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Lash's Last Stand
Evan Bernick's second in a series of guest-blogging posts: Part II of a critique of an important defense of the constitutionality of Donald Trump's executive order on birthright citizenship.
Yesterday I published a critical review of a document that Kurt Lash described several weeks ago as a "completed article." Within several hours, I learned that it is not in fact complete. Shortly after my critique went live, Lash posted a revised draft. The latest revisions aren't substantial. But readers should be aware that I'm firing on a moving target and that eventually, I'll have a full-length critique of his (actually) completed article.
I'll finish up with Lash's contrarian take on birthright citizenship by doing three things. First, I'll critique his bizarre treatment of the children of enslaved people and Confederates. Then I'll put to rest a claim that Lash makes about the importance of parental allegiance to the few exceptions to birthright citizenship recognized by the time of the Fourteenth Amendment's ratification. Finally, I'll discuss Lash's treatment of Indian law—roughly, the law defining and regulating the relationships between the government of the United States and that of 575 federally recognized Native nations and their citizens. Although Lash has never written anything substantial about Indian law, Indian law is the source of a crucial analogy which he uses to argue for an exception to birthright citizenship that did not exist in 1868. I'll show that the analogy doesn't work.
Loyal Slaves? Loyal Confederates?
As Lash recognizes, the most damning defect of allegiance-based accounts of the Citizenship Clause which turn upon reciprocal consent (on the part of citizen to allegiance and the sovereign to protection) is that they cannot explain how the Clause performed the function that literally everyone (even DOJ lawyers defending the anti-birthright EO) agrees that it was designed to perform: the nullification of Dred Scott v. Sandford. Neither enslaved people nor their children consented to be kidnapped and imported as property into the United States, and the United States did not consent to the foreign slave trade either following a congressional ban in 1808. No theory of reciprocal consent can, I think, overcome the Dred Scott problem, and I think Lash agrees.
But recall that Lash does link birthright citizenship to parental allegiance and conceptualizes allegiance as loyalty to sovereign power. Just how is it that people forced into the United States and subjugated by the laws of enslaving states can be determined to be loyal to the United States? Why would they (in Lash's terms) have "fidelity towards" sovereign power of that nature?
Lash's solution to this apparent problem is an extraordinarily strong presumption in favor of loyalty. How strong? Strong enough that Lash can assert that "[n]othing about that context suggests, much less involves proof of, refused or counterallegiance."
Seriously? It seems obvious that any presumption in favor of the loyalty of enslaved people to the sovereign on whose soil they were enslaved would be unwarranted. What of the countless souls who tried to flee slavery? Were those who agreed (as Frederick Douglass initially did) with William Lloyd Garrison that the Constitution of the United States was a covenant with hell, loyal to the United States? Was Douglass loyal to the United States when he offered a qualified defense of killing slavecatchers who were empowered by federal law? Was he disloyal, then loyal? These are puzzles that Lash created for himself.
I applaud Lash for uplifting the general strike through which enslaved laborers emancipated themselves before Lincoln proclaimed their freedom. But the more straightforward explanation for the citizenship of the children of enslaved people does not depend upon this momentous act of collective liberation. It is the conventional one in Citizenship Clause scholarship: Children who are born in the United States and subject to its unmediated sovereign power are citizens.
So, too, does Lash struggle to explain the Republican consensus in favor of the citizenship of the children of Confederates. If any parents manifested their disloyalty towards the United States, it would be Confederate parents. Lash responds by labeling the Confederacy a conspiracy and thus subsuming it within a broader category of "criminality." Of course, conspiring to overthrow a government is a crime, but it is more. So, it seems odd to say (as Lash does) categorically that criminality "has no necessary relationship to refused or counter allegiance," and is not sufficient to "rebut the presumed natural allegiance of a child born in the United States." Again, why complicate things with loyalty? On the conventional account, these children are subject to the unmediated sovereign power of the United States—day in, day out, through its lawmaking, enforcement, and adjudicatory institutions—so they are subject to the jurisdiction of the United States.
I assume some originalist readers will regard what follows as an inadmissible "policy" argument. (But see Sai Prakash's intriguing recent argument for the interpretive significance of consequences in Founding-era law.) Still, I can't pass over it entirely. On Lash's account, Reconstruction Republicans chose to codify a constitutional rule that did not exclude the children of Confederates, serial killers, or mob bosses from birthright citizenship but which did exclude the children of undocumented immigrants. Parental criminality as such does not determine a child's birthright citizenship, nor does parental insurrection against the government. But voluntary parental refusal to express loyalty to the United States through the specific means of compliance with laws governing entry into its "sovereign territory" does. As Lash seems to recognize at some level, normatively, it seems problematic to effectively punish children for parental crimes. It seems perverse to punish them for parental border crossing but not for parental insurrection or mass murder.
But we don't have to rely upon our own moral intuitions to be skeptical that the Citizenship Clause was designed to yield such an outcome. Again, we have compelling reasons to think that abolitionists and Republicans attached less moral significance to border crossing than Lash does when it comes to determining whether the children of people who cross borders illegally are to be denied citizenship. Amanda Frost has shown how abolitionist birthright freedom treated a parent's illegal conduct in crossing the border from an enslaving to a free state as irrelevant to the status of the child: the child was free if born in a free state. If Lash is right, Republicans responded to this experience by turning back towards lineage-based citizenship once they held constitutional power. That seems unlikely.
More Exceptions, More Problems
Yet another problem for Lash is the absence of any widely recognized exception to birthright citizenship for the children of unlawful entrants at the point of ratification. This problem is not fatal; it is certainly possible that the Citizenship Clause communicated to the ratifying public a principle which incorporated not only extant exceptions to the birthright citizenship rule but other exceptions that were sufficiently like them. Still, it's also possible that it did not, and it is problematic for Lash to so quickly assume that it did and grasp for analogies.
Suppose, however, that there was indeed a delegation to the future. What was the scope of that delegation? Lash submits that long-recognized exceptions are best explained by his loyalty-based, parent-derived concept of allegiance. Parents who have what Lash calls "counter-allegiance" or who "refuse" allegiance to the United States bear children who lack loyalty.
Lash spends significant time with only three exceptions to birthright citizenship of any practical relevance that had any evidentiary support at all in 1868. The first exception concerned the children of diplomats and their families and staff. The second exception concerned the children of members of occupying armies. And the final exception excluded the children of American Indians from birthright citizenship. None of these exceptions turned on parental loyalty to the United States.
As Michael Ramsey has detailed, the children of diplomats and their families and staff were excepted from birthright citizenship because of the nature of international relations and the legal infrastructure that surrounded them. For most purposes, people in the active service of a foreign nation did not receive the protection of the United States and owed no allegiance to its laws. Any obligations were consensual and strictly delimited. The exception for the children of members of occupying armies was grounded in the lack of practical power that sovereigns have over people in their territory during an invasion. That it did not turn on parental allegiance is evident from the fact that the loyalty of those under occupation did not determine whether their children are birthright citizens. Chris Mirasola points out that what matters is whether the occupation is only temporary or results in the formal annexation of territory, as well as when the child is born.
Finally, the exclusion of American Indians from birthright citizenship is no great mystery and it certainly has nothing to do with parental loyalty to the United States. Republicans, like the abolitionists before them, swore by Worcester v. Georgia and affirmed the sovereignty of Native nations. Sovereignty in Worcester was linked to territory, and leading Republicans made plain their understanding that Tribal citizens on Tribal land, despite being within the boundaries of the United States, did not ordinarily experience U.S. power over their internal affairs. They could not be sued, they could not be prosecuted, they could not be bound by sovereign U.S. power—except to the extent of treaty-based consent. Once again, not parental or any other kind of loyalty but exposure to the unmediated sovereign power of the United States was decisive.
One last note: Lash mentions but devotes no significant discussion to a long-acknowledged exception to birthright citizenship that's been raised by others. This exception applied to birth on foreign public vessels within U.S. territorial waters. Once again, parental allegiance doesn't help us. The United States and other nations treated foreign public vessels as floating parts of foreign nations, even though they might have chosen to do otherwise. So, they didn't subject them to their unmediated sovereign power. That was that.
There is no urgent need for a novel unified theory of the Citizenship Clause, much less this one. The above exceptions are well known and have been long studied by scholars who have traced their common-law origins and documented their development during the antebellum period. None of them resemble the exclusion for which Lash contends in nature or scope, and none of them require Lash's ungainly allegiance framework.
Lost in Indian Country
Lash's case for the exclusion of the children of unlawful entrants turns upon an analogy to the Indian exception. He claims that unlawful entrants are like what he terms "unaligned Indians" who unlawfully left lands reserved to them by treaty, in violation of treaty terms. In both cases, the problem is that the would-be entrant has "willfully decline[d] to present themselves to any sovereign authority and intentionally and intentionally refuse to be subject to the laws regarding entry into the sovereign territory of the people of the United States." In neither case ought their children be entitled to birthright citizenship.
It is true that Republicans left open the possibility of U.S. citizenship for Tribal citizens who renounced their Tribal ties, which would put their children in a different jurisdictional situation. But that doesn't make parental loyalty to the United States determinative of a Native child's birthright citizenship, any more than it would that of a child of a foreign ambassador who had retired from service and become a naturalized U.S. citizen. What ultimately matters for birthright citizenship purposes is U.S. sovereign power over the child, in both cases. The focus on power is evident in the exchanges upon which Lash relies.
Consider these two paragraphs, which appear midway through Lash's discussion of the allegiance of "voluntary unlawful entrants":
During the debates over the Citizenship Clause of the Fourteenth Amendment, Mr. Doolittle reminded his colleagues about the need to exclude the "wild Indians of the plains." Joint Committee Chair William Pitt Fessenden echoed this concern wondered whether the amendment might include unaligned Indians since they fell at least arguably within the "jurisdiction" of the United States. Trumbull could not deny that, as a technical matter, the United States exercised a degree of jurisdiction over all such Native Americans. Antebellum treaties were express on this matter. However, the language of the Citizenship Clause demanded persons born in the United States be "subject to the complete jurisdiction thereof." To be "completely subject" to the jurisdiction of the United States involved "complete allegiance" to the same. As Trumbull summarized, "[i]t is only those persons who come completely within our jurisdiction, who are subject to our laws, that we think of making citizens."
The reason citizenship for unaligned Indians was inappropriate had little if anything to do with their allegiance to a different sovereign. The problem was a failure of these groups to be positively place themselves subject to the United States. This is why Indians who had left their tribe but refused to present themselves for formal assimilation were not appropriate candidates for citizenship. In terms of the Citizenship Clause, proof that a child was born into such a familial context of "refused allegiance" rebuts the prima facie presumption of natural loyalty to the country of birth.
By "unaligned Indians" Lash means Indians who were "living outside of tribal authority." Lash says that they did not have sufficient allegiance to be subject to the jurisdiction of the United States because they failed to "positively place themselves subject to the United States" through "formal assimilation." But Indians who were Tribal citizens also were not subject to the jurisdiction of the United States—Trumbull said so repeatedly. He insisted that Tribes with which the U.S. treated and members of Tribes with which the U.S. did not have treaties "are not" subject to U.S. jurisdiction and that "[w]e do not exercise jurisdiction over them."
Why, then, did Trumbull speak of "complete allegiance" and "complete jurisdiction"? In fact, he did not speak of "complete allegiance"—this is one of many occasions in which Lash creates confusion by putting quotation marks around phrases that he coined himself, right next to phrases that do appear in the sources. And Trumbull illustrated (in a passage that Lash does not discuss) what he meant by "complete jurisdiction" with specific examples of lawmaking, enforcement, and adjudicatory power to which Native people were not subject in Indian country without treaty-based consent:
Can you sue a Navajoe [sic] Indian in court? Are they in any sense subject to the complete jurisdiction of the United States? By no means. We make treaties with them, and therefore they are not subject to our jurisdiction. If they were, we would not make treaties with them. If we want to control the Navajoes, [sic] or any other Indians of which the Senator from Wisconsin has spoken, how do we do it? Do we pass a law to control them? Are they subject to our jurisdiction in that sense? Is it not understood that if we want to make arrangements with the Indians to whom he refers we do it by means of a treaty?
Once again, the conventional wisdom works just fine: Indians were subject to the jurisdiction of the United States to the extent that they were subject to the unmediated lawmaking, enforcement, and adjudicatory authority of the United States.
Nothing that Trumbull or any other credible source says about the extent of U.S. power over Tribal citizens in Indian country describes a reality that remotely resembles that which undocumented people and their children experience. Regardless of the reality on the ground, according to Trumbull, Tribal citizens on Tribal land could not be sued, prosecuted, or bound without treaty-based consent. Denying the children of undocumented people citizenship subjects them to all that power without affording them any protection, contrary to the basic allegiance-protection framework that undergirds Lash's theory. It's what Trumbull said, it was widely covered, and it was common—the stuff of public meaning.
In a since-deleted tweet, Lash came close to recognizing the fatal shortcomings of his own analogy. Here it is:
Although the framers of the Citizenship Clause expressly drafted the provision to address situations involving Native Americans leaving their quasi-foreign reservations and living in the United States without authorization (in "the wild") some scholars insist we cannot reasonably view this history as informing the original meaning or contemporary application. Originalists do not have the option to engage in such anti-historical squeamishness.
I'm not sure which scholars Lash had in mind. But I am certain that within the borders of the United States, neither undocumented immigrants nor their children live on territory that can reasonably be described as "quasi-foreign" and beyond the unmediated sovereign power of the United States. I am certain that the Reconstruction Framers repeatedly, publicly proclaimed that members of Native nations, whether bound to the U.S. by treaty or not, were beyond that power in Indian country. I am certain that they remembered the Trail of Tears and the birthright freedom movement. And I am certain that Lash does not mention any of this.
In the deleted tweet, as in the underlying article, Lash presents himself as a resolute realist, challenging a squeamish scholarly consensus. There is, however, nothing realistic about the picture that he paints of the Citizenship Clause. He ought to have taken more time—to read, to talk to people who have studied the subjects under discussion for years, to circulate more widely.
What was the rush?
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Thanks for posting these critiques on Volokh. I think this is probably one of the most important places to address such issues to ensure that they reach people that actually need convincing. Appreciate all your work on this issue.
Lash himself argues for "the presumed natural allegiance of a child born in the United States" (in the context of Confederates' allegiance)? Isn't this conceding his whole argument about U.S. birth not implying citizenship because it does not imply allegiance?
I'm the last person in the world to be cynical, but I think we know the answer to that question.
Eh, that seems a little unfair. This is an actual, live issue, and there’s value in having scholarship published in time to be available to the practitioners and decision makers who can use it.
To be sure, the value is significantly undercut by the fact that the scholarship isn’t very good. But I’d still rather have legal academics engaging with practically-relevant issues, even if badly, than with Kant and Bulgarian evidence law (especially since that isn’t often very well done either).
Where we differ, I think, is that I'd contend that bad scholarship is worse than no scholarship.
And of course the Bulgarian/Kant scholarship has been done very very well: https://www.greenbag.org/v18n3/v18n3_articles_Kerr.pdf
Given that it's April 1st, I was half expecting https://www.greenbag.org/v16n1/v16n1_ex_post_kerr.pdf
Jumping into a live controversy isn't inherently bad. But what is bad is doing so with results-oriented scholarship, as evidenced by Lash posting an introduction with a conclusion before he had even completed all his research into the issue. Also, if you are going to be jumping into a live controversy, you should be doing so in an area where you have expertise that makes your contribution valuable. Here, Lash lacks the expertise on the Citizenship Clause and Indian Law necessary to make informed conclusions about the scope of birthright citizenship. Add that all together, it's hard to infer good faith.
It simply cannot be that the drafters of the 14th amendment thought of its first section as a license for vacationing alien pregnant women to assign to their children US citizenship. It is prima facie insane.
I know what prima facie means, but I'm curious what you think it means, ConservativeProfessor.
I assume it’s supposed to be a reference to the title of Prof. Lash’s article.
Ba-dum-ching!
Why not?
Especially when, as Prof. Bernick observed, that appears to have been recognized as the law even before the Civil War?
It's the very first thing.....
Section 1. All persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens of the United States and of the State wherein they reside.
This is one of the most clearest statements in the Constitution.
Admittedly, they had vastly different circumstances back then but it sez what it sez.
Yes, it clearly says that not everyone gets birthright citizenship.
No, it doesn't clearly says that not everyone gets birthright citizenship.
If Congress said everyone in the entire world can be a US citizen, then that would be (constitutionally) legal.
It's a "if - then" statement not "if- then not" (or whatever the logical expressions are).
It does not say all persons born are citizens. There is an additional condition, the meaning of which is under debate. Bernick does not tell us his interpretation. It surely does not mean every illegal alien baby becomes a citizen.
Of course not; if they're citizens then by definition they aren't illegal aliens.
Can it be that they didn't consider that a big problem, compared to the problems of NOT having birthright citizenship? Among the latter: to prove citizenship, you need to prove parents' citizenship; to prove _that_, you need to prove their parents' citizenship, and so on -- compared with the simplicity of proving your own U.S. birth?
Who cares what Trumbull said? Why think that original meaning means what the primary drafter intended? Suppose he had said that he believed that due process included a judge's coin flip. Would that make it so? Politicians will advance legislation--and even constitutional amendments--without being conspicuously aware of the conceptual implications of what they have done. If interpreting the law in such a way that it would entail absurdities, we should ignore that interpretation. If the law is not an ordinance of reason, then it's not a law. Lon Fuller pray for us.
Why resort to meaning when the plain language of the words is clear? I look at it like statutory interpretation. If the language is clear you don't resort to legislative history. But as this post and others make clear; the only way to get to a meaning that contradicts the plain language (that people born here are not citizens) is to distort the history itself and tie your arguments into pretzels to reach a desired policy result.
You guys would like to create a web of confusion where none exists. You would like a result that would have frustrated the purpose of the amendment itself as demonstrated repeatedly. You are engaging in what you rail at others (primarily liberal jurists) of doing. You abandon first principles you profess to believe in and above all...you refuse to see that this is what you are doing. You want to reach a desired interpretation because it suits your policy preference but you can't quite fit the square peg in the round hole. BUT YOU KEEP TRYING. Just stop already. It's embarrassing.
Yes! Let's ignore all of the legislative history and use the plain meaning of "subject to the jurisdiction" which has no whiff of allegiance in it.
Well for one thing, it’s Prof. Lash who’s trying to rely on Trumbull for his arguments: Prof. Bernick is just pointing out that he’s misinterpreting what Trumbull actually meant.
But at any rate, the statements of the drafters aren’t dispositive. They are, however, circumstantial evidence of the original public meaning. Likewise, the absence of contemporary expressions of the Lash/Barnett/Trump construction is circumstantial evidence that they’re wrong.
If your interpretation would have resulted in the children of slaves not being natural born citizens; then your interpretation is wrong.
You can make a million hypotheticals about the parents and their supposed allegiance or lack thereof; but the phraseology of the amendment says "All persons born..." So now you have to attribute to the person born the alleged sins or allegiances of their parents. Which brings you right back to the kids of slaves, secessionists and rebel armies the latter of which not only swore off their US allegiance, but fought a war against the US govt to leave the US entirely. If their kids are natural born citizens then what the fuck do you make of your parent's allegiance argument?
Much ado is made about the common law exceptions which existed at the time of the amendment (and as acknowledged in Wong Kim Ark) but none of those 3 categories apply to children of routine undocumented immigrants today.
If you want to change or modify birthright citizenship; then amend the language of the 14th amend. This cannot be done via executive order. And changing the constitution is hard; so the next best result is to just make shit up? Okay. When textualism doesn't get you there and originalism doesn't get you there and Sup Ct precedent doesn't get you there and over 100+yrs of actual federal practice don't get you there... what is left but making frivolous legal arguments and hoping somehow the US SUP CT will be clever enough sophists to reach the policy result you want but can't achieve?? What kind of judicial philosophy is that, now?
Thank you for this. I think the following from your post should be in the first paragraph of every brief: "On Lash's account, Reconstruction Republicans chose to codify a constitutional rule that did not exclude the children of Confederates, serial killers, or mob bosses from birthright citizenship but which did exclude the children of undocumented immigrants. Parental criminality as such does not determine a child's birthright citizenship, nor does parental insurrection against the government. But voluntary parental refusal to express loyalty to the United States through the specific means of compliance with laws governing entry into its 'sovereign territory' does. "
I'm still not clear on the citizenship status of "unaligned Indians."
If an Indian was born and lived outside a reservation were his children (also born outside a reservation) citizens at birth? Was the parent fully subject to US laws in US courts, even for his conduct while visiting a reservation?
This is very confusing in Lash's draft. "Unaligned Indians" is Lash's term. At this juncture Lash seems to be applying it to Indians who are not citizens of any Tribe. So, the straightforward answer is yes--they (and their children) are subject to the jurisdiction of the United States if they're living outside of Indian country and not Tribal citizens. But there were at the time many Indians who were not Tribal citizens and yet were out of the reach of US sovereign power precisely because they *were* in Indian country. So, Trumbull denied that the Citizenship Clause made all of the children of what Lash calls "unaligned Indians" into birthright citizens.
Can you confirm the children were citizens at birth.
I can tell you that the Senate Judiciary Committee in 1870 stated that Indians who had renounced their Tribal ties and "merged in the mass of our people" became subject to the jurisdiction of the United States. But the CRA and Citizenship Clause debates are much more focused on insisting that Tribal citizens cannot be made US citizens absent their consent and that the US doesn't have power over "wild Indians" (that are members of no Tribe) in Indian country, than in specifying the processes and conditions for renouncing Tribal ties. This is part of why Elk v. Wilkins proved a difficult case, and why I'll have to say more about it whenever Lash finishes this and I can fully critique the whole thing.
Bernick loses me when he pretends that there is no parental allegiance issue with diplomats, invading soldiers, and Indians. Obviously there is an issue.
The 14A has exceptions to birthright citizenship. What are they? Nobody wanted the current system of anchor babies.
Bernick argues that diplomats, invading soldiers and Indians are all not "subject to the jurisdiction" because they are not able to be tried in US courts for all of their conduct while in the USA. That argument does not rely on allegiance.
The only reason they are not tried in the US is because they have allegiance to a foreign power.
Incorrect. All foreign citizens who commit crimes in the U.S. are tried in the U.S. — except those over whom the U.S. lacks jurisdiction.
So you think that it is just a coincidence that they have foreign allegiance and are not prosecuted?
If you mean diplomats, invading soldiers, and (at the time) Indians, then — if by "allegiance" you mean "citizenship" — yes, it's a coincidence. It has nothing to do with allegiance/citizenship. They aren't prosecuted because the U.S. lacks jurisdiction to do so. We know that because the vast majority of people with foreign allegiance/citizenship in the U.S. who commit crimes are prosecuted.
The 14A has exceptions to birthright citizenship. What are they? Nobody wanted the current system of anchor babies.
A. The ones that existed at common law, which were well known at the time.
B. Given the contemporaneous state of immigration and the difficulties of transport, nothing like the "current system of anchor babies" was possible or within the contemplation of the amendment's framers.
Really, you want to rely on common law? That is not going to help the case for birthright citizenship. Common law would deport the anchor babies.
Again, "anchor baby" isn't a thing, and you are both racist and ignorant. Birthright citizenship is the common law rule. From before the country was founded, even before the 14th amendment, and up to the present, all persons born here (other than to diplomats/invading armies) were citizens. The 14th amendent was not intended to narrow that, but to codify it to fix the fact that Dred Scott had excluded blacks from that traditional principle.
Anyone favoring sensible immigration laws gets called racist and ignorant.
Roger S, what do you mean by the loaded phrase, "anchor baby"? Not only is that not a legal category, its pejorative use doesn't even make sense linguistically or metaphorically. The most common meaning of "anchor" as a noun is "a device usually of metal attached to a ship or boat by a cable and cast overboard to hold it in a particular place by means of a fluke that digs into the bottom." As a transitive verb it means "to hold in place in the water by an anchor." https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/anchor
A mother giving birth on American soil does not in any manner bind her to this country or secure her place therein. That birth confers citizenship on the child; it does not confer any benefits or privilege upon the mother.
AI definition: An "anchor baby" is a term used to describe a child born to non-citizen parents in a country that grants birthright citizenship. The idea is that the child's citizenship might provide advantages to the parents or family members, such as securing legal residency or avoiding deportation.
If "Nobody wanted the current system of anchor babies", the Constitution would include length-of-residency requirements, which it does in several other contexts. The authors knew were well how to write such requirements, and chose not to.
There are about 50 other issues where the 14A has been controversially applied, even though it is ambiguous. Maybe we should rewrite it. In the meantime, it needs to be interpreted in a reasonable and manageable way, and that does not include citizenship for anchor babies.
Birthright citizenship is a legal doctrine of centuries old provenance. "Anchor baby" is a term made up and used by bigots and demagogues catering to bigots that doesn't refer to any legal category.
Being someone who might be denied citizenship many decades after my birth in this country as what Roger S would undoubtedly call an "anchor baby", I do indeed want the current system.
1. I reiterate my comment from yesterday. https://reason.com/volokh/2025/03/31/88-problems-for-kurt-lash/?comments=true#comment-10983049
2. One thing Bernick seems to be missing is that Indians were only not subject to US laws while within their territory. When outside of their territory they would be subject to US laws just like any other visiting foreigner. From the debates:
TRUMBULL: "The United States courts have no power to punish an Indian who is connected with a tribe for a crime committed by him upon another member of the same tribe."
FESSENDEN: "Within the territory."
TRUMBULL: "Yes, sir."
Bernick says "Once again, the conventional wisdom works just fine: Indians were subject to the jurisdiction of the United States to the extent that they were subject to the unmediated lawmaking, enforcement, and adjudicatory authority of the United States." Yes - to the extent they were so subject within their territories. They were all so subject when otherwise on US soil, at least as much as any other visiting foreigner ("sojourner" as they call it in the debates).
3. Another thing Bernick seems to be missing is that according to the ratification debates, the United States had latitude to decide who would become "subject to jurisdiction." The United States by treaty and other powers could decide a particular group was or was not subject to jurisdiction (in the full and complete, sole allegiance sense). The United States can similarly decide whether illegal immigrants and other groups of foreigners are to be subject to jurisdiction.
That's right, and the USA can decide to return the anchor babies to the jurisdiction country of the parents.
"That's right, and the USA can decide to return the anchor babies to the jurisdiction country of the parents."
Uh, no, it cannot. The parents are subject to being deported. The child is not.
You keep missing the following distinction. US courts do not have jurisdiction for the conduct of Indians while on a reservation (which is part of the USA). In contrast, US courts have jurisdiction over alien conduct throughout the entire USA (except for the diplomatic corps and invading armies).
The latitude is not in the definition of "subject to the jurisdiction." The latitude is in when do US courts have jurisdiction over alien conduct throughout the entire USA. So yes, if Congress passes a statute that unlawfully present aliens cannot be tried in US courts, then they wouldn't be subject to the jurisdiction. That's not the case and no way is Congress going to do that.
Tribal Indians when in their territories were situated similarly to Mexicans in Mexico, as Trumbull suggested. Neither are subject to US laws and courts.
Tribal Indians when outside of their territories in the US were situated similarly to Mexicans or other foreigners present in the US. Both are subject to US laws and courts.
But even while subject to US laws and courts, they did not have exclusive allegiance and were not subject to the full and complete jurisdiction of the US. That was the whole point of talking about how they were not subject to US law within their territories - to demonstrate that they held membership in and allegiance to a quasi-foreign sovereign.
Indian territory is part of the USA. Mexico is not.
I'm not certain that Indians were always subject to US laws and courts when outside the reservation. There might be a treaty to the contrary. But even if you are right, the first point above holds.
It's not as though tribal Indians had some special diplomat-like immunity. They were like any other foreigner in this regard, which yes could be impacted by treaties.
"Indian territory is part of the USA. Mexico is not."
Right, which is why the entire debate discussion occurred, due to their "quasi-foreign" status there was some disagreement whether they were sufficiently foreign to be not "subject to the jurisdiction" of the US, in the full and complete sense that involves exclusive allegiance.
What nobody disagreed on, though, was that allegiance to a fully foreign sovereign would be exclusive of full and complete jurisdiction.
No. It wasn't about Indians being foreign. It was about whether US courts had jurisdiction for conduct throughout (including on reservations) the USA.
Not only is there disagreement, the majority viewpoint and binding SCOTUS precedent (Wong Kim Ark), disagree.
…as do centuries of practice, both pre- and post-WKA.
I'm surprised by the lack of attention United States v. Elm has received. It was approvingly referenced by SCOTUS in Elk v. Wilkins, and undercuts the argument by the anti-birthright crowd that Elk undermines birthright citizenship. In Elm, defendant was an Indian who was charged with unlawfully voting as a non-citizen. However, the court found he was indeed a citizen, because he was born in New York, and subject to their jurisdiction. He was born outside any tribal territory to a "disintegrated tribe"; that is, a tribe that no longer existed as a political entity.
In other words, although Elk was was not a citizen because he was born subject to tribal authority, Elm's parents had left the reservation, and hence he was born outside tribal jurisdiction and in the jurisdiction of the US instead. Elm was racially an Indian, but not politically one. This gets lost in the whole "Indians were excluded from Birthright Citizenship" arguement.
Wrong. US v Elm closely follows what the framers said in the ratification debates, and supports the position that jurisdiction excludes anyone with foreign allegiance. The court said Elm was a citizen because he did not maintain tribal relations and did not have allegiance to a quasi-foreign sovereign. Indeed, his whole tribe disbanded and was itself no longer a quasi-foreign sovereign, thus anyone born of that tribe since then was a citizen.
From that case: "If defendant's tribe continued to maintain its tribal
integrity, and he continued to recognize his tribal
relations, his status as a citizen would not be affected
by the fourteenth amendment; but such is not his case."
Note the key is whether he had tribal relations, not the physical location of his birth.
Huh? Wrong how? His tribe didn't exist anymore, so he was a citizen since he was born here.
If his tribe still existed and he was still a member, then he would have allegiance to a quasi-foreign sovereign and therefore would not have birthright citizenship (regardless of birth location). Just as any foreigner visiting here has allegiance to a foreign sovereign and therefore is not constitutionally entitled to birthright citizenship.
A foreigner visiting here is not entitled to birthright citizenship because he wasn't born here. However, the children of said foreigner are entitled to birthright citizenship if they are born here.
If the child of said foreigner, born here, is an automatic citizen or subject of a foreign sovereign, then does the child have a foreign allegiance? Yes or no.
No.
I think David will have to admit the answer is yes.
I would not have to admit that, but in fact I would say that it depends on what you mean by "allegiance." If you're just using it as synonymous with "citizenship," then tautologically he does. But that can't possibly be relevant to anything we're discussing, because if it were it would mean that whether someone is a natural born citizen of the U.S. would turn on questions of foreign law.
Yes, the 14A was written to avoid making it explicitly dependent on foreign law. The USA can refuse an anchor baby, whether or not the foreign country takes him back as a citizen.
It may depend in part on foreign law and treaties to which the U.S. is party, but ultimately the U.S. has the prerogative to decide whether to recognize those claims of allegiance, and the question ultimately turns whether the U.S. decides to make certain classes of persons "subject to its jurisdiction."
"whether someone is a natural born citizen" To be clear, whether someone is a "natural born citizen" under under Article II is a different issue than whether they are subject to the jurisdiction of the U.S. and constitutionally entitled to citizenship under the citizenship clause.
What are you smoking? Neither children of Indians born outside tribal borders, nor children of foreigners born here are within the allegiance of a foreign sovereign. Allegiance is just an archaic word for jurisdiction, and foreign sovereigns do not have jurisdiction in the United States.
Incorrect. If you are a citizen or subject of a sovereign, that means you have an allegiance to that sovereign, even when you leave its borders. Do you think your U.S. allegiance goes away when you visit Canada? It does not. Now, the U.S. founding was innovative in recognizing a natural right to renounce and dissolve such allegiances. This was a break from English common law and the feudal system on which it was based. But even so, allegiance by default goes with you and does not change just because you are passing through some other country.
Trumbull wasn't just using a circular definition here: ""What do we mean by 'subject to the jurisdiction of the United States'? Not owing allegiance to anybody else. That is what it means."
Really doubling down on your ability to misinterpret source material, aren't you?
You have allegiance in the jurisdiction you find yourself in. Both citizens and aliens alike have an allegiance to the US while here, just as I have an allegiance to France while visiting there. Allegiance and jurisdiction are just synonyms here. SCOTUS recognized as much in Wong Kim Ark:
"It thus clearly appears that by the law of England for the last three centuries, beginning before the settlement of this country, and continuing to the present day, aliens, while residing in the dominions possessed by the crown of England, were within the allegiance, the obedience, the faith or loyalty, the protection, the power, and the jurisdiction of the English sovereign; and therefore every child born in England of alien parents was a natural-born subject, unless the child of an ambassador or other diplomatic agent of a foreign state, or of an alien enemy in hostile occupation of the place where the child was born."
Clearly, under WKA, and British common law even aliens have an allegiance to our laws.
If your interpretation of "allegiance" were correct then even the children of citizens born here wouldn't be citizens if just one parent were an alien, an interpretation even more extreme than Trump's EO.
So you think your U.S. allegiance goes away if you visit the Canadian side of Niagara falls for the day?
Old fashioned definition of allegiance = jurisdiction. So, yes.
When you are on the Canadian side of Niagara Falls, you are required to obey Canadian law. Even if doing so in some way conflicts with U.S. law. You are fully subject to the jurisdiction of Canada.
A person born in the United States to foreign national parents may be a dual citizen owing allegiance to both nations. As I wrote on yesterday's comment thread, Tomoya Kawakita was born in California to Japanese parents. He was in Japan when World War II broke out and stayed in Japan until the war was over. After returning to the United States, he was arrested, charged with and convicted of treason for having abused American prisoners of war. SCOTUS affirmed his conviction in Kawakita v. United States, 343 U.S. 717 (1952).
When war was declared, Kawakita was still a student at Meiji University in Japan. He became of age in 1942, and completed his schooling in 1943, at which time it was impossible for him to return to the United States. In 1943, he registered in the Koseki, a family census register. Id., at 720.
SCOTUS discussed the significance of this registration:
Id., at 724.
Kawakita was a dual citizen of Japan and the United States. The special verdicts of the jury contained, with respect to each overt act as to which the defendant was found guilty, an affirmative answer to an interrogatory that he was at that time "an American citizen owing allegiance to the United States, as charged in the indictment." Id., at 722.
SCOTUS affirmed the treason conviction, opining that "An American citizen owes allegiance to the United States wherever he may reside." The Court expressly rejected Kawakita's contention that, being a national and a resident of Japan, he owed no allegiance to the United States even though he was an American citizen. Id., at 736.
Dual citizenship is a relatively recent innovation, which seems to be at odds with 19th century American understanding.
But granting that we have dual citizenship, Trumbull's definition of complete jurisdiction seems clear nonetheless: "Not owing allegiance to anybody else. That is what it means."
You stated, "A person born in the United States to foreign national parents may be a dual citizen owing allegiance to both nations."
From your comment, I infer that you do not dispute that a citizen of a nation owes an allegiance to that nation?
Mr. Kawakita's owing allegiance to the United States was a sine qua non of his being sentenced to death, per 18 U.S.C. § 2381.
The Attorney General of Japan deposed that all Japanese nationals, whether or not born abroad, are duty bound to Japanese allegiance. Kawakita v. United States, 343 U.S. 717, 724 (1952). That allegiance, however, did not preclude his simultaneously owing allegiance to the United States. Had that been the case, he would not have been death eligible under § 2381.
That allegiance does, however, preclude his "not owing allegiance to anybody else."
I am starting to believe the Indian cases won't help resolve the issue.
It appears an Indian who had any loyalty to a tribe could not always be held accountable in US courts. Thus, the fact that Indian children were not citizens at birth could be because of either 1) the parents' loyalty or 2) the lack of jurisdiction of US courts for some of the parents' conduct. We can't tell which one.
How about we go with the most obvious meaning of "subject to the jurisdiction" (whether US courts have jurisdiction). Or, if the phrase's original meaning is not clear, we channel our inner-Scalia by ignoring the debates and rely on historical practice.
I appreciate the discussion.
There seems to be a lot of heavy lifting by some people to try to interpret at most not crystal clear text [see also a recently referenced originalist criticism of the Insular Cases, which noted limited dissent, so the argument against them is not totally a slam dunk] to justify a more limited reach of birthright citizenship.
I find this a dubious enterprise & this analysis shows how weak it is even on a "sorry, just trying to follow the law" ground.
Pretty straight forward in my opinion, no heavy lifting required. As SCOTUS said in 1873 Slaughterhouse Cases: "The phrase, "subject to its jurisdiction" was intended to exclude from its operation children of ministers, consuls, and citizens or subjects of foreign States born within the United States."
The Slaughterhouse comment was a single line of dicta in a case that had nothing to do with citizenship, as was pointed out by SCOTUS in Wong Kim Ark 25 years later. Slaughterhouse never had any precedential value, and even if it had would have been overturned by Wong Kim Ark any way.
Some of that is true but WKA holding can be described thus: https://x.com/AmySwearer/status/1881857640835224049
I suppose it can be described thst way. But only if you’re willing to lie about what it says.
That's absurd. Have you read the case?
If I'm not mistaken, it would be generally preferable to construe the holding of case in such a way as to minimize contradicting the original meaning of the Constitution.
Yes. That’s how I know that she’s lying about what it says.
"The question presented by the record is whether a child born in the United States, of parents of Chinese descent, who at the time of his birth are subjects of the emperor of China, but have a permanent domicile and residence in the United States, and are there carrying on business, and are not employed in any diplomatic or official capacity under the emperor of China, becomes at the time of his birth a citizen of the United States, by virtue of the first clause of the fourteenth amendment of the constitution . . ."
I guess the court's holding answered a different, broader question than the one the court formulated as the question presented, in your view?
Tsk tsk . . .
"It is a maxim, not to be disregarded, that general expressions, in every opinion, are to be taken in connection with the case in which those expressions are used. If they go beyond the case, they may be respected, but ought not to control the judgment in a subsequent suit when the very point is presented for decision. The reason of this maxim is obvious. The question actually before the court is investigated with care, and considered in its full extent. Other principles which may serve to illustrate it are considered in their relation to the case decided, but their possible bearing on all other cases is seldom completely investigated."
How does the reasoning in Wong Kim Ark not extend to all aliens (except Indians, diplomats and invading armies)?
Yes, absolutely. You could've highlighted different words in that court quote:
Do you think that the inclusion of those words means that the Court was only addressing the issue of Chinese-descended immigrants, and that a different rule might apply to Japanese-descended, or German-descended, or Mexican-descended, ones? Of course not; that's not how one reads a court opinion. The facts of the case are the facts of that case, but that doesn't make all of the facts material to the rule that's announced. Nothing in the opinion even hints that the nationality or domicile of the parents is material to the decision.
Because the court in WKA mentions "residence" or "domicile: over and over, then surely these have no significance, right?
OMG, Amy Swearer doesn't have 2 braincells to rub together.
Hmmm, even I detect an oddity in your argument and Lash's
YOu say
The reason citizenship for unaligned Indians was inappropriate had little if anything to do with their allegiance to a different sovereign. The problem was a failure of these groups to be positively place themselves subject to the United States."
But
"Perhaps in the spirit of the founding-era maxim Abundans cautela non nocet, one additional example—this one from outside the Constitution’s text—wouldn’t hurt: From founding-era descriptions of Indian tribes as “nations,” some scholars have concluded that European-Americans recognized tribes as sovereigns, and therefore did not apply state law to them. In fact, this particular use of “nation” was a Latinate usage deriving from natio—meaning an ethnic group. Robert G. Natelson, The Original Understanding of the Indian Commerce Clause, 85 Denv. L. Rev. 201, 259 (2007). Incidentally, Abundans cautela non nocet means “Overflowing caution doesn’t hurt.” It is a canon of construction explaining that the rule against surplus is not invariably applied."
Frederick Douglass hated Garrison's overall view of things.
And if slaves weren't Americans what is the relevance of the comment about killing their masters? --- Is it because the masters were Americans ? Then the legal case is as Lincoln said : The Constitution does not say who returns those escaped slaves.
some strategic comments on Birthright Citizenship
Roberts lost great credibility when he dragged (and still drags) his feet on Birthright Citizenship but also informally states that Trump can't go against low-level judges. NOrmal people see hypocrisy here. Plus he delivered Presidential Immunity and now he doesn't like it. Non-lawyers see this more clearly
The Constitution could have said that birth here means citizenship here but it didn't. There's miles of legal wrangling on that point alone.
Now that Roberts has put himself between 2 front lines, he invited what I saw today
27 States File Brief with Supreme Court Backing Trump’s Use of Alien Enemies Act