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How Symmetry Works—and Why It Is Already Part of Our Law
As my last post explained, my new book, Constitutional Symmetry: Judging in a Divided Republic, argues that judges should favor, when possible, constitutional understandings that offer valuable protections on opposite sides of key current divides, instead of just one side. Our current divided and acrimonious politics have produced a perilous tendency to politicize constitutional law and advance wholly partisan visions of the Constitution's meaning. Symmetric interpretation aims to counteract that tendency.
As I also explained, favoring symmetry is not a hard and fast rule; it is instead a preference. That means judges should favor symmetry only insofar as their primary interpretive commitments allow. In that sense, it resembles other second-order values in interpretation such as judicial restraint. A judge committed to restraint will invalidate democratic choices only when the Constitution is clear, but determining when the Constitution is clear requires a theory of interpretation that restraint alone cannot provide.
Symmetry is the same: because symmetry cannot override clear constitutional requirements, judges will each have to decide when their primary interpretive commitments do and do not permit symmetric understandings. Furthermore, the Constitution itself is not symmetric with respect to all conceivable ideological divisions. It is not neutral, for example, between representative democracy and dictatorship, nor between racial equality and racist oppression.
Within the range of reasonable disagreement, however, symmetry is a value that judges with different primary interpretive theories—whether originalist, formalist, pragmatist, living constitutionalist, or what have you—can equally embrace. It could thus provide a needed point of convergence among judges with differing primary commitments.
The same could be true, of course, of other second-order values like restraint, but as compared to such other possibilities, symmetry is the most important point of orientation in our time. In principle, restraint could help depoliticize constitutional law by leaving more choices to ordinary politics, but that would be true only if restraint were applied across the board—that is, if it were applied symmetrically.
Consider, for example, the reaction to Dobbs v. Jackson Women's Health Organization, the decision overturning the constitutional right to abortion. In some sense, the decision reflected commendable restraint: it returned an important question to the political process. But Dobbs's restraint appeared highly selective, and thus polarizing, when juxtaposed with contemporaneous decisions on matters such as affirmative action and gun control that effectively constitutionalized conservative policy preferences.
Symmetry, then, is a second-order interpretive value that responds directly to the polarized politics surrounding constitutional law. Why, though, should judges embrace this value? What theoretical considerations could support it? As I will explain in my next post, multiple strands of contemporary interpretive theory do in fact justify a preference for symmetry.
But the first point in symmetry's favor is simply that it is already part of our law. At oral arguments (and in law school classes), judges and lawyers routinely probe the validity of legal principles by positing scenarios that reverse the politics of the case at hand. Thus, for example, in a recent case involving a praying public-school coach, several justices raised questions about a hypothetical coach who carried the Ukrainian flag or knelt during the national anthem to protest police violence. Similarly, in a case about a California law barring sale of meat produced inhumanely outside the state, justices posed questions about analogous laws forbidding sale of goods produced by undocumented immigrants or by workers without the right to opt out of unions. Questions like these presume that a constitutional principle is more likely to be valid if it works in parallel across ideologically disparate situations.
Reasoning along these lines has appeared in some recent opinions too. Justices have complained in dissents about majority opinions "weaponizing" constitutional principles or ignoring "the law's demand for evenhandedness." Majority opinions, too, have touted the cross-ideological or cross-partisan benefits of their rulings. These assertions again reflect an implicit assumption that principles with symmetric rather than one-sided benefits are preferrable.
All these features of contemporary interpretive practice support a preference for symmetry, but so, too, do multiple—and otherwise divergent—aspects of contemporary interpretive theory, including political process theory, judicial role morality, and originalism (indeed, multiple forms of originalism). I'll elaborate on all those points in my next post.
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“Symmetry is the same: because symmetry cannot override clear constitutional requirements, judges will each have to decide when their primary interpretive commitments do and do not permit symmetric understandings. ”
The problem as always with any flavor of living constitutionalism, is that any other grounds for decision that you introduce besides legal merits will tend to cloud your judgement of when the legal merits are clear. The judge who embraces ‘symmetry’ ceases to be a disinterested, impartial judge, he is now placing a thumb on the scales of justice.
A little circular there. Surely Prof. Price’s entire point is that symmetry considerations are part of the legal merits.
I’m contrasting, as does the Prof, symmetry with clear constitutional requirements. The latter are actual legal merits, the former are more like ideological policy preferences.
Why don’t I throw out what I think is the most extreme symmetry position I’ve discussed in my years of commenting on this blog.
Does or should the constitution treat people who prefer to work with others of the same sex and people who prefer to sleep with others of the same sex symmetrically?
The constitution’s text protects neither; it only addresses government discrimination, not private discrimination. Both groups have historically claimed to be oppressed. And from a strictly Martian/purist symmetry point of view, it’s not clear why the courts should be in the business of deciding what aspects of their lives people are required to consider more important to them. Why exactly should a tendency to prefer working with others of the same sex be a “scourge” that it’s somehow the constitution’s business to “eradicate,” while a tendency to sleep with them is something it should protect? It’s true that many people consider their sexuality a central part of their identity. But it’s also true that many others consider their vocation a central part of their identity. Why should judges be the ones to decide which choice is not merely better, but which is permitted at all?
Atlanta Hotel described the civil rights act of 1965 as a kind of morals legislation, prohibiting certain kinds of racial and sexual preference-based associations both because Congress considered them immoral and because the associations involved were within the scope of Congress’ jurisdiction. In this sense, it attempted to maintain a neutrality similar to the neutrality it showed to other morals laws of the time.
Was that a correct approach? The Supreme Court came to abandon it beginning in the 1970s and by now it is such a dead letter that the idea that civil rights laws are a kind of morals legislation , no different constitutionally from other kinds of morals legislation that the court later came to strike down, would seem preposterous to most.
How did Congress come to have a compelling interest in preventing people from expressing their sexual preference in their vocational life, and in supporting people to express it in their domestic life?
From a purist symmetry point of view, it shouldn’t.
(Note: Another point I’ve made over the years is that claims of oppression are endemic in our history. Calhoun after all claimed opponents of slavery were motivated by mindless hatred impervious to reason; if the concept of animosity had existed he would have struck down anti-slavery laws on animosity grounds in a heartbeat. Ex-Confederates claimed to be horribly oppressed, abused, and tyrranized by the post-Civil War military occupation and the reconstructionist governments the military propped up. Etc.)
“But Dobbs’s restraint appeared highly selective, and thus polarizing, when juxtaposed with contemporaneous decisions on matters such as affirmative action and gun control that effectively constitutionalized conservative policy preferences.”
Affirmative action (racial quotes or set asides) as a policy preference is nowhere enshrined in the Constitutional text; neither is abortion. Gun rights, however, are explicitly mentioned (whether you agree with what the words mean or not).
The problem I have with your statement here is that you seem to put all social issues on the same privileged level, when in fact, as a strictly constitutional matter, they aren’t. Abortion was never meant to be litigated at a federal level. It was a state issue for many decades, and turning it into a federal constitutional matter was an absolute disaster for the social fabric of the country, not to mention an albatross around Democrat Party electoral prospects. Racial quotas and set asides (affirmative action) should have always been a legal nullity if we truly adhered to the text of the Civil Rights Act, which mandated a colorblind society, not one parsed out on account of skin color.
I take exception to your equating these issues as if they all held the same substantive constitutional import, when in fact that don’t. Like it or hate it, gun rights are privileged textually. The way to solve all of these “problems,” if problems they are, is to forge a political consensus and submit constitutional amendments like our great-grandparents did, who lived in difficult political eras as well, but somehow found the grit and the wherewithal to change the Constitution through valid means instead of using lifetime-appointed rulers in black robes to use sleight of hand legal sophistries to change what words mean.
…lifetime-appointed rulers in black robes to use sleight of hand legal sophistries to change what words mean.
“When I use a word,’ Humpty Dumpty said in rather a scornful tone, ‘it means just what I choose it to mean — neither more nor less.’
’The question is,’ said Alice, ‘whether you can make words mean so many different things.’
’The question is,’ said Humpty Dumpty, ‘which is to be master — that’s all.”
Yes. If symmetry means equating gun and abortion rights, then it is going to cause a lot of trouble.
Professor Price’s clarification that symmetry is a secondary value, which trumped by primary values, permits us to say that textual rights should not be treated the same as atextual rights, because we think adherence to text is a primary value that trumps secondary values like symmetry.
Nonetheless, I think applying symmetry to the 2nd Amendment still results in coherent arguments, whether or not you or I or Professor Price would agree with these arguments. For example, many people on this blog have argued that the 2nd Amendment carries with it a bundle of atextual rights necessary to make it workable, that, for example, it contains not just a right to keep and bear arms, but also a right to manufacture, sell, transport, etc. Others have argued it means a right to as many arms as one wants, of whatever kind one wants.
It seems to me that if we’re going to say the 2nd Amendment has implied “penumbras and emanations” or should be construed as broadly as possible, symmetry means we construe the rights contained in clauses liberals favor as carrying “penumbras and emanations” permitting related atextual rights, and construable as broadly as possible. You may disagree, but it’s a coherent argument. If liberals are going to be limited to just what the text says, narrowly construed, why shouldn’t conservatives?
This isn’t about playing nice in the sandbox of politics, it’s about human rights – and human wrongs masquerading as rights.
Sure, but Dobbs already came along and got rid of one of those latter.
To be clear, if something is actually mentioned in the Constitution as a “right”, it simply cannot, as a legal matter in the US, be masquerading as a right. Legally, it IS a right, end of story.
Well, sure: Just as the right to keep and bear arms implies subsidiary rights to manufacture and sell arms and ammo, freedom of the press includes the right to manufacture and sell printing presses, paper, and ink. Did anyone think otherwise?
>clauses liberals favor
Which clauses do liberals favor, exactly?
Like it or hate it, gun rights are privileged textually.
Michael W. Towns — Like it or hate it, only one gun right was privileged textually in the Federal Constitution. Other gun rights were privileged variously in different state constitutions. Seems like a decision to enforce those distinctions symmetrically would be a no-brainer illustration of a wise use of symmetry.
Sure, if you pretend that the 14th amendment didn’t incorporate the Bill of Rights. Any other parts of the Bill of Rights you want to apply that reasoning to?
As I’ve said before, in a position now well at odds with current Supreme Court jurisprudence, I don’t think the 14th Amendment fully incorporates a stand-alone right to keep and bear arms. The right is indeed an individual one, but it is nonetheless a right subject to the state’s right to have a well-regulated militia, i.e. to regulate its militia well. So I think a state can say that its militia consists of all arms-possessing adults (as some states actually do) and then impose reasonable militia regulations. For example it could require people to have standardized weapons and ammo so they could fight coherently and be logistically suppliable if called to active service. It could require a certain amount of training, a few days a year of service, etc. It could require these things of anybody who wants to possess firearms.
So I think the individual right to keep and bear arms is only the more limited right to keep and bear arms suitable for a state’s specific militia, and only in people who comply with the militia’s requirements.
I think state militia regulations would have to be reasonable with reasonableness reviewable by federal courts, and can’t serve as a back door to effectively nullifying the individual right. So states couldn’t permanently kick people out of their militia for petty offenses, impose requirements that effectively make firearms unusable or unaffordable, require so much service as to interfere with holding a job, etc.
But nonetheless, I think people’s rights vis-a-vis the states are less than their rights vis-a-vis the federal government. For example, under Miller, the 2nd Amendment individual right is limited to weapons suitable for “a” well-regulated militia. I think that vis-a-vis the states, it should be limited to weapons suitable for “the” – the particular state’s specific – well-regulated militia, based on the state’s actual (reasonable) militia regulations.
As this example illustrates, once the state militia clause and the people’s arms clause are combined into a single unified whole, as I think they should be, the people still retain a very real right to keep and bear arms as individuals, but their rights against the states are nonetheless less than their rights against the federal government. That in turn implies that only a portion of the individual 2nd Amendment right against the federal government is fundamental.
Sure, you’re entitled to think that. Just keep in mind that the people who wrote and argued for the 14th amendment disagreed with you, so you’ve got a heavy burden to clear in persuading the Supreme court to agree with you.
Speech Introducing the Fourteenth Amendment to the Senate (1866)
“Such is the character of the privileges and immunities spoken of in the section of the fourth article of the Constitution. To these privileges and immunities, whatever they may be—for they are not and cannot be fully defined in their entire extent and precise nature—to these should be added the personal rights guaranteed and secured by the first eight amendments of the Constitution; such as the freedom of speech and of the press; the right of the people peaceably to assemble and petition the Government for a redress of grievances; a right appertaining to each and all of the people; the right to keep and to bear arms; the right to be exempted from the quartering of soldiers in a house without consent of the owner; the right to be exempt from unreasonable searches and seizures, and from any search or seizure except by virtue of a warrant issued upon a formal oath or affidavit; the right of an accused person to be informed of the nature of the accusation against him, and his right to be tried by an impartial jury of the vicinage; and also the right to be secure against excessive bail and against cruel and unusual punishments. . . .”
“So I think a state can say that its militia consists of all arms-possessing adults (as some states actually do) and then impose reasonable militia regulations. For example it could require people to have standardized weapons and ammo so they could fight coherently and be logistically suppliable if called to active service. It could require a certain amount of training, a few days a year of service, etc. It could require these things of anybody who wants to possess firearms.”
Right up until that last bit I’d agree with you, but there’s just too much evidence that the whole point of the 2nd amendment was to deny government just exactly that power.
Tell me more! Which one gun right was privileged textually in the Federal Constitution?
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