The 3rd Circuit Considers Whether Nonviolent Crimes Justify the Loss of Second Amendment Rights
Because of a misdemeanor welfare fraud conviction, Bryan Range is no longer allowed to own guns.

Back in 1995, Bryan Range pleaded guilty to fraudulently obtaining $2,458 in food stamps by misrepresenting his income. He returned the money, paid a $100 fine and $288 in court costs, and served three years of probation.
Although Range did not realize it, that Pennsylvania misdemeanor conviction also came with a lifelong penalty: He lost his constitutional right to keep and bear arms. His case, which the U.S. Court of Appeals for the 3rd Circuit will hear next month, poses the question of whether that policy, which prohibits gun ownership by millions of Americans with no history of violence, violates the Second Amendment.
Federal law generally makes it a felony to purchase or possess a gun if you have been convicted of a crime punishable by more than a year of incarceration. When a state classifies a crime as a misdemeanor, that disqualification applies if the maximum penalty exceeds two years.
Range's crime was punishable by up to five years in prison, which meant he was no longer allowed to buy or own a firearm. When he tried to buy a deer-hunting rifle in 1998, he failed the background check.
Range figured that must have been a mistake. His wife bought him a rifle, then bought him another after the first one was destroyed in a house fire. Range later tried again to buy a gun but was again turned away, which prompted him to take a closer look at the federal prohibition, which is commonly described as applying to "felons."
After discovering that he was a "prohibited person" even though he had not been convicted of a felony, Range sold his hunting rifle to a gun dealer. But for that law, he says, he would have kept the rifle and might also have bought a shotgun for home defense.
Range's initial confusion about his status is not surprising, since the rule he inadvertently violated does not make much sense. Although it is ostensibly aimed at protecting public safety, it does not require any evidence of violent tendencies.
In a November 16 decision that was vacated last week, a 3rd Circuit panel said that policy nevertheless is "consistent with the Nation's historical tradition of firearm regulation"—the constitutional test that the Supreme Court says gun laws must pass. Surveying the history of status-based gun prohibitions from 17th-century England through ratification of the Second Amendment, the panel perceived a pattern of disarming people "who did not respect the law," whether or not they posed a violent threat.
A brief that the Firearms Policy Coalition submitted on Range's behalf reaches a strikingly different conclusion. "Historically, firearm prohibitions applied to dangerous persons," the brief says. "There is no tradition in American history of banning peaceable citizens from owning firearms."
That takes jibes with a 2019 dissent that Supreme Court Justice Amy Coney Barrett wrote as a judge on the U.S. Court of Appeals for the 7th Circuit. "Legislatures have the power to prohibit dangerous people from possessing guns," she said. "But that power extends only to people who are dangerous."
Barrett thought a felony mail fraud conviction was not enough to justify the permanent loss of Second Amendment rights. If the full 3rd Circuit agrees with Barrett's reasoning after it rehears Range's case, it is apt to conclude that the same goes for his misdemeanor welfare fraud conviction.
Although the Supreme Court has described "prohibitions on the possession of firearms by felons" as "longstanding" and "presumptively lawful," states did not begin imposing such restrictions until after World War I. Even then, the prohibitions were much narrower than the current federal rule, did not necessarily cover all firearms, and often allowed for the restoration of gun rights.
The original federal prohibition, enacted in 1938, applied only to specific "crime[s] of violence." That narrower focus, which would allow someone like Range to use guns for hunting and self-defense, is easier to defend than the "wildly overinclusive" ban that rightly troubled Barrett.
© Copyright 2023 by Creators Syndicate Inc.
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“A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed.”
Why was the decision made to preface the “right to bear arms” with “a well regulated militia”?
To suit their specific agendas people claim everything from “the two statements have no relationship” to “only people in state approved militias aka law enforcement have the right to bear arms”.
The question that requires answering is what did the founders mean at the time. To answer this we’d need to not only understand what criteria was required to join militias at the time but what did meeting that criteria mean then as well.
For example young people were far more responsible but they also had far less opportunity to act irresponsibly with technology. Could anyone who had ever been convicted of a crime join a well regulated militia?
Until we take the bias and bigotry out of our perspectives we will be blinded to understanding and will see no way to agreement.
You seem confused, police are NOT and can NOT be militia, or the FBI would not be able to operate inside the USA. Police are corporate officers given right to bear arms and use them lethally at will (under varying rules of engagement and not having to meet the same requirements as citizens to lethally do so, nothing more.
The Founding Fathers always agreed that EVERY citizen has the RIGHT to protect LIFE, LIMB AND PROPERTY using any means necessary at any time. The argument was regarding why the people needed the right to bear ARMS ( defined as weapons of war at the time and included mortar, guns, rifles, swords, cannon, grenade, Bow and Arrow, crossbow, EVERY WEAPON OF WAR.
The agreement in the letters between the Founding Fathers was simple. The people MUST be able to rise up and throw the BOOT of Government from its neck. The ONLY way for that to happen is to be armed equal to or greater than the government. The Founding Fathers agreed that the PEOPLE should NEVER be in fear of the Government, but the Government SHOULD fear the people.
The Founding Fathers also warned us, NEVER TRUST THOSE ELECTED TO RULE, NOT EVEN THEMSELVES.
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In your rant you forgot or avoided the question why the founders thought it necessary to preface the right to bear arms with the criteria of a well regulated militia.
If you’re going to respond to my question at least answer it, admit you don’t know the answer or demonstrate your specific agenda.
At the time of the Founding of the USA, the Militia was pulled from ordinary people who volunteered duty. They had the ability to use weapons and that was directly transferrable to use in military context.
Had they not been already schooled in weapons, use of weapons etc, then the training would have taken too long and been too expensive.
This translated very well even though every war we have been in. Those that had the highest awards in the battle field and did the most were also those that regularly hunted and used weapons.
The statement of the militia had NOTHING to do with the PERSONAL RIGHT to own and bear arms and use them. It was a statement that those same would be the ones that can do the most for a militia the fastest.
READ THE WORDS the words of the Founding Fathers, they left a LOT of written letters of discussion. The problem is that the courts do not look at those conversations at all. They already made the discussion and came to conclusion.
That’s your opinion with an obvious agenda.
You haven’t explained why the founders chose to preface the right to bear arms with the criteria of a WELL REGULATED militia.
You just deny it. That isn’t intelligent.
Gun-Packing governments to the people, “YOU’RE all violent criminals long before any of you ?might? actually commit a violent crime.”
It’s all in the name of *preventative maintenance* of your inherent Individual Rights by Holier than thou God-Complex-ed dictators ironically committing massive ARMED UN-Constitutional (illegal) theft daily.
You’re all guilty until proven innocent!!! /s
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Pretty soon the crimes of misgendering, misinforming, and owning a gas stove will be punishable by 1 year + 1 day in prison. Problem solved!
Regarding the gas stove, will that punishment be mandatory or will there be a range? An issue to be put on the front burner for sure.
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While the element they want to add to the discussion is electrifying, it is not wanted. At leas tthey won’t be gaslighting us.
Just living in certain progressive states currently results in the loss of 2A rights.
It depends. Do you believe that any excuse to restrict gun ownership is a Good Thing?
"It depends. Do you believe that any excuse to restrict gun ownership is a Good Thing?"
For a person convicted of a violent felony, who hasn't completed their sentence, yeah.
As far as other instances, I always ponder the question: if a person is "too dangerous" to be allowed to own a gun, what the hell is said person doing out of prison?
Somehow, a small-time welfare cheat doesn't make me real nervous walking the street.
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I would look to standards that apply to soldiers and their weapons to determine the outer limits of the 2ndA, because parity between the civilian population and the armed forces is the actual point of the right. If the military does not use a particular kind of weapon, it becomes hard to argue civilians need it either. If the military would consider a mental condition to be disqualifying a member from a combat role, it's not crazy to think the same standard should apply to the "unorganized militia".
'"If the military does not use a particular kind of weapon, it becomes hard to argue civilians need it either."'
I would say that the standard for weaponry could be taken a bit further: One could use the "organized militia" vs the "unorganized militia," rather than "the military."(Note: I don't necessarily support this, but future courts might lean that way, especially if fully-automatic weapons bans come in to play.)
"'If the military would consider a mental condition to be disqualifying a member from a combat role, it’s not crazy to think the same standard should apply to the “unorganized milit'ia”."'
No. Just because someone is deemed "unsuitable for combat" due to a mental health condition doesn't mean they are necessarily "dangerous to themselves or others," which is the standard criteria today. And it certainly doesn't mean those folks give up the basic right to self-defense.
This doubly important as today's "Medical Psychology Complex" tends to "identify" and label more and more "mental" conditions."
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Where is the logical conclusion of this? Is it a violation of murder's and rapist's rights to deny them guns as well?
Can you prohibit them from exercising free speech? Do they not have the right to speedy trial? Can you force them to house troops in their dwelling?
your rights dont go away because of a conviction.
They certainly have the right to freedom of speech and a speedy trial after conviction. Housing troops in a dwelling is a moot part of the Constitution and you know it. Rights like freedom of movement, freedom to engage in commerce and in some cases the "right to life" do go away because of a conviction. We have criminal statutes on the books for a good reason.
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This article seems to argue that professional thieves should be licensed to carry guns as long as they are not currently in prison.
I would favor a compromise between this and a lifetime ban: most non-violent felons could apply for a gun license 10 years after release from prison, provided they have led an honest life in the meantime (no further trouble with the law, supporting themselves by honest and visible means).
Is this the sort of person the author wants to give a carry permit? Crime he was convicted of was non-violent, but a life of swindling and stealing.
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