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Federal Appeals Court Rules Takings Clause Creates Cause of Action Even Without Additional Federal or State Legislation
Victims of uncompensated takings can sue directly under the Constitution. The case involved uncompensated seizure of horses.

A horse is a horse, of course, of course…. unless the horse is the focus of a major takings case, in which a federal court will generate over 100 pages of opinions regarding whether the owner can sue under the Takings Clause to be compensated for its seizure.
The case of Fulton v. Fulton County, recently decided by the US Court of Appeals for the 11th Circuit, arose because Fulton County, Georgia authorities sought to charge Brandon Fulton (no relation to the person the county is named after) with animal cruelty. In the process, they seized his horses. Ultimately, the charges were dropped, but county authorities refused to return Fulton's horses, or compensate him for them.
For various procedural reasons, he could not sue for compensation under either state law or federal statutes. Therefore, he sought to sue directly under the Takings Clause of the Fifth Amendment, which requires "just compensation" whenever the government takes "private property." The issue of whether the Takings Clause is "self-executing" - whether people can sue under it in the absence of legislation authorizing a remedy - is one the Supreme Court avoided addressing last year in DeVillier v. Texas (where they held they did not have to reach it because the plaintiff had a remedy under Texas state law, which cold be pursued even in federal court).
The Eleventh Circuit has now addressed the issue in this case, in a divided 2-1 decision, which generated over 100 pages of opinions. To my mind, however, the issue is readily resolved by clear and simple points made early in Judge Robin Rosenbaum's compelling majority opinion:
In Greek mythology, the Greek gods condemned Tantalus to eternal hunger and thirst, all while forcing him to forever stand in a shallow pool of water under a tree with low hanging fruit. Though the remedy for Tantalus's hunger and thirst was right at
hand, he could not take advantage of it. The water receded when Tantalus bent down to drink, and the fruit rose to just above his grasp when Tantalus tried to reach it.Our Founders did not do to us what the Greek gods did to Tantalus. Our Constitution explicitly promises exactly two remedies: "just compensation" if the government takes our property, and the writ of habeas corpus if it tries to take our lives or liberty. And the Constitution delivers directly on each. It doesn't taunt us by naming these remedies but then holding them out of reach, depending on the whims of the legislature.
So even if Congress doesn't legislate a procedure by which a person can obtain one of these remedies, the Constitution's promise is not illusory. A person can bring a case directly invoking either constitutional remedy….
The Dissent responds by saying we are "creat[ing] a new right of action" and leaving "constitutional wreckage in the wake…." But its answer that the Takings Clause includes no direct cause of action ignores the original public meaning of the Clause and transforms the Constitution's promise of "just compensation" into nothing more than a Tantalus-type taunt. Most respectfully, we don't think that's "judicial humility…"; we think it's judicial abdication. We have a duty to apply the Constitution as written. So we respectfully decline to read out of the Constitution the relief it expressly promises for taken property.
The Framers of the Fifth and Fourteenth Amendments provided a real remedy in "just compensation" for government takings. They guaranteed the ability to recover "just compensation" directly under the Constitution.
I completely agree! The Takings Clause says the government must pay just compensation whenever it takes private property. No ifs, ands, or buts. And no exception for cases where Congress and state governments don't legislate a remedy. The whole point of a constitutional right is to constrain the powers of government. Thus, it makes no sense to give that very same government the power to nullify the right in question by failing to provide a legislative remedy.
Moreover, as detailed in the amicus brief I filed in DeVillier (along with the Cato Institute), in Knick v. Township of Scott (2019), the Supreme Court made clear that victims of takings have a right to bring Takings Clause cases directly in federal court, and cannot be relegated to state court (see also my article about Knick and its significance). Still less can they be kept out of court entirely, as would have happened to Mr. Fulton if the Takings Clause were not self-executing.
In dissent, Judge William Pryor argues that Fulton failed to take advantage of various alternative ways to bring a claim. To the extent these alternative paths were in state court, they cannot vitiate his right to bring a claim in federal court. Knick rightly held that federal constitutional takings plaintiffs have a right to go to federal court, as is also true of victims of other constitutional rights violations (see my article on Knick for additional reasons why this is a vital principle). As Judge Rosenbaum notes, "the Takings Clause promises a federal remedy independent of the whims of states."
As Judge Pryor recognizes, Fulton tried to sue under Section 1983 of the federal Civil Rights Act of 1871, but the suit was dismissed for procedural reasons. Thus, he had no available federal remedy, other than one directly under the Constitution. Even if a statutory path was also available, that should not preclude the constitutional path.
I am also not much impressed by Judge Pryor's argument that there is a paucity of cases where takings cases were brought directly under the Constitution in the early republic. At that time, the Bill of Rights only applied against the federal government, and that government was not generally understood to have the power of eminent domain. Almost all takings were conducted by state and local governments. Even after the enactment of the Fourteenth Amendment made the Bill of Rights applicable to state governments in 1868, it took courts many decades to recognize that the Takings Clause applies to states and localities. This history is discussed in much greater detail in Chapter 2 of my book The Grasping Hand: Kelo v. City of New London and the Limits of Eminent Domain.
Judge Pryor relies extensively on the amicus brief filed by legal scholars James Ely and Julia Mahoney, and Prof. Mahoney's other writings. He rightly calls them "renowned legal scholars." But the Ely-Mahoney brief actually cuts against his position. It argues that a direct constitutional remedy is required by the Fifth and Fourteenth Amendments whenever "there are no existing procedures to provide just compensation or the existing procedures are inadequate." This is just such a case.
In most controversial takings cases, conservative judges tend to side with the pro-property rights side, while more liberal ones tend to support the government. Here, the usual alignments are flipped. Judge Rosenbaum is a liberal Obama appointee, and Judge Nancy Abudu (the other judge in the majority) is a liberal appointed by Biden. Judge Pryor is a prominent conservative judge appointed by George W. Bush. Perhaps differences on property rights are outweighed here by differences over the scope of permissible remedies (conservative judges tend to be more wary of broad remedies for rights claimants than liberal ones).
Regardless, the liberal judges are right here, and Judge Pryor - whose work I otherwise greatly respect - is badly wrong. The Takings Clause means what it says, and neither Congress nor a state government can nullify it by failing to legislate a remedy.
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Well no. The takings clause says that a taking without compensation is unconstitutional. (Because, logically, a taking with compensation isn't really a meaningful taking, because the person is no worse off.) The Constitution says nothing about remedies, anymore than it does elsewhere in the Bill of Rights.
I think Bivens actions are great, and the US courts shouldn't be shy about developing the common law of the constitution in that direction, but let's not pretend that that's not what they did here.
That's pretty trivially not true. Under the Fifth Amendment, if a government wanted to take my house, it should compensate me the fair market value of it. (Technically, this is the most the government has to pay; see, for example, United States v. Cors, 337 U.S. 325 (1949).) However, my house is not on the market because I value it more than fair market value. Compensation according to prevent would thus make me worse off, even ignoring the time and effort I would need to spend to secure a replacement. This is the typical situation for home and business owners.
Relatedly, people often dispute what constitutes fair market value for their property (or property rights). Governments do not want to, and should not, overpay for takings. There will thus be disputes over "just compensation" for a number of takings.
I understand that better than you do. But I was just summarising the high level intuition behind the takings clause. (Which was, of course, written by people who had no (sound) theory of value at all.)
"written by people who had no (sound) theory of value at all."
Eurotrash arrogance.
He probably subscribes to Marx's labor theory of value.
There is no end to the duplicity of statists in general and leftists more specifically.
If you're going to call people Marxist, you should probably learn what Marx actually said.
Everyone subscribes to the labor theory of value these days, which predates Marx and which he didn't really refine so much as popularize and draw fraught conclusions from.
No, only Marxists subscribe to the labor theory of value today. Yes, it did precede him, even Adam Smith thought so. But it is thoroughly discredited today.
As one simple stupid example, I could spend ten hours producing firewood which would take anyone else a single hour. No one in his right mind except Marxists thinks I should be paid ten times as much for ten times the labor.
And P.S. I didn't call Martinned a Marxist. I dare you to quote my exact words showing to the contrary. You can't. You are a liar.
"I didn't call him a Marxist; I accused him of holding Marxist views" is really lame.
It's even lamer that you feel so sorry for Sarcadtr0 that you have to come to his defense.
Let me refresh your memory.
One view, only, not plural. And "probably". You lawyers like to quibble, so quibble your way out of those errors of commission.
"only Marxists subscribe to the labor theory of value today"
Oh, excellent! You quoted from my comment which was a reply to your lie as support for your lie.
God you are dumb.
Sarcastro : “Everyone subscribes to the labor theory of value these days.”
You really do need to get out a bit more.
I know you were just trolling, but for the record: I'm a big fan of property rights. I just think that the US Constitution doesn't protect them as well as it should.
To be fair the Austrian theory of subjective value is European, rational and post dates the Constitution by a century.
You ABSOLUTELY DO NOT understand that, even as well as you admit Michael P does, and he understands it far better than you admit.
The only thing you were summarizing is your LACK of understanding of the Takings Clause. You also proved you have ZERO understanding of what anyone in the founding era understood.
"However, my house is not on the market because I value it more than fair market value."
More accurately, the fair market value for a property that's not on the market is undefined. Since the market value is simply the price which a willing buyer pays to a willing seller, and neither exists in the case of a property not on the market.
Anyway, the takings clause doesn't speak of market values, but instead "just compensation".
Not that that can't be gamed. One of the big 3 built a new plant, and the city of Detroit did eminent domain on some other buildings and plants in the way. My dad was a supervisor at a factory across the way. They watched as the old plant owner imported all kinds of machinery, which got eminented along with the building.
The city has no use for it, of course, so it sold off the machinery. Most was bought by the same people it got taken from, for 4 cents on the dollar.
It does say about remedies: that's why they have courts.
All restrictions on the government and recognition of rights are self-executing because otherwise they are worthless, as even our own history has shown
I couldn't agree more. But just because you and I both believe that doesn't mean it's what the Constitution says. Otherwise the Constitution wouldn't allow Congress to take jurisdiction over matters away from the lower courts, for example.
A newfound implied cause of action in the Constitution? How many of the Republican-appointed justices on the current Supreme Court will get on board with that idea? I would bet the farm the answer is zero. The Court all but overruled Bivens in Egbert v. Boule (2022), Gorsuch explicitly saying he would overrule it in his concurrence. This decision will not survive appellate review.
Is the 14th Amendment not self-executing? Its Section 5 seems to imply not.
Yet the text of the 14th seems as clear as the 1st.
Whereas the fifth is more direct, leaving Congress out of the path.
Is the 1st amendment self-executing but the 14th not?
My thought is that Section 5 just means Congress can specify how but that doesn't limit self-execution
But can't Congress always specify how? What made the 14th so special that they had to spell it out?
The 14th amendment is drafted primarily as a set of restrictions on state government. Nothing elsewhere in the constitution authorizes Congress to "specify how" state governments have to behave. And the 14th isn't special; the 13th and 15th say the same thing. As do the 18th, 19th, 23rd, 24th, and 26th.
Normally rights against state governments are vindicated in state courts, but the 14th amendment involved some states not being trusted to do that vindicating, so federal enforcement was required as a backstop. But that required federal laws to enforce.
Hence Section 5 to authorize those laws.
It’s swords and shields. A right is self-executing when being used as a shield against enforcement actions. But a cause of action is required to use it as a sword for injunctive relief. That’s because the court the case is heard in has to have a jurisdictional mechanism to hear the case.
I fail to see how this will advance the cause of open borders.
LOL it is surprising Illlllllya cares about this
AFAIC the existence of a specified right automatically implies the existence of a remedy with no further legislation needed. Many people disagree and they are all wrong. A right you cannot in practice exercise without further legislation is a nullity - proven trivially in that such legislation itself would not require a pre-existing right at all to be effective.
Then why are at least some parts of the 14th Amendment not self-executing? I have no sources, but I remember some lawyers quibbling about Section 5 ("The Congress shall have power to enforce, by appropriate legislation, the provisions of this article.") meaning that it was not self-executing, otherwise why include Section 5? But like you said, that implies Sections 1-4 are pointless and Congress could repeal the enforcing legislation and render the 14th null.
Are you sure that's the purpose of that kind of clause? Could Congress pass laws protecting rights (as in governments are instituted amongst men to secure these rights) without an explicit grant of power to do so? We like government that only does things it is granted power to do.
That isn't the same thing as requiring legislation before you can sue if government violates those rights itself.
That almost seems like a contradiction, which is kind of the OP's point.
I'm not at all sure. I have seen arguments that the 14th is meaningless without those enforcing laws, same as treaties are meaningless without Congress passing laws implementing their provisions.
Either way, yes, it seems like Section 5 and Sections 1-4 are contradictory. Either 5 is redundant, or it allows Congress to nullify 1-4 by not passing enforcing laws.
That's what I'm asking about.
I think that's the typical Lawyer type argument – arguing over things that are minutia that don't actually matter. All rights are self executing, but section 5 does give Congress extra power to add more enforcement. It doesn't remove the self execution, just adds to it. That's the proper way to read it if you're not a dumb Lawyer.
Because 14A is a grab bag of sections, some of which - e.g., public debt - are not about rights
Bingo. This isn't hard. All rights are self-executing otherwise they are entirely worthless. Anybody arguing differently just doesn't wanna respect the rights at all. Which is exactly what our courts have done plenty of times in our history.
And § 3 isn’t a right, but rather a limitation.
Wow! Illlllllla actually gets one right! Maybe there is hope for him after all
I think highly developed animals like horses should have rights protections. The government should not be limited to protecting them by treating them as "property."
The whole matter was not quite so simple here. The majority opinion is over 70 pages long. The dissent is about 35 pages long.
As a principle, I like "all rights have a remedy," but the particulars are not always so clean. Some rights are not "self-executing,"* but the government does ultimately have a duty to enforce the Taking Clause as much as the First Congress had a duty to enforce the writ of habeas corpus.
The OP is also not just concerned about a remedy. As the dissent notes, there are remedies available. It wants a specific one. Note that the issue at hand specifically is the Fourteenth Amendment. The Taking Clause is being applied to the states.
At that time, the Bill of Rights only applied against the federal government, and that government was not generally understood to have the power of eminent domain.
To the contrary, see PENNEAST PIPELINE CO., LLC v. NEW JERSEY ET AL. (2021), which noted that "Since the founding, the United States has used its eminent domain authority to build a variety of infrastructure projects." Roberts provides the history.
I will remain agnostic on the specific result of this case.
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* I speak as a general matter regarding "rights" overall.
For instance, treaties bring with them rights. There are both self-executing treaties and non-self-executing treaties.
The OP argues that: As Judge Rosenbaum notes, "the Takings Clause promises a federal remedy independent of the whims of states." Where is this "federal remedy" going to come from?
I suppose from the federal courts, created by Congress.
Where has any property been taken for public use?
If the horses were improperly taken with an eye to protect them from abuse which could not be proved, why is this not a case to get the horses back? Why is it a 5th amendment case at all?
The public use effected by the government taking is the public interest in animal welfare. Use can mean more than simply having the animal pull government vehicles, or turning hooves into glue.
Animal welfare was the surely the stated purpose of the law empowering the government to take the animals. That is the public use.
Gasman — That proves too much. It would make every fine or forfeiture of property a public use subject to a 5A remedy.
Might this analysis be applied to civil asset forfeiture?
The horses were not "taken for public use" as far as I can tell. The owner was accused of wrongdoing, his property was seized as a result, the charges were dropped, but the property was not returned.
Sounds more like civil asset forfeiture than "taking for public use".
Civil asset forfeiture becomes public use the moment the seized money (or seized object sold for money) winds up in government coffers.
I thought SCOTUS actually *had* already said the 5th amendment just-compensation guarantee is *not* self-executing. And if so, while I agree with the panel result here, I do have to say "sorry, try again".
It seems to me that more and more people and groups are promoting the view that much of the Constitution consists of suggestions rather than proclamations. It also seems to me that the strategy is to chip away at whatever in the Constitution one doesn't like, rather than work through the difficult, chancy, and expensive Amendment process. The most obvious instance of this was the SCOTUS decision in Heller. Rather than recommending that 2A should be formally amended, the court decided to simply ignore the troublesome phrase which included the troublesome words "well-regulated militia".
As decisions founded on amateur historical research efforts, Heller and all its spawn got the history egregiously wrong. On a formal basis, that maybe ought to mean they are zombie decisions, walking dead until opposition can assemble political power sufficient to topple them.
Problem is, the results of those decisions are approved by one faction of a somewhat-evenly divided populace. That practically rules out correction by amendment. It also makes reversing the Heller power play extremely difficult even as a matter of ordinary politics.
And of course the Supreme Court in its present configuration will not tolerate effort to constrain its habitual misuse of history. Way too much now depends on decrees that the past demands results which present-minded justices prefer.
Lathrop, ANY constitutional decision upholding or mooting ANY part of the Constitution is a "zombie" decision in that sense. The Constitution is composed 100% of 'parchment barriers', and an historical basis that Stephen Lathrop approves of provides no more immunity to sustained political pressure than an historical basis Stephen Lathrop disapproves of. Judicial history demonstrates that the courts are perfectly capable of rationalizing away any text that lacks enough public support, utterly regardless of how much history they must ignore.
Your problem is that there has never been a time in the US when the 2nd amendment wasn't understood by the general population to secure a substantial private right to arms, and didn't have widespread support. And the failure of the establishment media's preference falsification at the dawn of the internet means that the public knows this, and people who understand and support the 2nd amendment can't be gaslighted into thinking they're outliers again and keeping quiet.
Persuading jurists, who are hardly representative of the general public, to adopt the contrary position, is NOT an uphill climb. But in the teeth of popular support for the 2nd amendment, it just can't be stable. That's why, for instance, concealed carry reform spread democratically across most of the nation WITHOUT the support of the judiciary.
There are a few states where your views might prevail, if they were independent of the nation as a whole. But they're not, and you have to expect, given public opinion on the matter, that the outlier states will be brought in line on this topic, just as they would be if they decided to attack any other civil liberty. It's just going to take longer for THIS civil liberty, because the legal community happens not to like it.
When leftists aren't arguing that the Founders of this country were evil, backward racists who were wrong about everything, they're arguing that same group of troglodytes drafted a Constitution designed to always produce outcomes in line with modern left-wing dogma. Schrodinger's founders: irredeemably backwards, yet at the same time, preternaturally forward-thinking.
Oh no, they were evil racists but not backward. More importantly, they created a Constitution with a lot of open norms, that were always intended to evolve using the common law method. (Cruel & unusual punishment, due process of law, etc.)
Yes, that is generally so, noting also that especially with the Founders of the 14th Amendment, there were some who were not even "evil racists."
Lincoln had a good line about how the Founders were looking to the future. One notable thing is how they were embarrassed even to say "slavery" in the Constitution. Compare the Confederate Constitution.
Bellmore — Your argument reads like something you got out of Guns and Ammo.
You have no idea whether the history you posit is correct, so I will help you out—no nationwide view on 2A protection for anything but a militia purpose was widespread at the time of the founding. And the 2A was not interpreted at the time of the founding to protect private use of arms for any purpose but a militia purpose.
Also, there was state-to-state disagreement about what a proper militia purpose might be, so no consensus on that point is identifiable in the historical record. What is clear is that various states used their own constitutions to define protected uses for arms in various ways. Nobody then expected the federal constitution to interfere with that.
So what you are left with is an argument founded on present-day national political power, used in your preference with an eye to create a national standard you approve of. You want to see the courts impose that on everyone.
But the present-day populace of the nation—as opposed to a state-by-state tally which discounts to zero the gun control advocates in red states, and pro-gun advocates in blue states—is at best evenly divided on gun control questions. It is not clear whether that division is trending one way or another. What resolution the future may bring to that question is of course unknowable.
But no matter what those facts actually are, or how they are trending, there is no basis in history, or in American constitutionalism prior to Heller, to support a notion of private arms protection for any but a militia purpose. That basis must be looked for in state constitutions.
The fraught question of gun control is thus for the present too evenly divided to expect anything like the resolution you predict. Which means the national policy on guns now remains in some ways similar to the one which prevailed at the time of the founding. It is an uncertain policy which varies from state to state, in accord with the preferences of their respective citizens.
Look, Lathrop, I've read enough of the relevant history, (Often in books written by Conspirators like Halbrook or Kopel.) to know you're full of it. The writings of people like Patrick Henry and Tench Coxe are widely distributed, they're not secret.
I get that you really dislike the 2nd amendment, but if I can refrain from letting my dislike of the 16th amendment turn me into one of those "sovereign citizen" idiots, you can man up and respond rationally to your dislike of the 2nd amendment.
There's a reason Belesilles had to commit fraud to support his thesis, you know. Sometimes the evidence is just not on your side, and the measure of a man's rationality and honesty is how he responds to that discovery.
Bellmore — Whenever you mention Bellesiles, you persist in a logical fallacy that because he lied about sources, and thus failed to prove his case, that means a case to the contrary must be true. That is nonsensical reasoning.
Any case to the contrary must stand on its own, using methods as rigorous as those you rightly demand from Bellesiles. Until you do that, your assertions are boatmates to those from Bellesiles.
Without understanding you are doing it, you imitate Bellesiles. Like him, you make stuff up, without historical basis, but pretend otherwise.
As opposed to your amateur historical research efforts?
Don't get in over your head Nieporent. I defer to your training as a legal expert. I got graduate training in historical research methods from experts you would probably be wise enough to defer to. I am not making stuff up, just passing it along.
Not a litigator here, but I don't understand why the Takings clause is the proper mode of analysis.
The problem with Prof S's broad reading of Takings is that it also implies that the Govt has the right to take anything it wants, as long as it pays fair compensation. I do not believe that is correct. Takings are by their terms limited to takings 'for public use.'
This case seems far better suited to a deprivation of property without due process under the 14th Amendment. Under Section 1983, that would (I think) give rise to a claim for damages rather than just restititution, which would seem completely appropriate here.
The author is addressing a specific aspect of the Taking Clause. Be sure, he is firmly on board with "public use" being limited, including being a strong critic of Kelo.
To be technical, it's going to be a due process issue anyhow, since, as a state practice, the Takings Clause is incorporated via the DPC. But, I know you are not talking about that.
Based on his earlier posts, Prof S has a very idiosyncratic view of the Takings Clause. Among other things, he thinks most regulations, including zoning, constitute a 5A taking. Moreover, he thinks that a proper remedy for such a 5A taking is to declare the taking "unconstitutional" and therefore void, rather than granting the "victims" a right to compensation.
At that time, the Bill of Rights only applied against the federal government, and that government was not generally understood to have the power of eminent domain.
By the actual language of the amendments now known as the Bill of Rights, the protections they provide has ALWAYS applied to ALL levels of government. The amendments state certain rights shall not be violated. They DO NOT state WHO shall not violate them.
By the actual language of the 14th amendment, it CANNOT expand protections to levels of government they did not already apply to. Not protecting ANYONE at the state level is equal protection. In short, the Equal Protection Clause, states any given level of government must treat everyone the same. It says NOTHING about how anyone must be treated.