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Agreement That Children "Shall Be Raised in the Orthodox Jewish Tradition" Is Unenforceable
In Connecticut Superior Court Judge Eddie Rodriguez's opinion in Breiner v. Breiner (handed down Sept. 15 but just posted on Westlaw), the dispute was about whether plaintiff mother had breached an agreed-to provision in a 2017 parenting plan, "The parties agree the children shall be raised in the Orthodox Jewish tradition, and shall support those values with the children." Defendant father argued,
Mother has put the children in an untenable position where the development of their Jewish identity has been seriously compromised, undermining father's efforts to maintain an Orthodox Jewish home that is observant of the Orthodox Jewish tradition, and mother's conduct has resulted in a substantial change in circumstances that supports reconsideration of the amount of time mother enjoys with parental access to the children.
For example, mother has invited a non-Jewish male companion to live with her in the family home since March, 2020. Upon information and belief, the couple are in a dating relationship and he shares the parties' former marital bedroom with the plaintiff. Under any Orthodox tenet, this choice is the antithesis of supporting traditional Orthodox [Jewish] values. Further, mother is not observant of the Jewish holidays in Orthodox tradition and does not follow or support the traditions (and Jewish law) associated with the values in which the children were raised during the marriage."
Mother argued that "she has continued to raise the minor children in the Orthodox Jewish tradition, but that the defendant's attitude has been rigid and fails to recognize that the children [age 15 and 13] have established their own religious identities. Furthermore, the defendant is imposing his level of religious observance upon the plaintiff and the children, causing great anxiety and strain for the children. Lastly, the plaintiff argues that the defendant seeks to control both the plaintiff and the minor children, alleging that the defendant has undermined their religious observance to their great distress."
The court concluded that the Establishment Clause and the Free Exercise Clause precluded the enforcement of such a provision:
[A]ny interpretation, application, and enforcement of this [rather vague] provision would foster an excessive government entanglement with religion, as the Court's own conduct would run far afoul of the government neutrality required under the constitution. Moreover, the judiciary is not empowered with the authority to supervise a child's religious upbringing, which would naturally be required in order to enforce such a provision….
[E]nforcement would [also] violate the free exercise clause…. "A court oversteps constitutional limitations when it purports to compel a parent to adopt a particular religious lifestyle. To the contrary, [i]t is beyond dispute that, at a minimum, the Constitution guarantees that government may not coerce anyone to support or participate in religion or its exercise …. A religious upbringing provision should not, and cannot be enforced to the extent that it violates a parent's legitimate due process right to express oneself and live freely." … In the present case, even if the Court were to uphold the provision under the establishment clause, it would inherently require that this Court mandate the plaintiff to provide a specific religious upbringing, which in turn, would force the plaintiff to abide by a specific lifestyle commensurate with the religious traditions at issue.
And that was true despite the fact that the provision was part of a parenting plan that the parties had earlier agreed to, and thus essentially a contract:
Although the Court has already determined that enforcement of the provision would violate the first amendment to the United States constitution, and Connecticut's own constitution, the Court will address the merits of the defendant's [contract] argument.
The defendant argues that the plaintiff was well aware of the defendant's expectations and views of what constitutes Jewish Orthodoxy. In support of this argument, the defendant claims that he "ceded his goal of more expansive parenting time for what he believed was a genuine and binding commitment that the Plaintiff/Mother would honor the agreement to raise the children in the 'Orthodox Jewish tradition,' a term which she well-understood in context of Defendant/Father's longstanding practices," and which constitutes the defendant's "consideration" in this bargain. The defendant further argues that the plaintiff's agreement to the provision, and her subsequent breach of the provision, constitutes fraud in the inducement.
"To form a valid and binding contract in Connecticut, there must be a mutual understanding of the terms that are definite and certain between the parties…. To constitute an offer and acceptance sufficient to create an enforceable contract, each must be found to have been based on an identical understanding by the parties…. So long as any essential matters are left open for further consideration, the contract is not complete." …
[T]he evidence demonstrates that both parties possessed their own personal interpretations of "Orthodox Jewish tradition" at the time that the agreement was reached, and that each party carries their respective interpretation to this day. At no time was the parties' mutual understanding of the terms definite, certain or identical. There was never a "meeting of the minds" between the parties as to what they intended "Orthodox Jewish tradition" to be, and the provision cannot be considered a valid and binding one.
Moreover, the provision is unenforceable for the reason that it violates public policy…. [T]he United States and Connecticut constitutions provide historically strong legislation protecting the individual's right to freedom of religion, and prevents the government from either advancing or inhibiting religion….
My sense is that some courts would be open to enforcement of some specific provisions governing the religious upbringing of children, but not ones that are as general and imprecise as "shall be raised in the Orthodox Jewish tradition."
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<<My sense is that some courts would be open to enforcement of some specific provisions governing the religious upbringing of children, but not ones that are as general and imprecise as "shall be raised in the Orthodox Jewish tradition."
Meaning that they'd be okay with prohibiting her from raising them as Buddhists and declaring it so, but as long as she claims what she's teaching them is Judaism, no matter how absurd, the courts won't get involved? Doesn't that lead to practically the same result? Such a parent will always be able to claim that her practices are nominally whatever religion she is stating they are.
"Such a parent will always be able to claim that her practices are nominally whatever religion she is stating they are."
Isn't that THE definition of religion?
IT IS THE WAY I SAY IT IS . . . BECAUSE GOD TOLD ME SO.
No.
"Orthodox Judaism" is a clearly defined religion, much like "Catholic" is a clearly defined religion -- both have a clearly established leadership hierarchy who define what does and does not constitute practice of the religion, and a process to determine if specific practices are or are not permissible within the religion.
Perhaps the case was presented wrong, but let's take the "living in sin" (or whatever Judaism calls it) -- I'm guessing any duly appointed Orthodox Rabbi would say that is impermissible and the court should then have decided if (a) the Rabbi was duly designated as an arbitrator by the religion, and (b) if his allegations were factually correct and stopped there.
Because the establishment clause and the religious freedom restoration act mandates that courts defer to religion here, particularly when there is a contractual argument binding each party to that.
The First Amd violation is the court NOT doing this.
"[T]he evidence demonstrates that both parties possessed their own personal interpretations of "Orthodox Jewish tradition" at the time that the agreement was reached . . . . "
The evidence suggests you're a fool who believes 'clearly defined religion' actually exists.
The thing that amazed me (as a Protestant) is the extent to which the Catholic church defines exactly what they believe. If you know someone who knows how to find it -- it's like going through the CFR -- they have very precise definitions of everything.
Granted, a lot of American Catholics aren't really Catholics with their own attitudes toward birth control, abortion, and church attendance, but what a true "Catholic" is can be defined.
"Granted, a lot of American Catholics aren’t really Catholics . . . . "
We have CINOs now?
and....
" . . . but what a true 'Catholic' is can be defined by the person themselves."
FTFY
Not by the person himself/herself/itself.
That was my point -- in a defined, hierarchical religion, it is the leader who does that.
So . . . whoever is first to say THIS IS THE WAY is the leader?!?
Sounds iffy - and kinda made up.
Did you consult with GOD about this?
Because we have hundreds (thousands?) of religious leaders all saying something different.
Is there any topic on which Dr. Ed can't be confidently wrong about? I guess some trucker from Maine told him this about Judaism.
You often wind up needing to learn a lot of things fairly quickly at 2 AM when you are a "janitor." And in a university, you usually can find someone who knows someone who can explain them to you.
Although part of this came up in a grad seminar.
He's half right. There is plenty of disagreement within Orthodox Judaism about a lot of things, but there is universal agreement about a lot of things.
If the woman decided to feed her kids bacon for breakfast, no Orthodox Jew would say that's within the bounds of Orthodox Judaism. Even if she said, "I think that's Orthodox Judaism."
It is basic contract law that terms are given their ordinary meaning. If I contract to sell someone a horse, and I deliver a chicken, then no court will take seriously the argument, "but in my view, that two-legged creature with wings, feathers and a beak is a horse."
"Isn’t that THE definition of religion?"
Actually not. The tradition was specified, and while there are variations within that specification, the mom's lifestyle seems clearly outside them.
Many religions base themselves on a claim of divine revelation to an individual, but Judaism (uniquely SFAIK) claims that the entire Jewish nation experienced the divine revelation at Mount Sinai.
That does seem odd, and falling afoul of the government favoring one religion over another.
Religion has little enforcement mechanisms without government, though the Pope did just fire a bishop. But good luck dragging a divorcee into religious court for dissolution of a marriage in the eyes of the state but not in the eyes of religion.
Shame, that. Times change.
At least two Kennedys (Ted & Joe II) received annulments from the Catholic church, which also has the power of excommunication. In theory it could excommunicate Joe Biden for both his support of abortion and Jill Biden for bigamy and not recognize her divorcing her first husband.
In the 1950s, it well might have -- but politically it can't do that today.
I think what he means (or at least what I think is correct) is that the terms would have to be enforceable without the need for the court to engage in any religious interpretation. For example, a condition that each parent will ensure the child attends a service at such-and-such a church at least once per week while in such parent's custody, might be enforceable. Measuring compliance would generally be a matter of objective fact. But asking a judge to determine whether a particular set of circumstances is consistent with "Orthodox Jewish tradition" is asking the judge to interpret religious law and teaching. That's a First Amendment problem.
I see. I think you're right. Thanks.
What about in my example? Let's say she promises to raise the children as Orthodox Jews, and then, on a trip to Thailand, decides to become a Buddhist, and raise her children as Buddhists. Will the court enforce the original agreement in any way?
My guess (semi-educated, at best) is that the court still would not enforce it. Once the court has determined the agreement is unenforceable because it requires the state to decide or interpret religious doctrine, I think that is the end of it.
That may seem like a bad result: whatever Orthodox Jewish tradition is, it ain't Buddhism, and one doesn't need to be a scholar of either religion to know that. So why not just decide that narrow issue? I think the reason is it then becomes a lot harder to draw clear lines. It is better for judges to stay out of religious doctrine altogether than to dabble.
While many areas of Establishment Clause jurisprudence are an awful mess of multi-part balancing tests and fact-based ad hoc judgments, courts seem to be pretty careful about staying out of doctrinal disputes. So I think even in your hypothetical, the court would find the agreement unenforceable and thus not reach the question whether the conversion to Buddhism is a breach.
i'll accept your priviso.
The response that an Orthodox Jewish judge could have given to the father is, you should not be going to a non-Jewish court and publicising your dispute, that the goyim may see. This is contrary to minhag (custom).
The response this Goyim would give to the Orthodox Jewish judge is that this is a Goyim country, accept that or get the hell out.
It's the same issue as shariah law -- and while much of Goyim Law is based on general principles of Jewish law, shariah law is a rabbit's hole that we do not want to go down.
As much as I will defend the religious traditions of others (see above), I will not tolerate their religious law superseding American law. Goyim Law is the law of this land, and if you don't like that, leave.
"Goyim" is plural, among other critiques.
Last I checked, "courts" was as well.
Which has what to do with what? Goyim is a plural noun that formally means nations but connotes non-Jewish people. You used it multiple times incorrectly. ("The response this goyim would give…" and "this is a goyim country…" and "Goyim law.")
And the rest of what you said is just antisemitic, anti-Muslim, and anti-American.
It is like the Latin word campus, the plural of which should be campi, not campuses.
It's also derogatory, not unlike ******.
As to Sharia law, I don't want it in this country.
"Goy" is not derogatory. It can be used as such, of course. So can "Jew."
Of course, Mr Ed would not know that
Even if Mr. Google says so?
According to Orthodox custom going to secular courts for disputes like this is to be abhorred. Hence by doing so he is undermining his own position as a defender of Jewish orthodoxy. I think an Orthodox judge would be well within his rights to make the observation. But he wouldn't dismiss the case sua sponte regardless of Jewish law.
Private parties can agree to apply religious law to their disputes and/or submit them to religious courts. SCOTUS has upheld that as part of the secular law of contract. It's not a matter of religious law superseding secular law, it's a matter of secular law enforcing a contract, something it has done for over 500 years.
"Goyim Law is the law of this land, and if you don’t like that, leave."
Dr. Ed 2, is that as true as everything else you have said?
Of course under Halacha Jews are supposed to take disputes with other Jews to beis din, but that stricture only applies in a place like the U.S. if the latter agrees to participate. If not, you're allowed to bring a claim in secular court.
This decision strikes me as correct, and is consistent with courts' refusing to wade into religious/doctrinal disputes.
Isn't the normal way to give a provision like this some teeth an agreement to submit any dispute to resolution in front of some mutually-agreed religious tribunal? I thought courts will recognize and enforce those decisions like any other arbitration, at least as long as they are not manifestly contrary to public policy.
That is what I was suggesting without the legal nicety of having the specific tribunal named in the divorce document.
My guess is that *any* Orthodox Rabbi could tell you (or quickly find out for you) exactly which tribunal has jurisdiction, but that (theoretically) any would give you the same thing on specific questions like was it acceptable for a woman to live in sin with her boyfriend?
I do not believe you are correct in your belief that there is a single authoritative source for "orthodoxy" in the Jewish faith. My understanding, admittedly from the outside, is that the structure is considerably more decentralized and contains plenty of room for disagreement even among the supposed authorities.
Generally speaking, a contract could provide for arbitration by a particular religious organization (i.e., not "Jewish arbitration" generally, but "arbitration by the Beth Din of America"). That would solve the problem of secular courts having to determine what "raised in the Orthodox Jewish tradition" means; the religious organization could determine that, and secular courts would then just enforce that decision.
In child custody cases, though, the parties' agreement is not always sufficient, because courts have an independent duty to look out for the best interests of the children. And the judge in this case also thought that such agreements can't be allowed to intrude too much into each spouse's own behavior (again, not all courts would take that view, given people's general right to enter into binding contracts that do restrict their behavior).
In Massachusetts, the (mean) average tenure of a live-in boyfriend is something like 14 months. That's mean, not median or mode, and is skewed by the never-married couples who are married in all but paperwork.
I've never seen it, but could a court, ruling best interest of the child, preclude the mother from having live-in boyfriends?
"I’ve never seen it, but could a court, ruling best interest of the child, preclude the mother from having live-in boyfriends?"
Application of such a prohibition only to the mother might be problematic, but it is commonplace for family courts to include a "paramour provision" prohibiting both parents from overnight presence by persons in a romantic relationship with the divorcing spouse while a minor child is present in the home.
It's Dr. Ed! Of course he isn't! It doesn't matter how you finish that sentence!
(To be sure, "living in sin w/ a non-Jew" is probably not one that would engender a whole lot of disagreement among Orthodox authorities.)
Indeed there are no authoritative sources for orthodoxy. Different orthodox groups will defer to this or that rabbi or group of rabbis. There are some rabbis of times past who all Orthodoz Jews will generally defer to, like Rambam – Maimonides, Rashi, and “Chazal”. (though often enough the Orthodox will conveniently overlook heterodox views of both Rambam and Rashi). But one can have many a pleasant discussion on this.
For example, according to Orthodox Jewish law, you can’t turn off a light on Shabbat*. I pointed out to an Orthodox rabbi in England that the Talmudic rationale for this applied to incandescent lights, but the reasoning did not apply to flourescent lights and hence it would be permitted. He said, “you’re entirely correct, but your argument is useless in practice because no Orthodox Jew will be persuaded by your argument.”
* The commandment not to turn a light on on Shabbat is deduced from the law against work. Making a fire is work, and it was ruled by some Orthodox rabbis that turning on a light is equivalent to making a fire. I don’t agree on the grounds that making a fire is prohibited not inherently but because in biblical days, making a fire was indeed work. However, the commandment not to turn the light off is a purely Talmud-derived commandment, as extinguishing a fire is not derived from the Torah.
Now asking a non-Jew to do something you’re prohibited from doing isn’t permitted when a commandment originates from the Torah- but that prohibition is from the Talmud, not the Torah, and there is a rule that you don’t apply a Talmud prohibition on top of a Talmud prohibition. Hence you can ask a non-Jew to turn a light off. Except that some Orthodox still won’t as they will refrain from doing anything that they think violates the spirit of Shabbat. Like bowling, for example ????
I came across this as a belief that you couldn't open a refrigerator door if that inadvertently turned on a light inside it and hence had to remove the bulb. Now I would have defined the "work" as physically opening the door, not the bulb going on, but it's a free country.
But I'd love to see the distinction between incandescent and florescent because a florescent light is literally going on and off 120 times a second. So technically you are continually restarting the light....
And while Rabbis may disagree, I really doubt that there'd be much disagreement on the live-in-girlfriend. Somehow....
This analysis is wrong. The Torah commandment, as you say, is that one may not perform work on Shabbos. What that encompasses — the 39 categories of melachot — are also Biblical, not from the Talmud. Both starting and extinguishing a fire are included in that.
To be sure, how to apply those requirements to specific cases (e.g., the use of electricity) are subject to various debates and some of them may be rabbinic rather than Torah in origin, although I am pretty sure that virtually all authorities agree that incandescent light bulbs, at least, fall within the heartland of the Torah law against ignition.
Moreover, your claim that "making a fire is prohibited not inherently" is doubly wrong, as there's a separate, explicit prohibition on that: Exodus 35:3.
You’re right. My recollection must be getting feebler with age.
But the point on fluorescents not counting as making a fire given the rationale for why incandescent bulbs were making a fire - to do with the filament - remains.
Yeah, and even more strongly for LED.
The LED is physically stopping the flow of current, that's what a Diode (the "D" in LED) does. Current goes one way and the LED not only lets it through but gives off light, when current reverses, the LED blocks it.
That's more "work" than simply letting the current go in both directions, which is what an incandescent filament does. And yes, it does dim as the current goes to 0 volts 120 times a second, but good luck noticing that without equipment...
I don't understand.
A florescent bulb has TWO filaments, one at each end, and it's the electrons coming off of those and going to the other, alternating with the current, that excites the mercury vapor which, when the current stops, dumps the energy overboard as UV light which the coating on the tube makes into visible light. That's how they work.
So what's the difference???
Correct, but I think most of what's going on here would be contrary to public policy. There are two hypothetical remedies I can see for this guy's complaint: (1) give him custody; or (2) order the woman to comply with various religious doctrine. An arbitrator can't make child custody decisions AFAIK, and a court won't enforce an order that she observe Jewish holidays.
The parties agreed to raise their children in the Orthodox Jewish tradition. The agreement could have stipulated that a designated rabbi or group of rabbis would have conclusive advisory input as to what that means.
It would then be up to the secular court how to enforce it. Basically, give the woman a choice, either live up to your agreement, or relinquish custody of the children.
I don't see why that kind of arrangement would violate any public policy or Constitutional provision. (I do see the point that a secular court interpreting what Orthodox Judaism means likely runs afoul of the Establishment Clause. At least at some point.)
Because contested child custody is never just a matter of contract. BIOTC always governs. The parties' respective positions of course can weigh heavily in that analysis, but are not dispositive.
True, but that does not necessarily mean that enforcement of the kind I outlined would violate public policy.
The children were raised as Orthodox Jews prior to the divorce, and the parties agreed to continue that, until their adulthood.
Mother decides she does not want to live that way. Assuming the father is stable, why does BIOTC not indicate he should have custody? At least that is a possible conclusion -- and not one that is barred by any Constitutional provision.
Deciding that the BIOTC dictate paternal custody is of course possible and permissible. But the court must make that determination independently, not simply enforce an arbitrator's ruling to that effect. And must rely on secular, not religious, factors. Now, I believe that consistency and continuity in the children's religious upbringing are secular factors that the court could consider, but not an assessment of whether she's observant enough.
"I believe that consistency and continuity in the children’s religious upbringing are secular factors that the court could consider, but not an assessment of whether she’s observant enough."
In many cases, including this one, they are related. She is living with a man without marriage, which certainly is far removed from the Orthodox lifestyle they agreed to.
(In years gone by, even in a purely secular case, that a woman was shacking up with a man without marriage would have counted against her in a child custody dispute.)
This was a great exchange with David Nieporent; I followed along.
Have you ever heard of the hypothetical DN posited being written into a divorce mediation agreement (in NJ, as a bonus followup). When DN wrote this, There are two hypothetical remedies I can see for this guy’s complaint: (1) give him custody; or (2) order the woman to comply with various religious doctrine. I wondered if that were even possible to agree to. Is it? We have a large Orthodox population in NJ.
That is one hell of an enforcement mechanism = lose custody; whoa.
I guess the other question I have is....how is this hypothetical different than a muslim marriage agreement where sharia law is specified as the adjudication mechanism...is it?
Let's hope the children overcome these circumstances. They deserve better than their parents have provided.
How come your disdain for religion is limited to Christianity and Judaism, while you excuse the barbaric practices of Moose-lims.
In general I have not perceived that any flavor of organized religion is substantially better than the others. Islam seems every bit as bad as its competitors in the market for gullible followers.
That's true for all children of divorce.
This one went to court, was contentious, and involved ostensible adults brawling over childish superstition. Many divorces are not that profoundly fucked up..
Both Professor Volokh and most commentators are missing the main point. Vagueness here was a side issue. The court held that the provision is void for public policy. In the court’s view, it wouldn’t matter how clearly things were stated. A promise to raise children in or following a specific religion as a condition of a divorce settlement cannot be enforced, period.
But suppose instead of that the agreement specified certain practices:
1. Only kosher food is to be eaten
2. The children will attend synagogue services on a regular weekly basis
3. If the children attend a secular school they will receive religious training in outside classes conducted by a religious teacher or a rabbis.
etc.
Now what? How is that different from specifying that they will continue with piano lessons?
etc.
Define "kosher."
Exactly. From the viewpoint the court took in this case, it would violate both the Establishment Clause and Connecticut public policy for a court to declare that bacon isn’t kosher, a Messianic Judiasm place of worship isn’t a synagogue, nature hikes don’t constitute religious training, ordination by the Universal Life Church doesn’t make one a rabbi, etc. etc. etc.
That certainly seems like what this court would hold. But question whether it's correct. As I pointed out above, contract law generally assumes terms are given their common meaning, not idiosyncratic ones.
The court need not "declare" that bacon is not kosher in any theological sense. Only that when the parties agreed to raise their children in an Orthodox Jewish lifestyle, the common understanding of that term excludes feeding them bacon.
What if, instead of saying the food must be Kosher, saying that it must have the circled "K" on the label?
Maybe that would somewhat limit the places they could get ham sandwiches from.
https://www.circlek.com/store-locator
Assuming the excerpts are in the same order as they appear in the opinion, the court starts with the Establishment Clause analysis, of which the vagueness discussion is a key component. Then it holds the agreement separately unenforceable under the Free Exercise Clause. Only at the very end does the court evaluate the agreement under Connecticut public policy, which analysis is a very close rehash of the Free Exercise Clause discussion. So I don't think the public policy analysis could be said to be the "main point." It comes after the other holdings, introduced by the word "Moreover . . ." The court is throwing it in at the end, perhaps to emphasize that even if its First Amendment analysis is wrong, there is an independent state law ground supporting the decision.
Vagueness can be remedied by lawyers adapting clearer wording. Violating the First Amedment, and public policy, can’t be. That’s the fundamental difference.
The courts - helping unhappy families work out their problems!
Everyone is missing the main issue. Courts always recognize the right to make religious decisions for the child as an issue of what is sometimes called legal custody (as opposed to physical custody). And they have always recognized that consistency in parenting is relevant to the best interests of the child. If one parent, and the child’s school, is routinely teaching the child that something is religiously forbidden and the other parent routinely engages in that behavior it is religiously AND psychologically confusing for the child (depending on age). Perhaps the lawyer blew it but agreements about how a child will be raised religiously, when applicable, are absolutely vital to the child’s well-being. A court may need an expert to testify to the effect one parent’s behavior has on the child but that is routine. Making this a religious issue per se about religious doctrine is simply failing to care for the child’s best interest regarding consistent and stable messaging about right and wrong, which - in religious homes - are inseparable from religion. What a bad decision.
This court not only didn’t recognize that “consistency in parenting is consistent with the best interests of the child,” it held that any agreement to maintain any such consistency on matters of religion is unconstitutional and against public policy.
I understand you are making an argument the judge is wrong. But while your argument addresses the public policy aspect, it doesn’t address the judge’s claim that the state can’t consider the best interests of the child here because the constitution forbids it.
This is an old topic and courts have been dealing with it across the country for years. See for example https://www.aaml.org/wp-content/uploads/religion_and_best_interest-18-1.pdf, although I don’t agree with the author’s own views. The courts have had zero problem with either the establishment clause or freedom of religion when the focus is on the best interests of the child, provided there is sufficient non-religious proof (psychological, etc.) supporting it. Unless the lawyers blew it and went for religious compulsion, this decision is terrible.