Same with sidewalks and pedestrian ways under Wisconsin’s rules.
Except that “sidewalks” came first.
When “pedestrian way” was added to the code, it was clear that this meant something different.
One could argue that “pedestrian way” is a subset of sidewalk, but not vice versa.
There is no reason why a term added later could not be broader than the initial term. Or that they could not be overlapping sets even if one is not wholly contained within the other.
I agree with you it is possible a later-enacted category could be broader than, and subsume, an earlier-enacted category. But it is unusual for that to be the case without any explicit language so providing. And here, the earlier definition (sidewalk) is referred to in describing the legal characteristics of the later one (pedestrian way). The statute essentially says, pedestrian ways are to be treated as though they were sidewalks in such-and-such circumstances. That is an odd formulation if a sidewalk is merely one type of pedestrian way.
Why is that an odd formulation ?
If the pre-existing statute already defines sidewalks, and has a definition of a sidewalk, and has rules pertaining to sidewalks; then adding a definition of pedestrian ways and then saying that rules X and Z which pertain to sidewalks also apply to pedestrian walks as if they were sidewalks is entirely logical.
You then avoid the need to rewrite rules X and Z for pedestrian ways.
Old Monkey Law
1. You may not torture a monkey to death
2. You may not feed a monkey donuts
3. You may not bite a monkey unless it bites you first
4. a “monkey” for the purposes of this set of rules, is any hairy arboreal mammal with grasping fingers and toes, and a prehensile tail
New Amendment
5. Rules 1 and 3 of the Old Monkey Law apply to primates
6. a “primate” for the purposes of this set of rules, is any primate except a human
The difference is that when they added the definition of pedestrian way, a sidewalk was already defined to be a “portion” of a highway. If the legislature intended to change that, and define a sidewalk not as a portion of a highway but instead as a subset of the “pedestrian way” category, one would expect it to have said so, rather than just saying “this new pedestrian way category will be treated like sidewalks (for some purposes).”
Here’s an illustration of why I think this matters. Before the pedestrian way language was added, if there was a plan to build a highway 50 feet wide, and 10 feet of that would be sidewalks, there would be no question that the government could use eminent domain to take the space for the whole highway, sidewalks included.
According to the dissent, after the pedestrian way language was added, 40 feet of the land could be taken by eminent domain and the rest (the ten feet devoted to sidewalks) could not. That would be fine if the legislature said it was changing the legal status of sidewalks by incorporating into the definition of pedestrian way. But I agree with the majority that the definition of “sidewalk” as a portion of a highway cannot change merely by implication based on the definition of another term that never even uses the term “sidewalk.”
That said, I do love the monkey hypothetical.
>the definition of “sidewalk” as a portion of a highway cannot change merely by implication based on the definition of another term that never even uses the term “sidewalk.”
True but irrelevant. Nobody is saying the definition of “sidewalk” has changed – and whether it did change or not doesn’t matter.
In the law you have assault and battery. Two distinct yet related concepts. If I get a court order saying I can’t assault someone, I can’t do a battery to them and then say “See, battery is this separate concept defined elsewhere, so I didn’t assault them.” It doesn’t matter how battery is defined; assault is assault whether or not it’s also a battery. If the law says “provisions of this chapter applying to batteries shall also apply to assaults” that still doesn’t mean a battery is not an assault. Just like how a pedestrian way is “a walk designated for the use of pedestrian travel” regardless of whether it’s also a “sidewalk”.
The difference is that when they added the definition of pedestrian way, a sidewalk was already defined to be a “portion” of a highway. If the legislature intended to change that, and define a sidewalk not as a portion of a highway but instead as a subset of the “pedestrian way” category, one would expect it to have said so, rather than just saying “this new pedestrian way category will be treated like sidewalks (for some purposes).”
But whether a sidewalk is part of a highway or not is irrelevant to the question at hand. Which is that the statute prohibits the use of eminent domain to establish or extend a “pedestrian way” as defined. And the definition is : “A pedestrian way means a walk designated for the use of pedestrian travel.” This defintion of “pedestrian way” plainly includes a sidewalk, which is quintessentially “a walk designated for the use of pedestrian travel.”
The highway gambit is a red herring. There’s no mention of highways, either in the definition of pedestrian ways or the prohibition of the use eminent deomain to provide them. Whether any particular kind of pedestrian way is, or is deemed by law, to be part of a highway, or part of a parking lot, or part of an airport is simply irrelevant. Nor is there any conflict between a sidewalk being – statutorily – a pedestrian way AND part of a highway. It may be both. So what ?
What the majority is doing is the oldest trick in the book, used by judges who don’t like the legal text. They pretend that :
“You may not eat fish on Tuesdays”
“in context” excludes cod, and that consequently the litigant who says that cod is included in “fish” must seek some textual justification elsewhere.
The legislature must have known, they claim, that people like to eat cod, just as much on Tuesdays as on any other day. If they had really meant to ban the eating of cod on Tuesdays they would have said so explicitly. Shirley. They could have writtten :
“You may not eat fish on Tuesdays. And we definitely include cod in that.”
But that obviously runs smack into expressio unius est exclusio alterius. The way you make it clear that cod is included is to just leave it at fish. The way to exclude cod is to add, “except cod” in the statute.
The majority reverses the ordinary – and only sane – approach to statutory interpretation which is to interpret the words that are there, rather than the words that aren’t there. There’s no text excluding fish that happen to be cod, just as there’s no text excluding pedestrian ways that happen to be sidewalks. Or pedestrian ways that happen to be part of a highway.
The only thing the majority got right is that the statute is not ambiguous at all. It unambiguously means the opposite of what they decided.
That would be fine if the legislature said it was changing the legal status of sidewalks by incorporating into the definition of pedestrian way.
But how could a sidewalk possibly fall outside the statutory defintion “A pedestrian way means a walk designated for the use of pedestrian travel” ?
The majority sinply does not like the answer. The legislature could easily have written :
“A pedestrian way means a walk, other than a sidewalk, designated for the use of pedestrian travel”
Maybe they screwed up and would have written that if they’d thought sidewalks should be excluded from the new category. If so the straightforward solution is for the court to say “this is what your amended law does – it excludes sidewalks from eminent domain. If you don’t like that result, you know how to fix it.”
It is not the court’s job to fix it themselves.
Or rather – it’s the court’s job not to fix it themselves.
After the new language was added, it became illegal to use eminent domain to widen an existing public right of way solely to add sidewalks to the road. It did not become illegal to use eminent domain for a new road that would include sidewalks.
States inherited sodomy as a common law crime. They started dividing into simple and aggravated or forcible sodomy in the 19th century. They added broader sexual assault laws in the 20th.
Does it follow that, because sexual assault laws were added later, that aggravated sodomy can’t be a lesser included offense of sexual assault? Many courts have held that it is.
This strikes me as an apples to oranges comparison. Not my area, but I understood the concept of a lesser included offense to mean a less serious crime that has some but not all elements of a more serious crime. Trespassing is a lesser included offense of burglary. But trespassing clearly is not a type of burglary. If I understand your argument here, it is that a sidewalk is a type of pedestrian way. Maybe you’re right, but I don’t see how the concept of lesser included offenses strengthens your argument.
Precisely. If I may say, yr explanation gets to the root of the question.
My reading (in light of yr explanation): the categories “pedestrian way” and “side walk” fall within the statutory definition of “a walk designated for pedestrian travel”. The legislature, in stipulating that certain “pedestrian ways” should be treated “as if” they were “side walks”, evinced an intention that, while both categories fall within the statutory definition, a sub-set of the former category ought be subject also to the definition (& consequential liability to resumption) which conditions the later category, by supervening force of the State Code.
I don’t think any point of enforceable legal relevance arises from the fact that the statutory term “pedestrian way” is, in point of the history of the statute’s amendments, chronologically posterior to “side walk”. The statute as in force speaks now as it must be assumed always to have spoken.
…
Why not? The sidewalk is a pedestrian way with additional characteristics, and treating other pedestrian ways as sidewalks for some purposes was a word-economic way of extending those characteristics for those purposes.
I think the article is deliberately obtuse
The simple meaning is likely that a sidewalk is a part of a road, while a pedestrian way is a thing unto itself.
A footpath through a park is not a sidewalk as there is no street to be on the ‘side’ of
But it is likely a pedestrian way
Similarly an urban street which does not allow vehicular traffic is not a sidewalk, but is a pedestrian way
IT would make sense that the gov’t could take land for a sidewalk, which is a common occurrence, but not create a ‘pedestrian way’ which might be a new path through someone’s property rather than adjacent to the street as commonly understood
The job of a court interpreting a statute is not to decide what ought to be done based on their own ideas of what makes sense, but to faithfully follow the legislature’s instructions and existing rules of statutory instruction.
I think interpreting a sidewalk as a pedestrian way that’s adjacent to a highway best does both.
Perhaps the legislature ought to permit eminent domain to construct sidewalks but not other kinds of pedestrian ways. Completely agree it would make sense to do that. But a court’s job is to determine what the legislature did, not what they think it should do.
This is why people dislike and distrust the judiciary and the legal profession.
The reasons that Americans loathe lawyers are legion, and more often include personal experience than federal court rulings.
“If all the lawyers were hanged tomorrow, and their bones were sold to a mah jong factory, we’d all be freer and safer, and our taxes would be reduced by almost a half.” — H. L. Mencken
“For these be no childish actions, nor matters wherein you are to deal by cunning of devices, to seek evasions, as the customs of lawyers.” — Queen Elizabeth I, Letter to ship’s captain, 1589
I don’t think the majority’s opinion is crazy (before reading the dissent, I thought it was acceptable that it was a term of art because, to rule otherwise, would suggest there were redundant words in the statute). However, the dissent is certainly more persuasive.
“Wisconsin Supreme Court Rules Sidewalks are not “Pedestrian Ways””
If there is not a “pedestrian way” beside a Wisconsin roadway but there is a “sidewalk”, can the “sidewalk” be used by pedestrians, or do pedestrians have to wait until the goverment builds a “pedestrian way” beside the “sidewalk”?
And if a Wisconsin roadway has a “bikelane”, a “pedestrian way” and a “sidewalk”, who or what uses the “sidewalk”?
Are Wisconsin roadcrews aware of the legal distinction between a “pedestrian way” and a “sidewalk”?
Batshit nonsense from Volokh; no surprise there. One reading – that sidewalks are a kind of pedestrian way – results in the obvious absurdity where it is fine to use eminent domain to take property to build a road, but not a sidewalk, so if they want to build sidewalks, they have to put them down the middle of the road (on the existing roadway), and build a new lane on the land seized; then, having done that, the road can be rebuilt in the normal way, with the sidewalk at the side.
Well, I guess that’s one creative way around the expressed intention of the legislature, but that doesn’t disprove that it was indeed the intention.