The Volokh Conspiracy
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The Constitutional State Legislature Doctrine
The middle ground in Moore v. Harper (plus a few additional thoughts on redistricting remedies)
On Tuesday, Michael McConnell and I published a piece in The Atlantic about the Supreme Court's pending case of Moore v. Harper, currently headlined The Supreme Court Has A Perfectly Good Option in Its Most Divisive Case.
It begins:
Later this term, the Supreme Court will decide Moore v. Harper, a case that has been pitched as a seismic clash between two troubling positions. One side asks for state legislatures to be freed from the traditional safeguards of state constitutional law, while the other asks the Court to effectively ignore the text of the Constitution. The Court should look beyond these unsupportable positions and take a commonsense middle ground. Fortunately, one is readily available: an approach that maintains the Constitution's emphasis on state legislatures without divorcing them from their traditional constitutional constraints.
and continues:
Missing from the debate has been a key principle that points to a sensible middle ground: A state constitution may limit a legislature's power over federal elections, but it may not give that power to somebody else. We need not an independent-state-legislature doctrine, but a constitutional-state-legislature doctrine.
and more specifically:
What does this principle mean for concrete cases?
It means that state constitutional provisions can restrain legislative districting, such as by limiting the use of partisan gerrymandering. The broad challenge to state constitutional law in Moore therefore should fail. But it also means that the North Carolina courts do not have independent constitutional power to adopt their own map.
There is much more at the link.
Now, if you agree with our core points (which would be great) there is much more to say about how to approach the remedy when a legislature draws a legally impermissible map. Some have pointed to a recent redistricting standoff in Ohio, others to the many decades in which the Minnesota legislature has apparently refused to draw maps, happy to let the courts do the hard work.
I think it might be premature to get into these weeds, and I certainly can't speak for my co-author about any of this. But I thought I'd offer a few modest observations for now.
- The piece notes that Congress retains power to solve standoffs over congressional redistricting. It is also worth mentioning that Congress has in fact enacted some legislation on this subject already, codified in 2 U.S.C. 2a through 2c. These statutes are somewhat old, and therefore somewhat complicated to apply today, but an amicus brief by Jonathan Mitchell and Adam Mortara argues that these statutory provisions could resolve Moore.
- Additionally, there might be the possibility of state legislation that authorizes a fallback approach for unconstitutional redistricting. This possibility triggers another constitutional question. Some might see such legislation as simply an instance of the state legislature exercising its constitutional power. Others might see such legislation as subject to a sort of non-delegation doctrine. The Atlantic piece doesn't explicitly address this question, and depending on the answer, one might resolve Moore by turning to various provisions of North Carolina law that the parties dispute.
- In the absence of any specific legislative response, what to do when the enacted law tries to require something unconstitutional is a severability problem, something I've written about recently in Severability First Principles: when a legislative enactment is not the law because it is unconstitutional, what is the law instead? These questions can be intricate and technical in particular cases, but I am not convinced they are generally intractable.
- For instance, the federal statutes mentioned above might point toward either at-large elections (as provided in 2a(c)) or "hewing as closely as possible" to an older legislative map (or both, as the Mitchell/Mortara brief above argues). Other statutes or severability principles might point to something similar. Or to a starker remedy like nullity, refusing to recognize a valid method of election until one is passed that complies with the law.
Again, these issues all seem slightly premature to me, and they would deserve further study once the more basic principles are determined, but I don't think they are mysterious.
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It is a nice attempt at a middle ground. But it is utterly impractical.
Some map does need to be used or the election does not happen. If no one else can draw the map and the legislature does not play along, then either 1) the old map must be used -- something that legislatures who were elected under the old map will tend to favor or 2) whatever new map the legislature absolutely insists on must be used. Both 1) and 2) may run afoul of state constitutions. So, if there is no remedy of courts drawing maps, it follows that state legislatures must have a practical power to impose a map that violates a state constitution.
2 U.S.C. 2(c) is already in place to dictate what happens in the event that a state is unable to complete the redistricting process following apportionment. Either the old map is used, or, depending on the change in Representatives relative to the number of districts, elections are held at-large. There is always one map that can be used as a fallback; a map of the state itself.
Imagine an old map used decade after decade.
What happens?
Rotten Boroughs.
"Or to a starker remedy like nullity, refusing to recognize a valid method of election until one is passed that complies with the law."
Allowing the legislature to delay elections until political winds shift back into the favor of incumbents. What could go wrong?
Any doctrine that makes it easier for Democrats to cheat in elections is the right one.
I'm curious how at-large voting would work in practice. Make it so.
I think you'd end up with a rather blue House of Representatives.
At-large by state would basically look like presidential electoral count voting, which is at-large. But instead of each state having a minimum of 3 electors (1 rep + 2 senators), small states have only 1 representative at large. If the voting at large approximated the at large voting for president in the 2020 election, for example, the House would have 253 Democrats and 182 Republicans.
I also think that outcome would be somewhat stable because so many of the "big" states are blue. They lose less influence, proportionally, from the 2-elector reduction.
My libertopia avoids these problems altogether by assigning each elected legislator all the votes from the election, which they cast in Congress. No need to equalize population. It does make calculating vote totals a wee bit longer, and it complicates politicians trying to guess the outcome of voting for bills. But all this crap disappears.
This seems weird, insofar as it would assign weight to the legislator for people who voted against them.
Of course, this is precisely what happens now. But your system would make it explicit.
Eh? Like you said, it is what happens now. All my system does is eliminate the census excitement.
The full version of my libertopia is that each district elects the top three vote winners, each proxying just the votes they won; then a volunteer is chosen at random, from voters who volunteered, to be a fourth representative who proxies all remaining votes.
But the principle of avoiding census excitement and redistricting remains the same.
By all means, clingers, continue to press race-targeting voter suppression. That will make it easier for your betters to suppress any tendency toward leniency as the culture war continues to sift.
Wouldn't at-large districts violate one-person/one-vote? If the people of, say, Utah get to vote at large, then they have several representatives in the House, while the people in, say, Texas would only have one if they were able to draw the district lines.
WTF are you talking about? Utah would have just as many representatives as before, elected by just as many voters as before.
Yes, but each individual voter would have more power in Congress. Instead of getting 1 House rep, they'd get 6. In other words they'd be one-person/six-votes.
Where the heck do you get that? For once I agree with Martinned.
What do you mean? I just explained it.
Each voter would be in the (statewide) district of six Congressmen. That does not translate to six times as much representation because the voter is only one sixth as important to each elected official.
No. Each voter is just as important to each elected official. Their vote counts as a whole vote each time. It's not 1/6 of a vote in each statewide district. As a result, those people would get a say in six congressional districts, whereas voters in most states--states that did their districting correctly--would only get a say in one congressional district.
Professor Baude,
I understand that your general position is that state constitutions "may limit a legislature's power over federal elections, but it may not give that power to somebody else." But you also claim not to have a position on the non-delegation question.
I believe that all or most state constitutions required ratification by the states' legislatures. Assuming that a state constitutional provision delegating election regulatory power was approved by the state's legislature, your position that such a provision is unconstitutional seems to necessarily reject the ability of the legislature ability to delegate.
In other words, why would a legislature be permitted to delegate via legislation but not by ratifying amendments to its state constitution? I don't think it is possible to avoid the non-delegation question while staking out a position on the overall independent state legislature theory.
Can an ability to delegate that a state legislature derives from the state constitution apply to a power that the state legislature gets not from the state constitution but from the federal constitution?
The idea is that if the power comes from the federal constitution, the state constitution can not give them the power to delegate it.
That’s why you redefine legislature to include independent initiatives by the voters to create a state constitution amendment for an independent commission.
This example is like something Kirk would use to make a robot explode.
The People are guaranteed a representative form of government, so they take the power out of the hands of their representatives, and give it to a new class of representative, so as to take their own stinking fingers off it, which counts as keeping their stinking fingers all over it.
“We love democracy, but we hate it, but we love it, but we hate it, but (frotzzzz)”
I think you misunderstand my question. I'm not positing that an authority to delegate derives from a state constitution - I'm saying that if the US Constitution permits delegation, then I don't see a reason why that delegation could not be accomplished through state constitutions that are ratified by state legislatures. The issue is whether the Constitution permits legislative delegation, and it shouldn't matter the legislature delegates through state constitutional means or via typical legislation. Basically, if the legislature can delegate authority to regulate elections, it can do so either by (1) enacting normal legislation, or (2) ratifying provisions/amendments to state constitutions.
Professor Baude says that he doesn't have a position on (1), but seems to reject the possibility of (2). To me, that seems illogical. I can't think of any good reason why a legislature's delegative authority, if it exists, would be so restricted.
Most state constitutions are NOT ratified by the legislature, but were written by state constitutional conventions and ratified by plebiscite.
Even granting that is true (I admittedly have not looked up the process of ratification for all the state constitutions), the rule stated by Professor Baude seems overbroad. I am confident that at least AMENDMENTS to most state constitutions require legislative ratification, and that would seem to bring up the non-delegation problem again if any amendments affected election regulation.
As I see it, the legislature can delegate it, but the state CONSTITUTION can't necessarily do the same - because most state Constitutions were not acts of the legislature, but rather written by separate conventions and ratified by direct plebiscite. Likewise, the rules can't be changed by voter initiative or referendum - Articles I and II make it explicit that the LEGISLATURE sets the rules for electing Representatives, Senators, and Electors. A Legislature could set up a board to establish district boundaries (although ideally its recommendations would have to be approved by the legislature to be implemented), but a referendum or state constitution could not.
Another kicker is that legislation on rules for federal elections should not require a gubernatorial signature, as the state governor has no role in the establishment of such rules under the language of Article I and II. There is precedent - prior to the 17th Amendment, governors had no role in the election of US Senators, which was carried out entirely by the state legislature. The only role for a governor - powers granted by the 17th - is to call for a special election to fill a Senate vacancy and, if allowed by the legislature, appoint a temporary Senator until such time as the election is held.
Trouble for your argument is, the Supreme Court has already explicitly ruled otherwise.
It's just silly to read the word "legislature" so narrowly. The Constitution provides that each state must have a republican form of government, but provides no further guidance or restrictions on the structure of that government. A state could abolish its formal legislature entirely and govern by direct democracy if it chose. (I mean, there are a zillion practical problems with that, but not constitutional ones.) Would that mean that it could no longer hold federal elections because there isn't a legislature?
A state could abolish its formal legislature entirely and govern by direct democracy if it chose. (I mean, there are a zillion practical problems with that, but not constitutional ones.) Would that mean that it could no longer hold federal elections because there isn’t a legislature?
1. It would mean that there would be no legislature to exercise the Art 1.4 power to prescribe the Times, Places and Manner of elections....
2. .....requiring the state to fall back on whatever mechanism the federal Congress had provided should apply in such circumstances
3. If Congress had provided no fallback, then there wouldn't be any federal elections in that state.....
4. ....and so the position would be just the same as if there were a state legislature in existence, but they just didn't get round to specifying any Times, Places and Manner.
As you correctly say, there's a difference between a constitutional problem and a practical problem. In practice, there's no guarantee that the constitution provides a good practical answer for all circumstances. There may be holes in the constitutional scheme.
But it makes little sense to use an appeal to a practical reductio ad absurdam to insist that the sky would fall if you don't have an actual formal legislature, if the sky can still fall even if you do.
I think the Court addressed a core component of this question in Smiley v. Holm (1932). Chief Justice Hughes, writing for a unanimous Court, stated:
While this doesn't answer the question specific to Moore, it provides a foundation, grounded in precedent, from which to approach the case.
The problem arises when the STATE Constitution - which in most cases was not written nor enacted by the LEGISLATURE - conflicts with the Article I and Article II language of the Constitution.
Except the Federal Constitution says the Legislature shall establish the maps for Federal elections and it does not say, that these maps are made by general law. Election maps are not laws, they are maps, adoted by the Legislature and there is no state law issue at all and no role for the Governor or the State courts.
Supremacy Clause plus plain meaning.
The US. Supreme Court in the 30's (and through the Burger Court days) rewrote the Constitution dozens of times. That was wrong and that is the issue. See, Wickard and Griggs, the two worst examples of this usurpation.
That is not the plain meaning.
Assuming that legislative action follows normal order is not some antitextual madness, it’s normal parlance.
Fun fact: the federal constitution says no such thing. The word "map" appears nowhere in the document.
The federal constitution can assign a job to a state legislature, but cannot confer upon a state legislature a power it does not have. Where do state legislatures get their powers? From the state constitution. So when a state legislature takes on an assignment from the feds, it must act in accordance with the powers it has and the limits the state constitution puts upon those powers.
This is obviously wrong, since Art 1.4 of the Federal Constitution expressly confers on State Legislatures a power that they do not possess under the State Constitution.
Where do state legislatures get their powers? From the state constitution.
Usually yes. But in this case the power derives from the Federal Constitution not the State Constitution.
So when a state legislature takes on an assignment from the feds, it must act in accordance with the powers it has and the limits the state constitution puts upon those powers.
No, because the powers the State Legislature already has under the State Constitituion do not include the power to make laws for federal elections. That power derives from elsewhere.
This is no different to the case if, say, French law permitted the Louisiana Legislature to make law for the French Caribbean Islands. This would be a power derived from French law not the Louisiana Constitution, and the only relevance of Louisiana law would be in helping a French court determine whether, as a matter of fact, the body purporting to making these laws was indeed the properly constituted Louisiana Legislature.
What a tangled mess. Why not just elect House members at large?
No artificial slicing and dicing of the states. Let the entire states' voters weigh in on *each* race.
The answer to that is not very politically correct: minorities would complain that they have zero voting power (by default). No all black or Hispanic districts would exist in the country, except possibly in some very liberal areas.
That said, that's politics, not policy.
That’s a bit of a bipartisan bargain by which the black voters are put into their own district and the other districts become more Republican by having fewer blacks.
Republicans benefit from the new R-leaning districts, black politicians can boast that now they have a better chance of election in “their own” districts.
In a country which put Obama in the white house, and elected black Senators (like Obama himself, and Sen. Scott), maybe the abolition of racial districts would be a price worth paying.
And we’d be spared the salami-slicing discussions about whether putting black people in special districts is political discrimination (kosher) or racial discrimination (non-kosher).
I read this the other day at The Atlantic and it only had Will Baude's name. I wondered why it said "we" and who the other authors were. Looks like that's fixed now.
I am interested in seeing how the Court handles this after it botched Bush v Gore. In that case, the proper ruling under the Constitution, IMO, would have been to reverse the lower courts and remand to the Florida state LEGISLATURE for decision, based on the language of Article II, Section 1: "Each State shall appoint, in such Manner as the Legislature thereof may direct, a Number of Electors, equal to the whole Number of Senators and Representatives to which the State may be entitled in the Congress: but no Senator or Representative, or Person holding an Office of Trust or Profit under the United States, shall be appointed an Elector." In that case, which involved the "manner" of selecting electors, the Legislature was clearly designated as the body to determine such issues. The result would have been the same - the Florida legislature had already voted to award the electors to Bush - but the Court refused to make the order which would have removed such cases from the jurisdiction of courts, reducing judicial power.
The same issues arise in the Moore case based on the Article I, Section 4 powers delegated to the legislature regarding House and Senate elections. I agree with Will that the state legislature may enact laws allowing judicial review, but cannot delegate that legislative power - and Congress can impose its own requirements on legislative actions. They cannot, however, delegate the power to organize the election - unless the Supreme Court once again goes off the deep end in ignoring the non-delegation principle. My fear is that the Court may, as in Bush v. Gore, mess things up further with an attempt to avoid the 900 pound gorilla in the room - the actual language of the Constitution - and try to find some "compromise" to avoid a decision which pulls implicit powers from lower courts and leaves them in legislative hands.
I agree, but why remand when the Legislature has already done that? For a do over???? It was the Florida Supreme Court that was trying to steal the election and the Supreme Court merely stopped that effort.
I am sympathetic to this view, specifically in map drawing, but I'm not sure that it is necessarilly broadly applicable to other cases that may implicate the "independant state legislature" argument (We should stop calling it a doctrine. It is not yet a doctrine in any way but merely an argument being presented. If SCOTUS adopts it in some form then we can reevaluate).
Take the PA mail voting case . Legislature says you can't count ballots received after election day. State Supreme Court says unconstitutional per state constitution. What is the middle ground here between the legislature has full autonomy and the State Supreme Court can extend it to what it deems constitutional?
I agree. The problem with the Full Godzilla ISL argument is that there are practical aspects of elections that have to be administered, requiring the participation of the State’s executive branch. And in order to require the State executive branch do something, you need to have a State law. And to have a State law, you need the State Legislature to follow the State’s constitutional rules.
But there are aspects of the specification of the Manner of holding elections that do not require any executive action at all – that would include the drawing of District maps. But it could also cover – whether and in what cicumstances absentee or mail in ballots could be used, who is allowed to observe the count and so on. (Obviously administering the absentee and mail in ballot rules, and the conduct of the count etc does require executive action – but the specification of the rules themselves, does not.)
So a State Legislature with faced with a State Supreme Court that was inclined to be creative about its own powers to amend the Legislature’s scheme, or a Governor inclined to veto its scheme might choose to specify the Manner of these items that require no executive action otherwise than in a State law. Each House might simply pass a Resolution specifying the necessary items and stating explicitly that this was not an attempt at a State law, but merely the specification of Manner entrusted to the State Legislature by the Federal Constitution. And then to the extent that the State Legislature needs to make actual State law to require the participation of the State executive in the administration of the election, they could do that quite separately in an actual State law. So Election Rules in one package, not in the form of State law. Instructions to, and budget for, State executive officials to administer the election in a separate package in the form of State law.
It seems to me that the State legislature would have a much better chance of winning in Federal Court if it did not purport to specify its Manner in the form of a State law. (Or at least those parts of the Manner that do not require the co-operation of the State Executive.)
I don’t think the participation of the State judicial branch is absolutely required by the practicalities, because whether and to what extent the actual administration of the election complies with the “Manner” specified by the State Legislature is obviously a federal question. So the Federal courts can be used for that purpose.
Maybe if there weren't a couple of hundred years of precedent (I mean historical precedent, not specifically legal precedent) that state legislatures do in fact specify the manner of elections in the form of law, and not through the exercise of some mysterious non-legislative power.
1. As you correctly note, the precedent is historical not legal, and is therefore merely a comment on what state legislatures have chosen to do, rather than a comment on what they are legally permitted to do by the Federal Constitution.
2. And there's an obvious practical reason for them to have chosen to do it by making state law - because they need the state executive to participate in some of the process.
3. But times change. Thus for example how long does the precedent extend back for state courts nixing the state legislature's "Manner" on the basis of their interpretation of the state constitution ? If the state courts start playing the game in a different way, then maybe the state legislature will change its game plan too.
4. The "mysterious non-legislative power" is only mysterious if you assume the conclusion - that state legislatures have to exercise their Art 1.4 power using state lawmaking procedure. Rather than simply by reading the words and seeing if you can identify that limitation.
The Federal Constitution has other bits whereby law can "mysteriously" appear without passing through either regular state or regular federal lawmaking procedures. The President can make treaties, and if ratified, they're law. The fact that this kind of law is not made by the regular lawmaking process shows that "mysterious" action is perfectly possible. If you are the sort of fellow who finds that anything that the Constitution provides for outside the regular lawmaking channels, is "mysterious."
Until pretty recently I’d have been pretty persuaded by the originalist appeals here about the constitution granting the authority to the legislatures. But given the court’s decision in Chiaflo to turn around and recognize the ISL doctrine would be a travesty that would feel dishonest. In Chiaflo they gutted one of the core constitutional electoral mechanisms by granting states huge power and control over their electors despite clear constitutional tension . So to turn around and insist the states have less control over how they redistrict than they do over independent federal electors is ridiculous. You can't take the constitution seriously or not depending on if u like the outcome.
And sure the constitution doesn’t literally say that states can’t punish or nullify faithless electors votes only in same way it doesn’t say that about congressional votes (speech/debate only mentions their speech or debate not votes). It makes no more sense to let a state revoke a faithless elector’s vote than a senators and no more to punish them than to let them punish a house member for voting in a way they dislike.
Look, SCOTUS could still reasonably rule that they interpret constitution to be highly deferential to state choices in elections (only excuse for Chiaflo) but then they gotta let them choose to delegate to courts or commissions if they want.