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May Judge Order Divorcing Parent to Include Disclaimer With All Future Child Abuse Allegations?
A trial judge had found that the mother had "intentionally weaponized" child abuse reports, and required her to so state in any future child abuse allegations made to authorities.
In last week's Peterson v. Rush (Pa. Super. Ct.), the trial court had given shared legal and physical custody of a daughter to the mother and father, but also stated this:
I am, therefore, going to order Mother that, to the extent that she has concerns over child abuse, obviously any concerns regarding child abuse need to be reported to authorities, but they must now be reported with a disclaimer [(Disclaimer)]: "The [c]ourt made a finding of fact at the conclusion of a one-day trial on September 10, 2024, that Mother has intentionally weaponized the [Protection From Abuse], I[ndirect] C[riminal] C[ontempt], and child abuse process[es] in an effort to gain an advantage in custody proceedings." Mother should then further inform the providers that: "Nevertheless, all legitimate allegations or concerns of child abuse should be fully investigated as required by law." I am ordering Mother to make those two statements in any further child abuse reports so that a proper context is had….
On appeal, Judge Anne Lazarus, joined by Judge Timika Lane, upheld this condition:
Because Mother did not raise or even suggest a free speech claim in her Rule 1925(b) statement, the issue is waived on appeal. However, even if we did not find this issue waived, Mother would not be entitled to relief. {First Amendment protections historically encompass prohibitions on speech as opposed to compelled speech. See In the Int. of J.J.M. (Pa. 2021) ("First Amendment 'made applicable to the States through the Fourteenth Amendment, provides that 'Congress shall make no law … abridging the freedom of speech.'"); citing U.S. CONST. amend. I. In any event, the court was justified in requiring Mother to disclose the information contained within the Disclaimer where it bears directly upon "the important governmental interest of protecting the psychological and emotional well-being of Child[.]" S.B. v. S.S. (Pa. 2020).}
Judge Mary Jane Bowes dissented on this point:
Mother plainly raised a civil rights challenge in her statement, which the trial court understood to reproach the order's infringement on her right to freedom of speech. As such, I do not deem waiver to apply….
[T]he Supreme Court … has held time and again that "the right of freedom of thought protected by the First Amendment against state action includes both the right to speak freely and the right to refrain from speaking at all." Wooley v. Maynard (1977)…. "It is … a basic First Amendment principle that freedom of speech prohibits the government from telling people what they must say." … "There is certainly some difference between compelled speech and compelled silence, but in the context of protected speech, the difference is without constitutional significance, for the First Amendment guarantees 'freedom of speech,' a term necessarily comprising the decision of both what to say and what not to say." …
[T]he Majority alternatively states that, "[i]n any event, the court was justified in requiring Mother to disclose the information contained within the Disclaimer where it bears directly upon 'the important governmental interest of protecting the psychological and emotional well-being of Child[.]'" It is beyond peradventure that protecting children is a compelling government interest. However, that is not dispositive of Mother's claim.
In order to justify the restriction on Mother's First Amendment rights, the trial court's mandate must both rest upon an evidentiary foundation supporting the finding that the forced speech furthers that compelling state interest and be narrowly tailored to do so….
I discern no evidence that the compelling government interest in protecting Child was what prompted this aspect of the custody order…. My review of the transcript of the proceedings suggests that the trial judge instead sought to protect Father, not Child, through this directive. Although he expressed "concerns" about "alienating effects" of Mother's "weaponization" of reporting to gain an advantage in the litigation, he declined to find that Mother attempted to turn Child against Father or that Mother was less likely to attend to Child's emotional needs.
I deem a more specific evidence-based finding necessary to justify this order. Accord Rogowski v. Kirven (Pa. Super. Ct. 2023) (vacating portion of custody order restricting the child's use of the terms "mom" and "dad," and compelling the parties to correct the child if she referred to a non-biological parent by the term, because there was no finding by the trial court that "use of the terms 'Dad' and 'Daddy' to refer to Stepfather posed a tangible risk of harm to the [c]hild"); McClendon v. Long (11th Cir. 2022) (ruling sheriff's placement of signs stating "STOP" and "NO TRICK-OR-TREAT AT THIS ADDRESS" in the yards of registered sexual offenders violated the First Amendment where the government failed to offer evidence that the persons compelled to display the message "actually pose[d] a danger to trick-or-treating children or that these signs would serve to prevent such danger").
Furthermore, assuming arguendo that the order was designed to further the compelling interest of protecting Child, the certified record contains no indication that Judge Stambaugh even contemplated whether his directive was narrowly tailored to further that objective.I observe that several courts facing challenges to compelled speech have found First Amendment violations for want of narrow tailoring to achieve the goal of protecting children. See, e.g., McClendon (holding the government failed to show that the signs were narrowly tailored to "accomplish the compelling purpose of protecting children from sexual abuse" when the offenders were already under an imposed restriction to avoid trick-or-treaters); Sanderson v. Bailey (E.D. Mo. 2024) (ruling portion of state Halloween statute mandating the posting of a sign stating "no candy or treats at this residence" was unconstitutional compelled speech because it was not narrowly tailored to protect children where there were "other effective alternatives to achieve that interest").
Here, I discern no indication that the trial judge considered alternative means to achieve the goal of discouraging Mother from "weaponizing the child abuse process" rather than compelling her to state the Disclaimer the judge drafted if she made a future report of abuse. Meanwhile, I readily ascertain that he could have, for example, informed Mother that she would be held in contempt if she continued to make unfounded accusations for improper purposes, or authorized Father to disseminate that statement to the relevant authorities should he be faced with an investigation. Instead, the judge imposed a content-based restriction on Mother's free speech rights without acknowledging that they were implicated, let alone explaining why it deemed the order necessary to further his unspecified goal.
I would hold that the First Amendment requires a far more thorough foundation for the state's incursion upon Mother's "decision [about] what to say and what not to say" than what the trial judge established in this case….
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Interesting that it was apparently not in dispute that this was compelled speech. Given the circumstances it seemed much more sensible to me to consider this an example of government speech. The judge is instructing the mother to pass on a certain specific message in certain circumstances, but he's not instructing her to endorse it, or to treat it as anything other than "this is what the judge said".
(I'm thinking of this analogously to those disputes about licence plates, and licence plate messages like "live free or die". Just because it's on your car, doesn't mean it's your speech, much less compelled speech.)
Government speech is speech by the government. Compelled speech is speech by a private person at the direction of the government; perceived or actual endorsement is not the test. Your analogy is confused; being forced to display "Live Free or Die" on one's plate was held to be (unconstitutionally) compelled speech, not government speech, in Wooley v. Maynard.
To be clear, some compelled speech is permitted under the doctrine, like relevant purely factual disclaimers in a commercial context, but that's not because the speaker wasn't forced to endorse it.
So how is the judge supposed to speak to the authorities in the OP scenario, other than by attaching a disclaimer to whatever report the mother may or may not file?
Can’t he write them a letter or something?
Well, the judge could actually communicate directly with them, if he thought it appropriate.
But I'm not saying that the judge couldn't compel the mother to do as he did; I'm just saying that it is compelled speech.
But according to the appellate court, the first amendment doesn't protect against compelled speech.
And she appears to have applied the wrong level of scrutiny.
P.S. You're right that I got confused with the test. What I was trying to express was more something like a reasonable observer test, as in "would a reasonable observer understand this as the government's speech or this person's speech?"
Yeah, lots of people prefer that and/or mistakenly think it is the test, but it's generally not. Otherwise, the government could defeat almost any anti-compelled speech 1A argument by allowing the compelled party to attach a disclaimer to the speech distancing itself from the content of the speech.
This feels most closely analogous to Megan's Law sex offender disclosures as far as compelled speech goes.
The order here amounts to compelled disclosure of a true fact. There are many circumstances where the law requires such disclosure, so I don’t see a First Amendment issue. And the compelling governmental interest lies in protecting the integrity of the criminal justice process, especially in cases of child abuse.
Agreed. And particularly because the speech involved is speech that makes an official report to a government agency. As I read it, nothing in the order stops her from standing on a soap box and accusing her ex-husband of child abuse.
If she did all that, why in the world would the judge grant joint custody?
If she did all that, does her attorney suffer any consequences? I assume that the claims she has made that precipitated this order all passed through her attorney. I doubt that any attorney can responsibly shrug and claim that the client is in charge.
The growing use of "weaponized" also disturbs me. A better term is needed here.
“ The growing use of "weaponized" also disturbs me. A better term is needed here.”
That’s another problem, especially in terms of heightened scrutiny, in that the “disclaimer” doesn’t make clear what the judge found that she actually did.
I don't like the compelled speech.
That being said, it seems pretty clear that this mother continues to make false allegations of abuse and should have her custody withheld and be held in contempt of court.
I think it is subject to First Amendment analysis, but it passes it. Despite the cconstitutional right to petition the government, courts have long been able to restrict the ability of frivolous litigants to file similar cases. I don’t see this as fundamentally different.
I think there is such a thing as a frivolulous conplaint. Consider the black or Muslim family in the white neighborhood whose neighbors constantly complain they appear to be engaged in suspicious activities simply to harass them. I don’t think the First Amendment completely hamstrings the state in dealing with such a person.
The story of the boy who cried wolf is an old one. If you cry wolf enough, authorities get to prevent you from dosturbing them again, taking the risk that maybe next time there will really be a real wolf.
That said, I would have worded the required statement differently. Rather than using an interpretive opinion term like “weaponized,” I would have stuck closer to the facts, saying that the parent had repeatedly made child abuse allegations during the course of divorce proceedings which had repeatedly been found to be unsubstantiated.
I think in general state requirements to disclose truthful information, particularly in official proceedings and communications, while still protected by the first amendment, get less than strict scrutiny. The state’s interests in protecting the administration of justice and protecting people from harassment by frivolous complaints clearly justify imposing a disclosure requirement, which is considerably less onerous than an out-and-out ban on future conplaints.
What of the point that the requirement was not narrowly tailored because judge could have instead authorized the father to disseminate the disclaimer to the authorities if the father gets accused in the future, rather than compelling the mother to do so?
Curbing frivolous complaints may be a compelling state interest, but the remedy must still be narrowly tailored if it involves compelled speech, no?
Why would the father need such authorization? He can do that anyway.
The father may not be the only person against whom the mother files baseless accusations. The state has a compelling interest in ensuring fair and efficient use of law enforcement and court resources regardless of who she accuses.
Further, dad can't easily get to the paper when he's being hauled off in handcuffs. He might get exonerated after the fact but the damage to the child is done. Putting the burden on mom to notify CPS at the initial accusation improves the odds that they will approach the situation with appropriate caution and skepticism during those critical first hours.
"Narrowly tailored" cannot be so narrow that it fails to meet the actual interest at play.
"What of the point that the requirement was not narrowly tailored because judge could have instead authorized the father to disseminate the disclaimer to the authorities if the father gets accused in the future, rather than compelling the mother to do so?"
Because government officials often act on such claims before the other parent has a chance to respond.
If the state wants to know who has been found to have made false accusations, it can track that information itself. It doesn't need to compel anyone to disclose it.
If the first amendment doesn't apply to compelled speech then the government can compel me to say anything.
I would like to think a judge could work through that in their head.
Then why do I have to tell the government my income? Under oath, no less. And why did Hunter Biden have to disclose his drug use?
The speech, in this case, is the speech of the judge, not of the litigant. She's only being required to pass on the judge's message. Surely it would be understood that those weren't her words.
Sex offenders aren't required to notify neighbors when they move in, but the government is allowed to tall people - which amounts to the same thing.
The first amendment protects against being compelled to speak the government’s message as well. If Congress passed as law requiring people to say, “Trump is the best President ever” First thing in the morning, that would be unconstitutional whether it was the government’s message or not.
But the gov't can't require a private organization to include in its parade groups whose messages infringe on the private group’s messages (Hurley v. Irish-American, Gay, Lesbian, and Bisexual Group of Boston, 515 U.S. 557 (1995)), even though it would be clear that it is the paraders' message. Forcing you to include others' messages in your message changes the overall impact of your message.
Sex offenders are required to disclose their status to all potential relationships, which would clearly be compelled speech as well. But it is compelled speech of a fact (that they are a registered sex offender).
Trump can’t arrest Judges fast enough.
If this judge believes the Mom made false allegations, he can make a criminal referral, and if the authorities agree they can charge her with a crime.
This judge is just being an asshole.
Agreed, he should have removed her from any custody arrangement and added a restraining order to boot. I'm sure he thought this was kinder or perhaps something to be tossed by others but he looks like he did something.
You agree with TiP that the judge should be *arrested?*
My vibe that TiP had some kind of family law issue that made him turn shitlord continues to gather anecdotes!
As does my vibe that government employees are lazy assholes!
So refer the mom for a perjury charge - where it languishes for months at least if the prosecutor decides it's prosecutable at all. Then even if she's convicted, does she do any jail time or just face a fine? In the meantime, she's still free to continue making baseless accusations and abusing the child protective services process. Your proposal doesn't actually solve the problem except in the most extreme of circumstances. The judge may be an asshole but he's found a solution that's likely to work a lot better in the gray middle-ground of the real world.
I don't agree that the judge is an asshole or should be arrested, etc., but this order strikes me as a poor form of punishment for what the trial judge apparently regarded as a false/frivolous report of abuse. There are no repercussions whatsoever unless the mother files another abuse report. So if the point is to punish her for past conduct, that is an odd way to do it.
The point of the disclaimer seems to be "don't take this abuse allegation seriously - it's probably fake like the last one." If a hypothetical second allegation is false, this doesn't seem like punishment enough, as the new claim still has to be investigated. If the second allegation is true, the judge is making it less likely that it will be taken seriously, which could cause serious harm to the child.
And then there's the language of the disclaimer: "Nevertheless, all legitimate allegations or concerns of child abuse should be fully investigated as required by law." No, ALL allegations or concerns of child abuse should be fully investigated, unless they are frivolous on their face. The investigator can't know if it is "legitimate" without doing the investigation.
The trial court's attempt to stigmatize the mother here, while perhaps understandable, interferes in the discretion of the investigating authorities, who are in a much better position to assess the credibility of any future allegations (they will have access to her past complaints with or without the disclaimer). I think the trial judge and appellate majority have fallen victim to a symptom of robe-itis - the tendency of judges to assume they need to tell everyone else how to do their jobs.
The underlying problem is that the family courts give big incentives for bogus child abuse claims. Maybe the judges should have to issue disclaimers about they cause these problems.
The problem is that those investigating authorities will not have timely access to her past complaint history without this disclaimer. Granted, it's not actively hidden from them but neither will they know to look for it. This disclaimer prompts them to look for it. Then, in full possession of the facts including her past history, they can make their credibility decision.
By the way, I don't see this as an attempt to stigmatize the mother at all. It's not "it's probably fake like the last one" - it's merely "don't take it at face value". If we had a properly balanced CPS investigation process, such advice would be unnecessary. Unfortunately, what we have instead is a process that gives huge weight to the possibility of false negatives and virtually no weight to the damage done by false positives.
"Granted, it's not actively hidden from them but neither will they know to look for it."
If it's that compelling, it would be the first thing they'd look for.
And in any event, you don't think one of the first things they do already is check if there's a history of complaints? That wouldn't be much of an investigation.
I don't think it was intended to be punishment; it was intended to be prophylactic.
Surely protecting the father, or others potentially accused, from false abuse allegations is also a compelling government interest?
The judge seems to imply otherwise. She doesn't state it outright, but her argument rests on an unstated premise that if the order doesn't satisfy the compelling government interest of protecting Child, then no compelling government interest is at issue. To me, this unstated premise seems obviously false.
Wow, this seems pretty bad:
"Mother would not be entitled to relief [because] ... First Amendment protections historically encompass prohibitions on speech as opposed to compelled speech." WTF?
Then: "In any event, the court was justified in requiring Mother to disclose the information contained within the Disclaimer where it bears directly upon "the important governmental interest of protecting the psychological and emotional well-being of Child[.]" S.B. v. S.S. (Pa. 2020).}"
This appears to be intermediate scrutiny, not strict scrutiny.