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Church Autonomy and Church Accountability as Complimentary Principles
Church autonomy coexists with state responsibility, as a matter of history and theory.
This continues a blog series about my new paper, "The Limits of Church Autonomy." My first post (here) introduces the idea of church autonomy. The second (here) describes areas of confusion among lower courts in articulating the limits of church autonomy.
Some critics think that the courts are confused because they're engaged in a hopeless mission. They would say that church autonomy doctrine is just inherently in tension with the rule of law—that the doctrine places religious institutions above the law. This critique has a theoretical component—that the high-level theories of church autonomy are incompatible with the existence of any kind of accountability for wrongdoing in churches.
This post is really a response to this high-level theory critique. I think it's possible to protect the internal affairs of religious institutions without protecting anything and everything done within a church. In my paper, I make the case that church autonomy coexists alongside a principle of accountability for religious institutions. The goal is not just to show that accountability is a worthy objective. It is also to argue that autonomy and accountability ought to go together even on the very strongest forms of church autonomy. And it is to show that both have been deeply intertwined as a matter of theory and of history. (The paper also suggests ways to operationalize the accountability principle in doctrine that courts can apply—a subject that will have to wait for the next post.)
Let's start with high-level theory. Social pluralist theories have been used to defend the most expansive versions of church autonomy. The idea is simply that we should conceptualize society as consisting of multiple social institutions, with the state as one among many. Church autonomy can be defended as a recognition that the state is not omnicompetent, that religious institutions constitute a valuable and important part of the social order. This is sometimes described as "sphere sovereignty"—that different social spheres should have a kind of sovereignty to pursue their own ends. The language of sphere sovereignty appears not only in some of the church autonomy literature but also occasionally in the courts as well. This tends to grate on the skeptics of broad church autonomy protections. It is often assumed that the "sphere sovereignty" model of church autonomy is the conceptualization least amenable to an accountability principle binding the church. If a "sphere" like religious institutions is "sovereign" within its domain, doesn't that mean that there's no way for another sphere (the state) to intervene even in the case of (say) clergy abuse? And if so, isn't that troubling (perhaps discrediting of church autonomy)? I want to show that, even accepting a set of strong theoretical commitments to a "sphere sovereignty" theory of religious institutions, there is nonetheless an important place for accountability.
What I want to emphasize is that sphere sovereignty need not lead to a reductio of church autonomy. Often, the emphasis in the church autonomy literature (and case law) is on the independence of the church from the state. Taken alone, this can give the misleading impression that it's all about autonomy with little or no place for accountability. But sphere sovereignty does not ineluctably result in hermetically sealed spheres. The sovereignty of human spheres is relative. The idea of separating the spheres is not just to shield the spheres from each other, but also to check each other. For this to happen, the spheres must be interactive. The state has a role to play.
To put this in theological terms: The church, for its part, is susceptible to sin, as is the state. If this sin implicates the authority of the state, then it is by no means appropriate for the state to stand back as if it had no authority to engage. The state can and should use its temporal sanctions against wrongdoers in its domain. That includes those within the houses of worship in its jurisdiction. There is no good reason to say that the sphere of the state is artificially bounded by the fact that a matter against its laws happens within a church.
At this point surely some are ready to object—what is the state's domain? Isn't this question begging? We'll get to a more concrete effort at distinguishing the subject matter of church and state in the next post. For the present the point is simply that a very strong theory of church autonomy based on sphere sovereignty (or something like it) need not—and does not—logically lead to the church existing above the law and outside accountability for civil wrongs.
I also offer an argument for the complementary relationship of church autonomy and accountability in historical terms. In church autonomy cases, the Supreme Court and some lower courts have looked deep into the medieval history of church-state relations to interpret the evolution of church-state relations in the common law and then, subsequently, in the American constitutional order. As a historian, I have some ambivalence about details of this "deep history" approach to church autonomy. But just taking it as a given that the courts see this history as relevant, I think there's a fascinating historical episode that suggests the importance of the church autonomy/accountability relationship.
One of the most telling transitions for accountability purposes was the evolution of the law of benefit of clergy. The English criminal law rule initially established which court, ecclesiastical or common law, would handle a felony. Clergy who committed felonies were committed to the ecclesiastical court (and receive considerable leniency), while everyone else would be tried in a common-law court. The English public was periodically outraged by clerics getting off lightly for serious crimes and began to chip away at benefit of clergy. The Reformation significantly reshaped the benefit of clergy. Reformation theology rejected the idea that the essential jurisdictional fact was a person's status, clergy versus laity. Luther famously argued that all Christians have a calling to serve God in whatever (non-sinful) vocation they assume. This had implications for ecclesiastical jurisdiction. The central issue was now conduct rather than status. What mattered was whether particular substantive issues—theft, marriage, baptism—belonged in the jurisdiction of the church or of the state.
The lessons I suggest taking from this history are (1) accountability is important (obviously!) and (2) a subject matter distinction between the domain of the church and the domain of the state is the key question and has deep roots in the common law tradition of church and state.
How to connect this history to American constitutional law, and then operationalize this distinction doctrinally, will be the subject of the next post.
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One problem with church autonomy (and accountability), is how does a non-church person, e.g. infidel, heretic, atheist, etc., receive justice when they are the victim of a church person's crime?
Does the infidel's/heretic's word even count in a church/religious proceeding?
Suppose an atheist rape victim refusing to swear on the bible.
Suppose a religion didn't outlaw rape.
Where do non-religious people go for retribution?
From the first blog post in this series:
You seem to think that church autonomy means a church, or its members, are immune to civil and criminal liability under generally applicable laws. Why?
"What mattered was whether particular substantive issues—theft, marriage, baptism—belonged in the jurisdiction of the church or of the state."
It's the point of this blog.
And the clear point of the series is that theft belongs in the jurisdiction of the state while baptism belongs in the jurisdiction of the church. (Marriage is a trickier example because that has both religious and secular purposes and components.)
Does a heretic's word count in a church proceeding? Of course not - and why would that matter to the state (or any other outsider) when arguing over purely church issues like baptism?
Marriage is a trickier example because that has both religious and secular purposes and components.
Here is a case that goes into that. Klagsbrun v. Va'ad Harabonim of Greater Monsey, 53 F. Supp. 2d 732 (D.N.J. 1999). https://cite.case.law/f-supp-2d/53/732/
Plaintiff was an Orthodox Jew. He divorced his wife civilly, but not through a religious divorce. He remarried. The board of local rabbis denounced him as a bigamist. He sues for defamation.
The court dismissed the case for lack of subject matter jurisdiction, holding that the Establishment Clause forbade it, as a secular US Court, from opining on the religious question of whether the plaintiff acted wrongly.
Religions were marrying people for millenia before government insinuated itself. Even then, it's to pick up the pieces in a divorce, really, even if it define benefits.
But this has nothing to do with religion marrying people. This always puzzled me about objections to gay marriage. They meant civil marriage, nor religious. Some religions don't have it. Curiously, others do.
In other words, what do you care what the state does, as religious is the only real marriage?
Eh, not really. Go back far enough and couples were forming family groups (what we would now call common-law marriages) even before the invention of organized religions. Marriage as an institution exists even in civilizations that don't have sacraments or any of the trappings that we generally associate with organized religions. It has always been something that both the church and the government (through the need to control inheritance, etc) have been involved with equally. (Note that this analysis is complicated by the fact that at many points in history, the church was the government.)
In other words, religious is not the only "real" marriage. It's only an artifact of our judeo-christian heritage that we sometimes think so.
The short answer is, to the extent the secular courts have authority, you go to secular court. (If we are talking about crime, you have to first go to the prosecutor's office, since in the US we do not have private criminal prosecutions.) To the extent they don't you are out of luck.
That begs the question of where to draw the line between the two.
Suppose a Sunday school teacher suddenly decides the whole thing is farce and becomes an atheist. She announces that to the world. The church that runs the Sunday school decides to fire her as how can she teach children about religion she does not believe in.
Do you think she should have redress in secular courts? Assume that if this was a secular job -- say, a teacher in a public school -- then firing her would be unlawful discrimination.
Yes and no. I would say that a chemistry teacher who suddenly decides she no longer believes in the periodic table could be fired, because how do you teach science if you don't believe in it. In both her case, and the case of the atheist Sunday School teacher, the problem is that they've been hired to teach certain things, and actually believing those things yourself makes you better able to teach them. So in both cases, a person's world view in indeed a legitimate job requirement.
The thornier question is religious institutions who decide that every job in their organization -- janitor, bus driver, bookkeeper, cook -- is a religious job because everyone who works there should be a positive role model. Objectively, there's no good reason an atheist can't be just as competent at cleaning bathrooms as a believer, but if your claim is that being a Christian organization requires that everyone working there be a Christian, and adhere to Christian values (as you understand them), that's a different issue.
As a child, I attended a Christian school. One of the teachers had an affair with a cook. Both of them were fired.
They were fired under moral turpitude reasons. Their belief or non belief in any religious principles were irrelevant. At one time, the standard practice was for female teachers to be single and non dating - both secular and non secular teachers. Look up Sheboygan County Wi in the mid 70s. DA Jones prosecuted several teachers for cohabitation when their date was seen to be leaving in the morning.
Right now, the Green Bay area is having problems with the Norbertine Order responding to accusations of sexual assault by priests. There is sufficient proof of several such assaults. The Order insists they should handle the matter. The State AG has initiated an investigation. The Order has been uncooperative.
I'm not sure you can separate belief from practice that way. What one person calls moral turpitude another calls living out the values of secular humanism.
Perhaps. But as an employee of a church, there is an implicit understanding that moral turpitude means what is generally understood as such by church standards.
Even in the secular world, behavior that would be acceptable in one context is not in another. It should come as no surprise that a school employing a teacher for grade-school children expects a different standard of behavior than a strip-club employing performers.
"Complementary" principles, I think.
Yup
Or maybe these principles are free with purchase of an entree with a regular menu price of $6.95 or higher.
I compliment your correct.
Meant to say, I compliment your correction.
I don't see any tension or conflict.
I spent years defending the Catholic Church in sexual abuse cases and have done a number of CLE's on it. I hadn't been defending the accused abuser himself, but the local parish, and sometimes the allegation was of defective training which allowed or even encouraged later abuse. It's easy to allege (and I think this is true) that restricting the priesthood to celibate males creates an incubator for abusers. But the demarcation is clear: priest training is not something the courts get involved in. Their only role is in examining common law negligence: did they have notice of abusing tendencies? notice of past abuse? etc. There are some reported cases on this.
What has also long been clear is that the Church has given up on claiming jurisdiction over crimes committed by priests. (That was the immediate bone of contention between Henry II and Becket: a priest had been accused of rape, and Becket wanted him tried in ecclesiastical courts.)
That said, there is a lot of "burrowing" that a secular court will allow into the Church's inner workings. For example, it is proper to inquire into John Paul II's deafness to the reports in the 1980's from Fr. Thomas Doyle and others as to known instances of abuse being covered up. Fr. Doyle himself later became a widely-sought expert in abuse cases on plaintiff's side. I've had to rebut (or try to) rebut some of his contentions in particular cases.
There are some conservative churches that insist that the state has no jurisdiction over them at all, even to the point of rejecting building codes and fire codes.
They wouldn’t get far in New York. Even “grandfathering” and “landmark” provisions have limited scope.
The problem I have with a lot of these posts is that they are too abstract. Until you apply the concepts to actual issues -- this issue a secular court may decide, this one it may not -- then you are only left with religious and anti-religious impulses and prejudices.
I agree. Posts like this are improved with the addition of some examples (hard cases and easy cases) that elucidate the issues.
There's also the philosophical problem where people win an election, and get to set policy, then declare their policy synonymous with great government interest authorized to step on religion as long as its coincidental.
Treating this concept as already-received wisdom aids their power goals. Not coincidentally.
Bored Lawyer, I read the NJ cite above. Thanks for that. Let me pick your brain for a moment.
Are you aware of any case that has circumstances similar to this:
Priest A is the pastor of Church A. Priest A states that in conformance with Church A tradition and beliefs, there will be same sex weddings in the Church. Same Sex couple A is married. Some time passes. Now Priest B assumes the pulpit of Church A. Same Sex couple B now wishes to be married in the Church. Priest B states that in conformance with Church A tradition and beliefs, there will be NO same sex weddings in the Church.
Essentially, a policy change. Does Couple B have cause for action? Are you aware of anything like this happening?
XY,
Seems like this sort of thing may have happened in some synagogues with respect to interfaith marriage.
IANAL but it's hard for me to see any grounds for a lawsuit. How can you sue a religious organization for changing a doctrine of some sort?
I actually had that in mind, bernard11 = this sort of thing may have happened in some synagogues with respect to interfaith marriage
Maybe 'arbitrary and capricious interpretation' of an existing doctrine? I mean, it is a total stretch...for sure.
I am just wondering if there is any case law on it. This church autonomy series is very interesting. Lotsa interesting sidebar questions that have never really been addressed.
I agree with bernard11 that the would-be couple would have no claim.
If the church is part of a parent body, the parent body might well have a legal claim that it the local church is deviating from national doctrine. Arguably, it would have to divest its association, and maybe there would be property issues as well.
A tougher question would be if Priest B comes in and tells Couple A that their marriage is invalid. Absent additional facts (like Priest A collecting a big fee from Couple A to perform the wedding in the first place), I doubt Couple A has any recourse. I also assume that Priest B's statement would not affect the validity of any civil marriage of Couple A presided over by Priest A.