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Religious Marriage-Related Agreements Can Be Enforced by American Courts, but Only When They Comply With State Law
From Khan v. Hasan, decided Wednesday by the New York intermediate appellate court (Judges Angela G. Iannacci, Cheryl E. Chambers, William G. Ford & Lillian Wan), a good illustration of how American law generally treats religious agreements:
The parties were married in a civil ceremony on March 2, 2016, and subsequently held a religious ceremony on September 12, 2016. The parties' religious certificate of marriage, which was signed by two witnesses and an imam, but was not acknowledged, lists an amount of $50,000 for "Meher." The parties assert that a Meher or Mahr agreement is an agreement between the parties to a marriage, in accordance with Islamic law, that the husband will pay to the wife a specified sum in the event of a divorce.
The parties eventually divorced, and the husband sought to set aside the Mahr; the court agreed:
"It is without question that when courts must touch upon questions of religious concerns, they may not consider religious doctrine." "[H]owever, the [United States] Supreme Court, in holding that a State may adopt any approach to resolving religious disputes which does not entail consideration of doctrinal matters, specifically approved the use of the neutral principles of law approach as consistent with constitutional limitations. This approach contemplates the application of objective, well-established principles of secular law to the dispute, thus permitting judicial involvement to the extent that it can be accomplished in purely secular terms."
Domestic Relations Law § 236(B)(3) states that "[a]n agreement by the parties, made before or during the marriage, shall be valid and enforceable in a matrimonial action if such agreement is in writing, subscribed by the parties, and acknowledged or proven in the manner required to entitle a deed to be recorded." "[A]n unacknowledged agreement is invalid and unenforceable in a matrimonial action."
Here, pursuant to the neutral principles of law approach, the Supreme Court properly determined that the Mahr agreement was unenforceable for lack of proper acknowledgment, as it would be improper and unconstitutional to treat a Mahr agreement differently than other religious or nonreligious nuptial agreements in terms of procedural requirements….
Seems quite right to me. That the agreement was pursuant to Islamic law neither keeps it from being enforced when it's valid under state law, nor allows it to be enforced when it's invalid under state law. (Agreements that include religious terms that require religious interpretation are unenforceable by secular courts on those grounds, but here the problem was different.) For more, see my Religious Law (Especially Islamic Law) in American Courts.
David W. Teeter represents the husband.
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Excuse my ignorance but in this context, what does it mean for the agreement to be "acknowledged" (or in this case, not)?
I believe it just means notarized or signed ("acknowledged") by a government official entitled to do so. (For example, I recently dealt with a vehicle title document that had to be notarized or signed by an authorized DMV employee.)
From the decision:
Yes, I read those words in the article above. And I'm still confused. What exactly was missing? Having two witnesses would seem to meet the requirement for "proven in the manner required to entitle a deed to be recorded", no?
I don't think F.D's interpretation (that it must be filed with the government) can be right - lots of contracts are enforceable even though they are not recorded with any government agency ahead of time. But I'm clearly still missing something...
And I may finally have the answer.
Drilling through the case above to Anderson v Anderson which this case cites, the defect in Anderson was apparently that "[t]he parties' lawyers failed to include in the respective certificates the undisputed fact that the signer was personally known to them at the time of signing." That seems a pretty picayune requirement but if that in fact is the NY law, the court is right to apply that rule with ruthless consistency.
“Having two witnesses would seem to meet the requirement for “proven in the manner required to entitle a deed to be recorded”, no?”
No.
https://www.deedclaim.com/new-york/deed-requirements/#:~:text=A%20deed%20must%20be%20notarized,model%20notary%20certificates%20for%20deeds.
Signatures included within a deed must be acknowledged before a notary or other officer legally empowered to accept acknowledgments.17 A deed must be notarized before it is recorded or delivered to the new owner. A deed that is not notarized may be, as an alternative, signed by at least one witness who attests that the deed was signed by the owner and delivered to the new owner.18 New York has statutory model notary certificates for deeds.19
How does a Mahir differ from a pre-nup?
If a pre-nup explicitly stated that the husband would pay the wife $50,000 in case of divorce, would that be legal?
It has to be acknowledge as per the rule in this case.
I'm confused. It seemed like it was "acknowledged". And, witnessed. Thus enforceable. Can someone clarify the detail why not?
The decision explicitly states that it was not acknowledged in the manner the law requires. It must be "acknowledged or proven in the manner required to entitle a deed to be recorded"
They’re piddling about it not being notarized and filed in the Deed of Records. Nobody is actually saying it’s invalid.
It’s like New York refusing to recognize a marriage solemnized by somebody who doesn’t meet its trustworthiness formalities for solomnizers, such as for example signing a state marriage non-discrimination policy.
Court video of Hasan after losing
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ajsNJtnUb7c
It’s a failure to accommodate, and the Muslim coiple would win both under pre-Smith and under Alito.
New York is not allegeing the Mahr’s substance violates public policy. It is only alleging that its documentation does not meet the documentation formalities it imposes, particularly the requirement that it be signed by a notary and filed with the Deed of Records. But where, as here, everyone involved acknowledges the Mar to be legitimate and authentic, these requirements serve no heightened state interest.
To see this, suppose New York tried this with an-out-of-state agreement. Lots of states treat Mahrs as valid and haven’t suffered. New York couldn’t in general refuse to enforce an out-of-state agreement for failing to conform to New York formalities nobody else has. It would have to give other states full faith and credit. And if it can do that for other states, it can jolly well do that for religion.
New York cannot ignore the Mahr’s status as a religious document. It cannot demand that participants in a religious ceremony accept someone as a witness that the religion does not regard as a valid witness.
New York has regularly screwed not just religious but out of country folks for not having marriage docuemnts that meet its idiosyncratic formality requirements. Until recently, New York refused to accept foreign religious marriages because it claimed it would have to investigate the religious validity of the marriage to do so, and the First Amendment forbade it.
New York judges have had a bad habit of finding excuses to screw religious people that most of the rest of the country manages to accommodate without incident.
The state could argue that it has a legitimate interest that all non-commercial contracts be completed in front of a notary to ensure that all parties listed are who they say they are as a heightened level of protection for non-commercial entities.
If it is applied to everyone equally it might pass muster.
Query: what if the original agreement contained an arbitration clause, requiring the parties to arbitrate any disputes in a religious court. Could the religious court affirm the Mahr? Would a secular court then confirm that judgment?
Natural Law is what is at stake. You cannot contract to violate even your own unalienable rights. Insofar as any religion has a foundation opposed to what grounds our Founding, it is invalid.
Lincoln again : ". He may say he don’t care whether an indifferent thing is voted up or down, but he must logically have a choice between a right thing and a wrong thing. He contends that whatever community wants slaves has a right to have them. So they have if it is not a wrong. But if it is a wrong, he cannot say people have a right to do wrong. "
If they are both Muslims why is not decided in a Muslim religious court? Does she claim to have signed under duress? Central facts are missing.