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The Open Fields Doctrine and the Text of the Fourth Amendment
What is a "house"?
This essay in the print edition of Reason argues that courts should overturn the "open fields" doctrine of the Fourth Amendment:
In a decision issued at the dawn of Prohibition, the Supreme Court quietly gutted a freedom guaranteed in the Bill of Rights: the protection against unwarranted search and seizure. The 100th anniversary of that decision is a perfect time to kill the open fields doctrine.
In 1919, revenue agents spotted Charlie Hester selling a quart of moonshine outside his South Carolina home. When confronted, Hester and the buyer each dropped their jugs, which shattered but retained a portion of their contents. That allowed the agents to determine the jugs contained illegally distilled whiskey.
Hester challenged his arrest as a violation of the Fourth Amendment: The agents had hopped a fence and traipsed across a pasture, without a warrant, to get to him. In 1924, the Supreme Court sided with the government in Hester v. United States. Justice Oliver Wendell Holmes wrote for the majority that "the special protection accorded by the Fourth Amendment to the people in their 'persons, houses, papers, and effects,' is not extended to the open fields." Ostensibly, Holmes' open fields doctrine held that a person's home and the "curtilage"—the area immediately surrounding the home—receive full Fourth Amendment protection, while the rest of one's property does not.
Holmes' decision is less than three pages long, but the damage it's caused to personal liberty and the right to be free from government intrusion has been huge.
The proposal, as I understand it, would be to extend the curtilage protection to all land. Any entry onto a person's land would require a warrant under the Fourth Amendment. The essay also argues that there should be state constitutional protections or statutory protections to have the same effect.
I want to focus on the Fourth Amendment part of the argument. There seems to me a problem with eliminating the open fields doctrine: How do you square that with the Fourth Amendment's text?
The text of the Fourth Amendment text does not impose a ban on unreasonable searches in some general or abstract sense. The language is more specific: the protection is against unreasonable searches and seizures of "their persons, houses, papers, and effects[.]" To be protected by the Fourth Amendment, the thing searched has to be a person, house, paper, or effect.
The idea of the open fields doctrine is that an open field is not a person, not a house, not a paper, and not effects (which means movable personal property). Following the text, you don't get protection on the land itself—unless you have your person, house, paper, or effects there.
What about the "curtilage"? The idea of curtilage is that there are some spaces so close to the house that they are functionally part of it, even if technically outside the house. You need to protect those spaces as a sort of penumbra around the house to fully protect the house. That prevents an officer from hanging out on your front porch all day, or walking right right up to your kitchen window and just staying there watching you inside. To protect the home, the law treats the area right around the home as the home. It gets called the "curtilage," a common law concept for the area right around the home that (in the old days) was treated as the home for some purposes. See Jacob Giles, A New Law Dictionary (1732) (defining "curtilage" as a "Court, Yard, Backside, or Piece of Ground lying near and belonging to a Dwelling-house").
Some might object, textually, that using an emanations-and-penumbras-type argument to extend the "house" to the curtilage area technically outside the house is a bit of a stretch. Others might think it's textually fair, as "searching" a "house" shouldn't require physical entry inside it if outside space is used as an extension of it. Either way, I think it's challenging, at least if you take text seriously, to argue that any land a person owns fits within the categories of "persons, houses, papers, [or] effects" even if it's just an open field not near a house.
Of course, you can endorse or oppose the open fields doctrine as a matter of policy. But at least for those focused on the text, it seems to me a pretty sound way to interpret the Fourth Amendment.
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Hmmm....is this precedent the reason that wildlife officials can enter one's land to verify if one is hunting more than their quota?
Would all wildlife management on private property cease as a result of overturning the precedent?
I think this is a reasonable argument.
The curtilage answers the “I am not touching you” argument of five-year-olds when they stick their finger an inch away from your face.
An open field is a whole different matter. As property, there still can be some minimum due process protections. Also, maybe open fields should be given more protections by other routes like state constitutions. The 4A provides a limited protection.
We protect telephone conversations because they are important to personal privacy. Justice Black argued they did not fall within the text of the amendment. Nonethless, others argued that counts for the protection of “persons.”
Protection of an open field, however, does seem a stretch.
The problem is, "open field" doctrine has been extended to fields that absolutely aren't open. Fenced fields, with signs stating "No trespassing", even.
As I understand it, in the founding era, if an officer of the government didn't have a warrant, they stood in relation to the property owner just like anybody else. If they entered unwanted, they were trespassers. That's what the warrant was for, after all: To give them rights NOT possessed by any random person.
That doctrine has gone by the wayside, officers of the law are now granted an extensive range of privileges not exercised by ordinary citizens. But should it have gone by the wayside?
Personally, I think not.
I don't know of any basis for your conclusion that there was a change in the doctrine.
Well, based on this…
The very fact that “open fields” doctrine IS applied to closed fields with no trespassing signs, while Joe Not-a-cop Blow IS a trespasser if he enters my fenced property with no trespassing signs kinda does say that doctrine changed. Cops without warrants ARE treated differently from other people.
I'm with the Institute for Justice on this: Open fields doctrine needs to die.
How do you figure? The interesting question (from the point of view of a criminal defendant) isn’t whether a police officer was trespassing: it’s whether the officer violated the fourth amendment (so that the evidence gets suppressed). Note, by the way, that Hester expressly mentions this distinction!
Trespassing is very different than the 4th Amendment. There is nothing in the 4th Amendment that permits or prevents police from trespassing except in a person's house. Whether police can or can't trespass would, I believe, be a matter under state law (unless it rises to the level of a taking), as would any potential suppression of evidence found while trespassing. I have no idea if any state has adopted such a rule, but I seem to remember that a court required the removal of state wildlife cameras from private property that were used to try to find evidence of poaching.
It very much matters if cops are free to commit trespass without consequence, and then can use any evidence they happen to observe while trespassing. What IS "searching", anyway, if not entering a place and looking around?
If the Fourth Amendment said that there was a right to be secure in your places against unreasonable searches, this argument would have some force.
Does it?
Is such a field a person, a house, a paper, or an effect, in your opinion?
What the field is, is a "place"; You'll not that word also occurs in the 4th amendment.
The contents of the field would be effects.
For someone who is usually so adamant that the constitutional text has such a clearly fixed meaning that anyone who doesn’t want to apply it is acting in bad faith, you sure seem quick to ignore it when it doesn’t lead to your favored policy results.
I tend to think rights, to the extent they actually are called out in the Constitution, need to be interpreted expansively, rather than with an eye to how to minimize them. I'm especially dubious when the interpretation of a right shifts in a less protective direction, as has happened with open fields doctrine.
Remember, this doctrine isn't founding era, it wasn't around when the 4th amendment was written and ratified. It isn't Civil war era, it wasn't around when the 14th amendment incorporated federal rights against the states.
It originated in 1924 because robust property rights were getting in the way of enforcing Prohibition. Prohibition and the war on drugs were destructive of many civil liberties, this was just one instance.
I guess it's a stretch to call a doctrine that turns 100 this year "modern", but it sure as hell isn't originalist, there's no reason to think that the 4th amendment was intended to be limited in this way.
So, if a busted jug isn't one of your effects, what is it? Was the jug not seized?
If you read Hester, the Supreme Court concluded that "there was no seizure" of the jugs "in the sense of the law when the officers examined the contents of each after it had been abandoned."
Yeah, the courts often resort to 'legal fictions', which is to say, lies, when the truth is inconvenient.
It's a holding of the case.
Does that really automatically make it true?
It's not clear to me (perhaps I don't understand the facts) how the jug could be deemed "abandoned" if the defendant dropped it on his own property.
In the slightly bigger picture, are fishing expiditions on your land a valid concept? Does government get the honor of scouring everything outside your curtilage for something to hurt you with?
We should not forget the larger reaeon for all this. As we have seen, "Everybody is equal before the law" is a piss-poor constraint on using the power of government to investigate opponents.
And I don't just mean Trump. There's the mayor of New York. He claims powers out to get him. I don't believe it, but also he hasn't been under attack by dozens of legal initiatives the past 10 years.
The ban on fishing expeditions isn't about fearing the planting of evidence. It's about the king, knowing his powerful, wealthy opponents likely can be guilty of real infractions, if only you look closely enough. To get them out of your hair, do so. Easy peasy.
No. Fish do not swim on land.
!!! 🙂
As a side note, the hand you typed that with was a 5-phlanged flipper some fish used to hobble across mud and dirt to get to a nearby pool, so, in a sense, a fish swimming on land.
Dang, you got me. 🙂
Speaking cladistically, tetrapods like humans still are fish.
And some classical fish do still get out of the water on rainy days and go for a walk. Particularly catfish.
I don’t see anything in the case that would indicate it was, no. (The officers, as the opinion describes the facts, wouldn’t have violated the fourth amendment by seizing it, of course. But the opinion, as far as I can tell, doesn’t say that they did.)
So how does "curtilage" apply when these days a cop can stand on the sidewalk (a public right of way) and look into your windows?
The sidewalk is not curtilage.
Same question, but with an infrared device looking through a wall.
Same thing?
Aiming a listening device at a window from across the street?
Nope, that is unconstitutional per Kyllo. The test is whether the thing being used is in "general public use"
Yeah but Kyllo is 23 years old now. Home inspectors use handheld infrared devices all the time to look for moisture issues. I am not smart enough to say if things have definitely changed, but there might be an argument.
Wow, a three-page opinion. Much more useful than one of today's 50-page treatises (plus dissents) which would discourse on the common law meaning of curtilage, the origins of the Fourth Amendment, the history of (in this case) state regulation of alcoholic beverages, and various other topics before finally announcing, generally in vague and ambiguous terms, the ratio decidendi.
I think a “house” is anywhere you house, i.e., keep your stuff. That’s why searching a business or a barn should require a warrant just as much as a home does. That normally requires some kind of enclosed shelter—though, I agree that the curtilage is part of a house because it’s so closely connected to the house (it’s like a walking cane being part of a person’s body). An open field wouldn’t meet that definition.
People keep saying "open", like we're not talking about cops who hop over fences.
In Michigan, House Bill 4385 seeks to remove the Open Field Doctrine from use by the DNR.
State Rep Greg Markkanen (a good Yooper Finn) wants to keep the government off your property if they can't do the fucking work to be there legally.
In my state the open fields doctrine implicitly applies to private parties as well. Criminal trespass protects "the dwelling house, buildings, boats or improved or enclosed land, wharf, or pier of another". Massachusetts General Laws chapter 266 section 120, emphasis added.
I'm curious.
Why wasn't all private property protected by the fourth ammendment?
America was largely a rural country when the ccnstitution was written. Were the founding fathers too focused on the British searching their homes to think about searches of other parts of their property? Or were there no searches of "open" fields in those days?
Also, was the word "houses" assumed to also cover places of business? Or were "papers" and "effects" intended to cover searches of business properties? Or did the founding fathers not care about businesses?
I guess the answer is, it was, until 1924. Open fields doctrine isn't founding era. It's a Prohibition era circumvention of the 4th amendment.
"I guess the answer is, it was, until 1924. Open fields doctrine isn’t founding era. It’s a Prohibition era circumvention of the 4th amendment."
Thanks for responding - my interpretation is the same: the current interpretation seems to be a "circumvention".
I'm just a layman, trying to better understand what triggered/justified that circumvention. I think that the constitution has been undermined by some Supreme Court decisions over the years. But I can't yet grasp how/why there appears to have been a change in the interpretation of what is covered by the fourth ammendment.
Do you believe that the founding fathers did (or thought they had) put sufficient protection of private property in the constitution?
And sufficient limits on searches?
Professor Kerr states that, "To be protected by the Fourth Amendment, the thing searched has to be a person, house, paper, or effect." Did open fields fall into one of those categories prior to 1924?
Were there any cases of British search activity that could be considered parallel to the searching of open fields today? Something that would have caused the founding fathers to have the same concern about searches of their fields as they did about searches of their houses?
Could (should) the fourth ammendment have been better written to attempt to preclude decisions such as Hester v. United States?