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The Original Meaning of the Privileges or Immunities Clause
What Swift v. Tyson has to say to The Slaughter-House Cases
I have posted a new article, with co-conspirator Steve Sachs, and professor Jud Campbell at Stanford, on the original meaning of the Privileges or Immunities Clause of Section One of the Fourteenth Amendment: General Law and the Fourteenth Amendment, forthcoming in the Stanford Law Review.
Our core claim is that the privileges or immunities of citizens were defined by the unwritten general law recognized by Swift v. Tyson and later deprecated by Erie Railroad v. Tompkins.
Here is the abstract:
The Fourteenth Amendment's Section One is central to our constitutional law. Yet its underlying principles remain surprisingly obscure. Its drafting history seems filled with contradictions, and there is no scholarly consensus on what rights it protects, or even on what kind of law defines those rights.
This Article presents a new lens through which to read the Fourteenth Amendment—new to modern lawyers, but not to the Amendment's drafters. That lens is general law, the unwritten law that was taken to be common throughout the nation rather than produced by any particular state. Though later disparaged in the era of Erie Railroad Co. v. Tompkins, general law was legal orthodoxy when the Amendment was written.
To those who created the Fourteenth Amendment, general law supplied the fundamental rights that Section One secured. On this view, while Section One identified the citizens of the United States, it did not confer new rights of citizenship. Instead, it secured preexisting rights—rights already thought to circumscribe state power—by partially shifting their enforcement and protection from state courts and legislatures to federal courts and Congress. This general-law understanding makes more sense of the historical record than existing theories, which consider the Fourteenth Amendment solely in terms of federal or state law. And it has significant implications for modern Fourteenth Amendment doctrine, from state action to civic equality to "incorporation" to "substantive due process."
And from the introduction:
What kind of law defines Fourteenth Amendment rights? The answer seems obvious. Section One of the Amendment confers federal constitutional rights: to "due process," to "equal protection," to the "privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States." So the content of these rights must be defined by federal constitutional law, to be divined and explicated by federal courts. Yet this seemingly obvious answer has serious flaws. The Privileges or Immunities Clause was once the core of Section One, before it was rendered a dead letter in The Slaughter-House Cases. And this Clause is often read to have guaranteed a vast swath of substantive rights, including common-law rights of property and contract—the sort of fundamental rights secured against interstate discrimination under Article IV's Privileges and Immunities Clause, or against racial discrimination in the Civil Rights Act of 1866. But the moderate Republicans who championed the Amendment in the Thirty-Ninth Congress also staunchly opposed anything that might have upended American federalism by nationalizing the common law. So how could the Amendment have turned all of these ordinary rights into federal constitutional law?
Equally perplexing is how the drafters and supporters of the Fourteenth Amendment could have displayed such confidence about its importance while remaining so agnostic about what it actually did. Discussing an early draft in the House, Rep. John Bingham urged that "you must amend the Constitution" to assure "the immunities and privileges of citizens" to "the loyal minority of white citizens and the disenfranchised colored citizens." Yet when introducing the measure in the Senate, Jacob Howard described "the privileges and immunities of citizens" as "a curious question," adding that they "cannot be fully defined," "whatever they may be." How could members of Congress have expressed so much confusion about Section One's likely effect and yet have voted in supermajorities to pass the Amendment anyway? And while Section One dominates the practice of constitutional law today, it received relatively scant attention in the voluminous debate over the Amendment in Congress and in the states, at least as compared to the politically immediate Sections Two and Three. How could such a fundamental measure have skated by with so little controversy?
Something in the "fundamental rights" reading has to give. . .
And from a discussion of the preliminary implications for Lochner:
The main boundaries on legislative regulation, however, came from more general principles, asking whether states had engaged in arbitrary or "partial" legislation. For example, the core evil addressed by the 1866 Civil Rights Act and the Privileges or Immunities Clause was the "Black Codes," which diminished a slew of basic rights for black Americans. These race-based rules did not deny basic rights entirely, and the racist legislatures that enacted them claimed that they were consistent with the public good—acting, as one historian put it, under the "guise" of "advanc[ing] and protect[ing] the best interests of this unfortunate race." In other words, some people defended the Black Codes as permissible "regulations" of basic rights, and some state courts enforced them accordingly.
Yet Republicans found the Black Codes the paradigmatic abridgment of the privileges or immunities of citizens—the product of rank prejudice rather than a regulation in promotion of the public good. And they expected that federal courts would hold them unconstitutional under the Privileges or Immunities Clause, even if the Civil Rights Act were repealed. Given these expectations, federal courts plainly were not expected to defer to state-court judgments upholding the Black Codes. As Senator Lane of Indiana had stated during debates over the Civil Rights Act, "We should not legislate at all if we believed the State courts could or would honestly carry out the provisions of the [Thirteenth Amendment]; but because we believe they will not do that, we give the Federal officers jurisdiction." This paradigm case suggests that federal courts, once given jurisdiction by Congress, must review whether legislation exceeds state authority to regulate civil rights.
That authority has broader implications. Consider, for instance, the recurring debate about regulations of the right to contract or the right to work. When Louisiana's legislature determined that there should be a monopoly on slaughterhouses (advantaging some butchers over others), the Supreme Court upheld the law in the Slaughter-House Cases. Decades later, when New York's legislature determined that there should be various regulations on bakeries (advantaging some bakers over others), the Supreme Court rejected the law in Lochner. Throughout these decades there were many more such regulations, subjected to searching federal judicial review, and now widely condemned under the label of the "Lochner Era." Yet in some sense the analysis in Lochner-era cases was a natural outgrowth of the original obligation to second-guess state legislative determinations in the Black Codes.
To be sure, one can disagree with particular results. Perhaps the regulation in Lochner was actually a reasonable one, as Justice Harlan argued in dissent. But the general dilemma raised by Lochner remains. The more deferential federal courts are toward regulations they believe to be wrong, misguided, or ill-motivated, the more deferential they might also be toward laws (such as the Black Codes) that they were supposed to invalidate. To say that courts should ask whether the law treats similarly those who are similarly situated, as Republicans often did, just restates the problem. There is no shortage of potential answers to this dilemma. Indeed, constitutional theory is full of accounts for why federal courts should recognize the invalidity of statutes like the Black Codes but not statutes like the one in Lochner. Which of these accounts is consistent with the general-law view of the Fourteenth Amendment is a separate inquiry, which we might someday undertake. For now, we simply observe that these theories respond to a real ambiguity, one that cannot easily be avoided by the tempting rhetoric of a Justice Holmes.
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"The answer seems obvious. Section One of the Amendment confers federal constitutional rights: to ... the "privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States."
Well, technically it confers federal constitutional protection to the "privileges [and] immunities of citizens of the United States." by preventing states from "abridg[ing] the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States."
Yes, but the question then becomes who enforces this?
Unless one has six figures -- in cash -- to hand over for a retainer or is a member of a privileged group, one is not going to be able to enforce those rights and rights you can't enforce are actually worse than not having the rights in the first place because of dashed expectations.
THAT is the point I was trying to raise above with Prof. Carpenter's debate -- the lack of an equal number of "God Hates Fags" law students means that, over time, only the rights of one side will matter.
And a question: The Black Codes clearly violated the letter of the 14th Amendment, but the question I have is how many lawyers were willing to challenge them? Yes, the Scottsboro Boys were represented, but that was an abomination. But prior to the NAACP, and the unifying experience of an albeit segregated military in WWII, how many lawyers were there challenging these Black Codes?
And legal representation was more affordable in the 19th Century than today -- the stated goal of the ABA was to reduce the number of lawyers so as to increase lawyer income, hence making representation less affordable.
The amendment cannot confer rights to citizens of the United States, as they already possess those rights. It can outlaw the derogation of citizens rights by a state, which was already unconstitutional at the time. The amendment was an "in your face" to the CSA, demanding that the states explicitly repudiate slavery and other derogation of the rights of former slaves and their descendants as a condition of regaining their seats in the House and Senate.
The bigger question is who interprets these preexisting rights and who decides whether a particular regulation is or is not justified?
And what standard of proof is to be used by judges in second-guessing the decisions of legislators? If the people who ratified the amendment were, in modern terminology, originalist-Thayerians, and current judges use originalism, but without Thayerian deference, are our judges really being faithful to the amendment?
What the Federalist Society fails to realize is that cases that aren't filed can't be decided -- YES it matters who the judges are, but without lawyers willing to argue the case, the judge can't decide it.
Hence as to the question of "who interprets these preexisting rights and who decides whether a particular regulation is or is not justified" -- it is the bar. It is the collective action of individual lawyers who either decide to take a case or not.
A MD is required to treat *any* patient unless and until *another* MD is willing to do so, and this has been expanded into even if the patient can't or doesn't pay. (See Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act....) By contrast, a JD is *not* required to do so.
And hence rights exist only if a bunch of lawyers think they do.
The bigger question is how the federal government acquired powers not granted to it in the Constitution (nor by the specious post-Civil War amendments) to interfere in private transactions among individuals, rather than regulating the behavior of states - which is the absolute limit of Constitutional power as drafted, except within the confined of the federal district, at the customs house and borders, and on the properties sold by the states to the federal government for enumerated needful installations.
Preexisting in relation to when or what?
It's a riddle wrapped in a mystery inside an enigma wrapped in a tortilla with queso all over it and served at a place with a hot sauce bar and salsa bar…it’s burrito. I shouldn’t have taken that last bong rip. 😉
The Framers didn't want to touch state law. They only wanted to be clear as to states not violating federal rights. By which they surely meant prohibiting slavery (the recently passed 13A). Any federal rights beyond that, they had only vague ideas and probably didn't think the question was important.
That’s not how the debate in Congress went, though. They were not clear as to the outer limits of P&I, but they were clear about what absolutely WAS within those limits. Senator Howard’s speech introducing the amendment, which I think should be the starting point on this question:
“It would be a curious question to solve what are the privileges and immunities of citizens of each of the States in the several States. I do not propose to go at any length into that question at this time. It would be a somewhat barren discussion. But it is certain the clause was inserted in the Constitution for some good purpose. It has in view some results beneficial to the citizens of the several States, or it would not be found there; yet I am not aware that the Supreme Court have ever undertaken to define either the nature or extent of the privileges and immunities thus guaranteed. . . . But we may gather some intimation of what probably will be the opinion of the judiciary by returning to a case adjudged many years ago in one of the circuit courts of the United States by Judge Bushrod Washington of the Supreme Court; and I will trouble the Senate but for a moment by reading what the very learned and excellent judge says about these privileges and immunities of the citizens of each State in the several States. It is the case of Corfield v. Coryell.
Judge Washington says: “The next question is, whether this act infringes that section of the constitution which declares that ‘the citizens of each state shall be entitled to all the privileges and immunities of citizens in the several states?’ The inquiry is, what are the privileges and immunities of citizens in the several states? We feel no hesitation in confining these expressions to those privileges and immunities which are, in their nature, fundamental; which belong, of right, to the citizens of all free governments; and which have, at all times, been enjoyed by the citizens of the several states which compose this Union, from the time of their becoming free, independent, and sovereign. What these fundamental principles are, it would perhaps be more tedious than difficult to enumerate. They may, however, be all comprehended under the following general heads: Protection by the government; the enjoyment of life and liberty, with the right to acquire and possess property of every kind, and to pursue and obtain happiness and safety; subject nevertheless to such restraints as the government may justly prescribe for the general good of the whole. The right of a citizen of one state to pass through, or to reside in any other state, for purposes of trade, agriculture, professional pursuits, or otherwise; to claim the benefit of the writ of habeas corpus; to institute and maintain actions of any kind in the courts of the state; to take, hold and dispose of property, either real or personal; and an exemption from higher taxes or impositions than are paid by the other citizens of the state; may be mentioned as some of the particular privileges and immunities of citizens, which are clearly embraced by the general description of privileges deemed to be fundamental: to which may be added, the elective franchise, as regulated and established by the laws or constitution of the state in which it is to be exercised. These, and many others which might be mentioned, are, strictly speaking, privileges and immunities, and the enjoyment of them by the citizens of each state, in every other state, was manifestly calculated (to use the expressions of the preamble of the corresponding provision in the old articles of confederation) ‘the better to secure and perpetuate mutual friendship and intercourse among the people of the different states of the Union.’”
Such is the character of the privileges and immunities spoken of in the section of the fourth article of the Constitution. To these privileges and immunities, whatever they may be—for they are not and cannot be fully defined in their entire extent and precise nature—to these should be added the personal rights guaranteed and secured by the first eight amendments of the Constitution; such as the freedom of speech and of the press; the right of the people peaceably to assemble and petition the Government for a redress of grievances; a right appertaining to each and all of the people; the right to keep and to bear arms; the right to be exempted from the quartering of soldiers in a house without consent of the owner; the right to be exempt from unreasonable searches and seizures, and from any search or seizure except by virtue of a warrant issued upon a formal oath or affidavit; the right of an accused person to be informed of the nature of the accusation against him, and his right to be tried by an impartial jury of the vicinage; and also the right to be secure against excessive bail and against cruel and unusual punishments. . . .
Now, sir, there is no power given in the Constitution to enforce and to carry out any of these guarantees. They are not powers granted by the Constitution to Congress, and of course do not come within the sweeping clause of the Constitution authorizing Congress to pass all laws necessary and proper for carrying out the foregoing or granted powers, but they stand simply as a bill of rights in the Constitution, without power on the part of Congress to give them full effect; while at the same time the States are not restrained from violating the principles embraced in them except by their own local constitutions, which may be altered year to year. The great object of the first section of this amendment is, therefore, to restrain the power of the States and compel them at all times to respect these great fundamental guarantees. How will it be done under the present amendment? As I have remarked, they are not powers granted to Congress, and therefore it is necessary, if they are to be effectuated and enforced, as they assuredly ought to be, that additional power should be given to Congress to that end. This is done by the fifth section of this amendment, which declares that “the Congress shall have power to enforce by appropriate legislation the provisions of this article.” Here is a direct affirmative delegation of power to Congress to carry out all the principles of all these guarantees, a power not found in the Constitution.”
Incidently, this bit is pretty relevant to the recent discussion about whether searches always require warrants:
"the right to be exempt from unreasonable searches and seizures, and from any search or seizure except by virtue of a warrant issued upon a formal oath or affidavit;"
This WAS the understanding, in all but the most exigent circumstances, such as a crime happening right before your eyes. I repeat: Warrant requirements were much more stringent back then than today.
Seems odd that they wrote something different in the actual constitution, then!
But they didn't write something different.
"The right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses, papers, and effects,[a] against unreasonable searches and seizures, shall not be violated, and no Warrants shall issue, but upon probable cause, supported by Oath or affirmation, and particularly describing the place to be searched, and the persons or things to be seized."
Nobody who wasn't trying to circumvent the 4th amendment would interpret it to impose requirements for getting a warrant, but leave getting one totally optional. It's just not a natural reading of the amendment, it's a bit of sophistry to avoid complying with it.
The line I quoted reflected what the 4th amendment was understood to mean.
As a matter of history and original meaning, I think Brett has it right.
By the way, does anyone have the time? I think my clock must have stopped.
Captcrisis, the version I heard is that they only thought that the 14th Amendment would apply to the states of the former Confederacy and only later realized that it would apply to their states as well.
While many (most?) states essentially had a variant of the Bill of Rights in their State constitution, I doubt the 14th Amendment would have passed had they (Northern States) known that it would incorporate the Bill of Rights to apply to them too.
And where did you hear that, Dr. Ed?
"Yet Republicans found the Black Codes the paradigmatic abridgment of the privileges or immunities of citizens—the product of rank prejudice rather than a regulation in promotion of the public good. And they expected that federal courts would hold them unconstitutional under the Privileges or Immunities Clause, even if the Civil Rights Act were repealed."
I'd like to see more evidence in the record for this. Personally, I don't think we need to "go back" to the original expected application of the 14th Amendment's text; but I have serious doubts that the framers and ratifiers thought it gave power to courts to hold laws unconstitutional WITHOUT Congress' involvement. I could be wrong. The history here is complex and contradictory.
It was my understanding that the point of the the 14th Amendment wasn't just to constitutionalize the Civil Rights Act of 1866, but to give CONGRESS the newly minted constitutional power over those kinds of civil rights like issues (that dealt with "state action.")
The first use of the word “article” in the portion of the abstract you copied should not be capitalized.
A fascinating subject on which (as an Australian student) I lack the required US Con. learning to opine with any juristic specificity.
But:
1. Supposing it be at least theoretically possible (if not licit as a *determinative* method of construction), then a textualist construction of Sect. 1 of the 14th Am. wld (purely ex facie) materially fix on:
(i) the alternate criterion that birth in or naturalisation by the laws of the United States is a sine qua non of Constitutional "citizenship"; (ii) the condition that a resident of a "State" is also a Constitutional "citizen" *only* if (i) be satisfied; (iii) the necessarily implicit assumption that the status of "citizenship" is unitary whereas the status of "residency" is relative & distributed qua State and qua United States; (iv) the prescriptive primacy of a genus of rights, annexed to if not defined by that unitary status per se, over purported relative derogations from them; (v) the express & exhaustive specification of those rights as "privileges or immunities"; (vii) the express prohibition on their "abrogation" by any State "law".
2. The above, if it identifies & characterises lucidly the Section's material terms, entails, or suggests, that: (i) the "Privileges & Immunities Clause" is no positive "guarantee of rights" whose nature & scope is capable of abstraction from the Section as a whole; (ii) the unitary concept of the US Constitutional "citizen" governs the "Clause"; (iii) such a "citizen" qua US Constitutional subject is protected within the territory of the United States against any "abrogation" by any particular State's legislature of any US-sourced right, title, or interest intrinsic to that status per se; (iv) such a protected right, title, or interest, being dependent on or related to the unitary Constitutional status of a "citizen", is therefore of a public (& not purely private) nature; (v) to the extent that basic rules & principles of "the general common law" are incorporated by US common law, only those rules & principles which can (eg) establish, materially affect, condition, or determine a right, title, or interest of a "citizen" (not merely a "person") wld be privileged & immune.
[My observations are no more than me thinking aloud!]
This doesn’t work. General federal common law was exactly that– common law– governing basically any situation where there was not an applicable state or federal statute.
And that has 2 implications fatal for Baude’s argument. First, general federal common law didn’t override state statutes. If you sued in federal court due to diversity after getting hit by a taxicab while visiting New York, the Court would apply federal COMMON law to decide the negligence issue. But if there was a New York traffic statute that the taxicab was in violation of when it hit you, the federal court would NOT refuse to apply that statute. Because general federal common law only displaced state common law. It didn’t displace otherwise valid state statutes.
Second, general federal common law was GENERAL. It applied to every aspect of law where there wasn’t a statute. It was essentially an entire body of common law. Saying the PorI clause applies this body of law to the states is essentially saying that the 14th Amendment federalized the entire common law. It’s much worse than just the Lochner problem (although the Lochner problem is bad enough- any theory that implies that state governments can’t set minimum wages is highly unlikely to fly). It would mean state courts can’t do any experimentation at all. E.g., there would be one rule of law on dramshop liability, nationwide. One rule of law on the bulk supplier defense, nationwide. One rule of law on the consumer expectations theory of strict products liability, nationwide. One rule of law on the scope of the implied warranty of habitability, nationwide.
This makes zero sense. It’s not a plausible reading of what the PorI text means, and it would basically mean the 14th Amendment eliminated a key aspect of state sovereignty without saying it explicitly.
A compelling & persuasive analysis. I'd reckon that your final point is near-determinative of the issue posed.
Still, it's not beyond argument that there may be fundamental rules & principles of general common law & equity which were intended to attach to the unitary status of a US Constitutional citizen - such fundamental rules & principles as are reflected, for instance, in the canon of statutory construction which presumes that no legislature ought be taken to intend by its laws to abrogate fundamental common law rights, unless it makes its intent to do so unmistakable.
Not "beyond argument", but surely a mighty challenge to argue for.
An alternative argument in favour of fundamental general law incorporation is that, while no rule or principle of general law might itself be any direct source of a right founding a Constitutional immunity from State law (or privilege against its abrogation by a State), US-derived statutory & Con. rights are, for the purpose of Am. XIV . Sec. 1: (i) to be construed consistently with their relevantly parallel general law; (ii) or - more radically - to be construed as derivately to found supplementary rights, strictly analogous to the general law (if an analogy exists).
Louisiana didn't take in Common Law when it joined the Union. Still doesn't follow it.
Esper, what do you make of the effect of Section 230 on the various state law standards for defamation? Before answering in terms of the 1A, please reflect that defamation is not 1A protected speech.
“General law" doesn't mean "federal common law" in the article or (he says) in the sources. Read the article again (?), for how it's defined.
Search the phrase "common law" in his article, and in the first 10 occurrences, you'll find:
- He's explicit that "general law" (as a phrase & concept in the mid-19th century sources) was something broader that draws on multiple sources of law, *including* common law.
- He specifically denies that it was a "federal common law".
His denial doesn't comport with the reality of what SCOTUS did. There's a reason Holmes.ended up having to deny that the law was a brooding omnipresence in the sky. That's what Swift actually did in diversity cases.
My basic (and quite limited) point is that you said "This doesn’t work.", and then proceed to make an argument that presumed he'd argued for a "general federal common law", instead of the argument he did make.
The Supreme Court in Swift v. Tyson "recognised" the general & non-statutory law (common law & equity), because it could not but do so (being a superior court of record). But the reason why it "recognised" it was to distinguish between that law's *presumptive* authority as binding on the facts from the argument that the term "law" as used in the then Judiciary Act imposed on the Federal judiciary an obligation to give preferential (& contrary) effect to State (New York)
"[common-] law". The Supreme Court (Story AJ) held that the Judiciary Act didn't comprehend within its ambit the unwritten general law (common-law & equity) *of a State*; and that its command only applied to any State law (viz., e.g., statute) with a local application.
The case therefore strictly exemplifies a reading down of a purported statutory limitation on Federal Art III jurisdiction. Only by some process of inference from its express reasoning can the case be characterised as "recognising" that the "general law" exclusively informs the content of the "Privileges & Immunities Clause".
Even more obscure than the rights meant to be safeguarded by the 14th Amendment is whether it was lawfully ratified. All the reconstruction amendments suffer from the coercion of the federal government on the states recently in rebellion to ratify amendments as a condition of restoration of their rights as states. Were they states or not. If not, their ratification did not count. If so, they could not logically be compelled to ratify the amendments, with which their voters most assuredly disagreed. But the 14th was deemed ratified by the Secretary of State on a flypaper theory of ratification, claiming that a state vote once cast could not be rescinded, even though the requisite number of confirming votes had yet to be cast by other states.
It would have been much simpler to take an equal rights case to the Supreme Court, which would have ensured that the beneficiaries of manumission were treated equally under the law without the punitive reconstruction regime.
"All the reconstruction amendments suffer from the coercion of the federal government on the states recently in rebellion to ratify amendments as a condition of restoration of their rights as states."
Which sometimes went to far as having armed soldiers on the legislative floor while the vote was going on, to assure that it came out 'right'. But the chance of getting enough people to care about that at this late date would be negligible even if they were bad amendments, and they're not.
"It would have been much simpler to take an equal rights case to the Supreme Court, which would have ensured that the beneficiaries of manumission were treated equally under the law without the punitive reconstruction regime."
Ah, you are aware that this was, largely, the Dred Scot/Slaugherhouse Court, right? You really think it would have come out that way?
There's something I like to call the demon theory of government: The idea that government, law, is as logic bound as a demon in some fiction, and if you can just trap them in iron bound, unassailable logic, they have no choice but to follow it.
The law isn't anything like that, or else the country wouldn't look a bit like it does today. The truth is, you can have the law dead to rights on reason and logic, and lose anyway, if the people running the legal system don't like where reason and logic lead.
It wasn't lawfully ratified. The 14th is unique, though, the other amendments do not suffer from the same problems.
https://www.law.ua.edu/pubs/lrarticles/Volume%2053/Issue%202/Bryant.pdf
Gee wiz folks, isn't law just as fluid today as it has always been ?
Arguing positions to your tendencies and to your favor is what law is all about. Law is not to seek justice or truth, but simply for the convenience of the parties involved.
Deciphering the Constitution is not difficult unless lawyers get involved. Also, the decisions over time are contradictory.
A solution to this is there is no solution to this so long as people are un-mutually inclined, savoring selfishness and not wanting to accept the truth.
However, the reason for these constitutional questions is for the overbearing Federal involvement in State affairs. The USA is not a nation, but rather a Republic. Yes, consistency is preferred when one travels to another state, but one-size-fits-all doesn't work all the time, if ever. Reaching agreement requires compromising, deferring to state/local control, and lessening of federal overreach.
The original view, which prevailed for 70 years but is now a curiosity, is summarized a bit here.
https://tenthamendmentcenter.com/2020/05/23/the-incorporation-doctrine-and-the-bill-of-rights/
To be specific, Section 1 'constitutionalized' the Civil rights act of 1866, while Section 3 'constitutionalized' the Confiscation acts.
Both had been enacted under war conditions, by people who knew that they had no constitutional basis for enacting them. They didn't care at the time, and they'd largely shut down the court system's capacity to litigate anything even vaguely war related, even outside actual war zones, so it didn't matter for the duration of the war.
But once the war was over, they knew they wouldn't be able to keep the judiciary at bay forever, so they originated the 14th amendment to legitimize these acts after the fact.
I don't necessarily have an issue with how the "understanding" of the 14th Amendment evolved to permit courts to have the power to nullify pieces of legislation (and other government actions) without a Congressional statute.
But ... I seriously wonder if this is how the framers and ratifiers expected it to go down:
"And they expected that federal courts would hold them unconstitutional under the Privileges or Immunities Clause, even if the Civil Rights Act were repealed.”
I strongly suspect they thought it was Congress' responsibility under its newly minted constitutional powers to enact Civil Rights legislation (they weren't limited to the Civil Rights Act of 1866).
Thoughts?
I think Brett's point was that putting the exact same rule in a Constitution that was already in legislation obviously makes it harder to repeal. Yes, I think the framers expected the courts to enforce the amendment, and with respect to PorI that would have meant being able to hold property, enforce contracts, etc. as reflected in the 1866 Civil Rights Act. Beyond that Congress had power to enforce the amendment. We don't need an act of Congress to protect the right to bear arms, or freedom of speech. Why would it be necessary here?
"Why would it be necessary here?"
In part, because of the way the 14th Amendment is worded, and this is 1868 not 1791. Though, I understand the issue is extremely complex. Art. III courts have been nullifying legislation since Marbury (and before that it was a common practice of common law courts to do this), but what has been termed "judicial supremacy" (the way Art. III courts function today) was slow to evolve.
I was thinking of Michael McConnell's research that attempted to justify Brown on originalist grounds. He showed the Congress that passed the 14th Amendment thought it had the power to outlaw segregation. In fact they tried to. However, because they didn't have the votes, segregation remained.
I'm not saying I'm comfortable with this system, but I just strongly suspect that's how the framers and ratifiers expected it to go down.
Raoul Berger spent a long time in analyzing “privileges and immunities” in Government by Judiciary. His analysis is compelling.
This is why people hate Law now, though it was a staple of the intellectual diet of the public at our Founding and long after.
So I need a PhD to understand my rights!! And a big bucks lawyer to do anything about it. My gut tells me that you are wrong in a basic way. I live in my state and 90% of my life is touched by that. To bring the Feds in to say that my city needs a trans bathroom or that my pond is subject to EPA because it is a waterway --- well, that makes lawyers who shill for such things hated.