The Volokh Conspiracy
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Why Do Search Warrants "Command" that Searches Occur?
Explaining a puzzle.
If you read a lot of search warrants, you may have noticed something odd about the standard search warrant form. Search warrants command the officer to conduct the search. They don't just authorize the search. Instead they order the officer to conduct the search. The warrant language is mandatory, not permissive.
Consider the federal warrant form. It not only commands the execution of the search, but it puts the command in allcaps and bold: "YOU ARE COMMANDED to execute this warrant . . ." State warrants are written in the same basic way. And authorizing statutes on issuing warrants usually have that language, too.
If you think about it, that's pretty weird. After all, it's the officer who applied for the warrant. The officer is seeking permission to conduct the search, so it's a little strange to order the officer to do what the officer has asked for permission to do.
Plus, despite what the warrant form says, executing the warrant is not really mandatory. If the officer doesn't execute the warrant, that's not a problem. The court can just reissue the warrant if the agents later decide to search, or not if they don't. See, e.g., State v. Nunez, 67 P.3d 831 (Idaho 2003) (holding that, where officers did not execute a warrant during the period it was active and later sought a new warrant, the magistrate judge can just reissue the old warrant on the same piece of paper and it becomes a new warrant).
And sometimes the law doesn't even allow the officer to execute the warrant. If probable cause is lost after the warrant is obtained but before the warrant is executed, the officer can't do what the warrant says he is required to do. See United States v. Spencer, 530 F.3d 1003 (D.C. Cir. 2008) (Kavanaugh, J.) ("[W]hen officers learn of new facts that negate probable cause, they may not rely on an earlier-issued warrant but instead must return to the magistrate—for example, if the police learn that contraband is no longer located at the place to be searched.").
What gives? What explains the mandatory language that gets treated as permissive language in practice?
The answer, I think, is history.
Here's the relevant picture, at least as I understand it. At common law, the basic apparatus of government law enforcement that we know today did not exist. Police as we know it hadn't been invented yet. Victims of crime were mostly on their own. They had to investigate crimes themselves. And they had to bring prosecutions, too. Very few criminal cases were brought by the government. Rather, victims of crimes had to serve as the prosecutors. It was a regime of private enforcement of public rights. See generally J.M. Beattie, Crime and the Courts in England, 1660-1800.
This doesn't mean there was no state at all. Constables were around, and one of their jobs was helping people out with carrying out arrests and (in rare cases) executing search warrants. But there wasn't much of an incentive for constables to do this. One important role of the law of criminal procedure in that era was creating incentives for constables to do their jobs. Here's what I wrote on this back in 2019, focusing on arrests—although the same was true for searches:
The part-time officials such as constables (and I'll just call them all constables for the sake of brevity) didn't have much interest in making arrests and detaining people after the arrest. It was dangerous and time-consuming work, and they in general weren't paid for it. Who wants to risk getting hurt arresting someone and forcibly bringing him to the local judge? There's not nothing in it for the constable. So part of the law regulating constables at common law was about forcing the constables to do their jobs—to make arrests and to detain prisoners—or else face civil suits or criminal punishment.
The law regulating constables had two features relevant here. First, the constable was required to at least try to execute the warrant. A constable who declined to do it could be charged with a crime or sued for neglect of duty.
And second, a constable who made an arrest but then let the prisoner go could be charged with the crime of escape (see 590-95) or sued in tort under the tort of escape. A constable was liable for escape when he made an arrest but then the prisoner went free, either because the constable intentionally let the prisoner go (called "voluntary escape") or the prisoner escaped despite the constable's efforts to detain him (called "negligent escape").
From this perspective, the idea that a search warrant would order the constable to execute it makes a lot of sense. In those days, search warrants were obtained mostly to recover stolen goods. The property owner who had their stuff stolen would figure out where their stuff had been taken, and they would go to the local Justice of the Peace and seek a search warrant to search that place and bring their stuff back. The applicant for the warrant was the victim, and he needed the constable to execute the warrant for him—something the constable may have had no interest in doing.
In that world, a search warrant needed to do more than authorize a search. It had to order the constable to execute the search on the victim-complainant's behalf.
Consider the sample form search warrant that appeared in the influential Justice of the Peace manual, Richard Burns, The Justice of the Peace, And Parish Officer (1793 ed.):
Here, the warrant is being sought to recover stolen goods belonging to the victim, A.I. The victim, A.I., has provided the basis of probable cause. The victim, A.I,, has probable cause to believe that someone stole his stuff and that his stuff is now hidden in A.O.'s house. The warrant is addressed to the constable, and it does "authorize and require" the constable, "with necessary and proper assistants," to break into A.O.'s house and to search A.O.'s house for A.I.'s stolen goods—and if A.I.'s things are found, to retrieve them and (if he's there) to arrest A.O. and to bring them to the Justice of the Peace. The warrant is being sought by the victim, and the warrant is addressed to the constable as an order.
Incidentally, I think this also explains why warrants name the officer—or group of officers—who is required to execute the search. That previously struck me as odd. After all, if the warrant is merely an authorization to search, who cares which specific officer executes it? Some government agent can do it; that's all that should matter, right? But at common law, who executes the warrant was important. In an era when the warrant was commanding the constable to do something the constable probably didn't want to do, it was presumably important for the warrant to state exactly who had the responsibility to do what the court was commanding.
If I'm right, the answer to this puzzle is simple: the world changed, but no one updated the form.
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IAMAA but I think it also has something to do with the fact that the police officer executing the warrant is not acting on his own behalf but (technically) that of the court, and that his authority is coming from the court and not his own badge.
After all, the COURT has to receive the results of the warrant.
No it doesn't. (As the OP explains.)
Why would that explain things?
the world changed, but no one updated the form
That's basically the motto of the entirety of US law.
Yes
Could it also be that the court wanted to discourage the constable from blowing the whole thing off, or doing a cursory search that didn't really get the job done?
Might that also be the reason for naming the officer? Don't want to risk the suspect's constable brother-in-law doing the search.
Except in actual practice (of the last century or so) any officer can rely on the warrant. Including the target's brother.
They don’t, though? The federal form that you link to is addressed to “any authorized law enforcement officer”, as are all the state forms I can remember seeing.
I’ve carefully read this post twice now, and I can’t for the life of me tell whom I’m supposed to hate or blame for some horrific social ill. May I suggest that if you can’t make that clearer, blogging may not be for you.
Professor Kerr, seems a bit different to me.
If you read the power to search as a prerogative of the sovereign, and the activity to conduct the search as an authorized government power, seems like there is no dilemma. Sovereign decrees to direct specific government actions are always commands.
Government officials are not in principle at liberty to decide whether or not to obey a sovereign decree. The form of the warrant thus explicitly reinforces what is going on in political theory.
Or was going on, until the legal community began to treat government as actually sovereign. After that, confusions and apparent paradoxes multiplied, as folks tried to untangle the nonsense resulting from what amounts to decapitated constitutionalism.
And I thought Dr. Ed sounded dumb!
Noscitur — Got anything substantive to criticize? Am I mistaken, for instance, about the search power belonging to the sovereign?
Yes.
How?
Nieporent — The author of the 4A? The government, or the People?
"If you read [...] the activity to conduct the search as an authorized government power, seems like there is no dilemma. Sovereign decrees to direct specific government actions are always commands."
Maybe I was taught wrong but I thought the whole purpose of warrants were to authorize the government to take an action they ordinarily are prohibited from doing, e.g., arresting someone, searching someone, executing someone.
Kleppe — Okay, so you take a step nearer the truth, without quite arriving at it.
What power do you suppose, “authorizes,” those actions? Do you concede it must be some entity with power greater than government’s, to constrain or empower at pleasure whatever government actions that entity commands? If you do concede that, as I think you must, what would you call that super-powerful entity?
If you do not concede that, do you suppose that leaves government at liberty to search or seize arbitrarily, according to the pleasure of government officers, including judicial officers? If so, what import do you ascribe to the oath those officers swear upon taking office, and to whom do they swear it?
Do you think, paradoxically, that oaths themselves can be efficacious, despite absence of any power with agency to compel obedience to them?
If I'm reading your argument correctly, I think you're mistaken. I think you're saying the people are sovereign not the officials so the people are commanding the officials to act?
The power to search was delegated as part of the sovereign to government officials. But that delegation is generally discretionary so there's no need for a mandatory command. The point is the authorization. But the authorization was also delegated to Judges and magistrates.
If you're just saying that the sovereign people delegated the power to search to officials and want to make sure they carry out their duties, you're just saying the same thing Prof. Kerr is saying but in a more confusing and complicated way. The point is we went from unmotivated state actors to motivated state actors. Theories of sovereignty don't change what are actually practical concerns.
Judge King of the fourth circuit made a big deal about this in his dissent in Sims v. Labowitz.
Apparently one Detective Abbot sought and received a warrant to photograph a teenager's erect penis, and Judge King was of the opinion that the compulsory nature of the warrant meant that Detective Abbot was required to force the child to masturbate in order to comply with the court order.
The attempt was unsuccessful, so apparently the detective disobeyed the court order. Jude King didn't elaborate on what further actions the warrant required the detective to perform in order to be compliant.
I feel like there's an "oral evidence" joke in here somewhere.
A serious question: Would Detective Abbot be exempt from the child abuse laws for this "search"?
I don't see why not. Many sexually invasive searches that happen to be illegal still aren't crimes because the conduct doesn't meet the "sexual purpose" element. It does in this case, but the detective wasn't charged.
The same detective, however, was charged for similar non-work-related conduct, and he killed himself while being arrested.
Checking the federal form linked.
The warrant is addressed to "Any authorized law enforcement officer" and notes that "an application by a federal law enforcement officer or an attorney for the government requests the search."
It doesn't say the person searching necessarily requested the warrant. So, it is not quite strange that the specific officer searching is "commanded" to do something.
Also, the "command" language specifically concerns the timing of the search. The officer might still be inclined not to search at that specific time. Some pressure might be warranted.
Of course, I bow to the expertise of the writer, and the history is interesting. Many are not aware of such details.
When Prof. Kerr posed this question in the title of his post, I felt sure the answer would be "history", but I did not know the particulars, which I thank him for sharing.
I was expecting it to be history, but I was expecting that it would be the history of king's commands to their nominal servants.
That does seem like a more likely explanation. The ancient writs were all in the form of a command in the name of the King, often to a sheriff or another of his officials, to do some thing or provide some assistance to the petitioner. The petitioner had prayed (and paid!) for the king's help and got it in the form of an exercise of the king's authority, not leaving it to the discretion of someone else.
Typo: There’s not nothing -> They hain’t nuthin’
There are a lot of things we lawyers read — and write — that we have no idea what they mean. It’s just boilerplate and ask the lawyer what it means, they have no clue. I don’t think this is true in any other profession.
Thanks for this post.
Years after getting my M.D. I noticed it says at the beginning,
“To all whom these presents come, Greetings”
sort of weird, this piece of paper is greeting me for reading it.
Frank
It makes more sense if you consider the diploma to be a letter of reference, which is what it once was.
There was a time when college presidents would serve for thirty years, and when deans came out of the faculty, and academia was a much smaller world than it is today.
Hence alumni reading the diploma may personally know some of the people signing it -- and notwithstanding that, likely knew of them by their reputations. Hence the formality to be polite.
"The Constable of France is COMMANDED to arrest Henry V"
Is not the command to search (and seize) be a way to insulate the constable from tort liability from the owner of the premises searched or the items seized under the warrant (a facially valid court order)?
I hate how interesting I find this and that I will be thinking about it all day.