The Volokh Conspiracy
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Unethical for Lawyers to Tell Clients Their Judges May Be Biased Based on Race, Sex, Etc.?
"The judge soon learned that, in a recorded conversation between defense counsel and the defendant, the attorney had referred to the age, race, political affiliation, and gender of the court's judges, and suggested that the court 'should look a little bit more like the people that are in front of them.' The attorney also suggested that the defendant would not receive a fair trial from the court's judges, who are a different race and gender from the defendant. Finally, the attorney used a pejorative term, drawing on racial and gender stereotypes, to refer to the complainant."
That appears to be the assumption behind N.Y. Advisory Committee on Judicial Ethics opinion 24-73, at least when "the attorney's comments are so egregious that they seriously call into question the attorney's honesty, trustworthiness, or fitness to practice law," whatever that might mean in this context; the opinion was released May 9 but just posted on Westlaw:
While the inquiring judge was presiding in a criminal matter, the defendant questioned whether he/she could receive a fair trial before any judge of the court. The judge soon learned that, in a recorded conversation between defense counsel and the defendant, the attorney had referred to the age, race, political affiliation, and gender of the court's judges, and suggested that the court "should look a little bit more like the people that are in front of them."
The attorney also suggested that the defendant would not receive a fair trial from the court's judges, who are a different race and gender from the defendant. Finally, the attorney used a pejorative term, drawing on racial and gender stereotypes, to refer to the complainant. [It appears to me that "complainant" here means the person bringing the matter before the Commission—i.e., the judge—and not the defendant. -EV] The judge found the comments "very troubling" and asks whether he/she must report the attorney.
A judge must uphold the judiciary's integrity and independence (see 22 NYCRR 100.1) and must always avoid even the appearance of impropriety (see 22 NYCRR 100.2). Further, a judge must always act in a manner that promotes public confidence in the judiciary's integrity and impartiality (see 22 NYCRR 100.2[[A]), and must not allow family, social, political, or other relationships to influence the judge's judicial conduct or judgment (see 22 NYCRR 100.2[B]).
A judge must "require lawyers in proceedings before the judge to refrain from manifesting, by words or conduct, bias or prejudice based upon age, race, creed, color, sex, sexual orientation, gender identity, gender expression, religion, national origin, disability, marital status or socioeconomic status, against parties, witnesses, counsel or others" (22 NYCRR 100.3[B][5]). Additionally, if a judge receives information indicating a "substantial likelihood" that a lawyer committed a "substantial violation" of the Rules of Professional Conduct, that judge must take "appropriate action" (22 NYCRR 100.3[[D][2]).
We have advised that a judge need not investigate alleged misconduct and may discharge his/her disciplinary responsibilities, if any, "based on those facts already known to the judge without further inquiry" (Opinion 22-64; see also Opinion 23-239).
Here, it appears that the inquiring judge has already concluded that he/she has received information indicating a substantial likelihood that the attorney has committed a substantial violation of the Rules of Professional Conduct. If so, the judge is obligated to take "appropriate action" and the sole question presented for us is what action is "appropriate" under the circumstances. This determination is ordinarily left to the judge's discretion in all but the clearest cases, even when the judge is satisfied that the attorney's comments inappropriately touched on the categories set forth in Section 100.3(B)(5) [age, race, creed, color, sex, sexual orientation, gender identity, gender expression, religion, national origin, disability, marital status or socioeconomic status, against parties, witnesses, counsel or others]. For example, in Opinion 22-49, we advised that "[a]fter a judge admonished an attorney on the record for an inappropriate attempt at humor referencing the client's ethnicity or national origin, the judge has discretion to take further action, but is not required to do so."
By contrast, we did require reporting in Opinion 23-113, where the judge concluded there was a substantial likelihood that an attorney made "multiple offensive remarks" to nonjudicial court personnel and opposing counsel. In that instance, however, some of the extensive remarks described in the inquiry appeared to "qualify as sexual harassment" while others "reflect[ed] ethnic and/or religious bias" (id.).
We note that the racist and sexist remarks described here were apparently made during an out-of-court conversation between an attorney and a client, in which the attorney also provided advice about venue and expressed a view on the need for increased diversity in the judiciary. On the facts presented, we cannot determine for the judge whether the attorney's comments are so egregious that they seriously call into question the attorney's honesty, trustworthiness, or fitness to practice law. That determination must therefore remain in the judge's sole discretion.
If the judge concludes that the alleged misconduct is so egregious that it seriously calls into question the attorney's honesty, trustworthiness, or fitness to practice law, then the judge must report him/her to the attorney grievance committee (see Opinion 22-49). Otherwise, the judge may take some lesser action, exercising his/her discretion to "determine what constitutes "appropriate action' upon the judge's own evaluation of all relevant and known circumstances" (id. [admonishment on the record]; Opinion 15-54 [noting examples such as "addressing the prosecutors' conduct in a decision" or ""counseling, reprimanding, admonishing, sanctioning, [or] reporting the attorneys to their superiors"]).
As a reminder, if the judge chooses to report the attorney, he/she must thereafter disqualify in all cases involving that attorney during the pendency of the disciplinary complaint and for two years after its resolution (see e.g. Opinions 20-151; 20-67). This disqualification is not subject to remittal unless the attorney grievance committee imposes public discipline, or the reported attorney waives confidentiality (id.).
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Wasn't this a private conversation between client and counsel? Who recorded it?
Good question.
Another good question is how does ths qualify as "proceedings before the judge" ? The judge is nowhere in sight.
A judge must "require lawyers in proceedings before the judge to refrain from manifesting, by words or conduct, bias or prejudice based upon age, race, creed, color, sex, sexual orientation, gender identity, gender expression, religion, national origin, disability, marital status or socioeconomic status, against parties, witnesses, counsel or others"
One might argue, though not convincingly, that "a lawyer in proceedings before the judge" means "a lawyer who has proceedings before the judge" - ie it covers what the lawyer says to his wife, when he gets home at the end of the day, just as much as what he says in court or privately to his client.
Probably a recorded jail phone call.
Is that legal?
It seems somewhat unfair for the prosecution to get tape recordings of the defense discussing trial strategy and such. I always thought that you weren't allowed to record conversations with counsel.
Just because the conversation was recorded doesn't mean the prosecution ever listened to it.
Except someone would have had to have listened to it.
Unless the defendant themselves volunteered it, I'm not seeing how the judge could ever demand this recording unless something is seriously wrong to start with.
It could be that the conversation happened at the county jail, some corrections officer listened to it to make sure they weren't plotting an escape, and that corrections officer on his own initiative took it to the judge. It could have happened any number of other ways. All I'm saying is there's no reason, based on what is reported here, to assume the prosecution ever listened to the recordings or had any involvement in this situation.
It could also be ye old butt dial. Or someone called chambers and left a message, and then failed to hang up and had this conversation, which was then recorded.
Most systems only give you a minute (or less) for this very reason.
The concern being that one call like this would exhaust the entire capacity of the system.
I read in coverage of one of the recent high profile Massachusetts cases that jails have lists of phone numbers that should not be recorded. Somebody was accused of putting an ineligible number on his attorney list.
I thought that was the rule.
Which high profile case did this happen in?
Additionally, if a judge receives information indicating a "substantial likelihood" that a lawyer committed a "substantial violation" of the Rules of Professional Conduct, that judge must take "appropriate action"
Gee, does this apply to a DA who campaigns on getting a particular citizen convicted of SOMETHING?
1) What DA do you think did that? (Hint: if your answer is Alvin Bragg, you've been fooled; he never said that.)
2) No, it doesn't. In fact, it doesn't have anything to do with that. That is not a violation of any RPC.
So "jail niggers" is actionable, but "jail orangeman" isn't?
And you wonder why people think that Shakespeare was right...
what
No, but I wonder why you keep lying about what Shakespeare thought about lawyers. Or whether you're just that stupid.
But James did, often on the campaign trail.
Since James isn't a DA, and didn't prosecute Trump or convict him of anything, I don't understand how that's relevant to this discussion.
You can see from this why advisory opinions are the exception, rather than the rule. It's nearly impossible to have a discussion about this without having some idea of what was said.
Agreed, it’s hard to make head or tail of this. What the dickens does “a pejorative term drawing on racial and gender stereotypes” mean?
I'm going to guess. Its a black female client and a bunch of old male white crackers on the bench. Maybe she was wanting a bench trial and the attorney thought a jury would be better and was trying to persuade the client to that end?? "You can't trust these judges...or any judge in this county." I am purely speculating here based on little context we have. But this happens a lot.
The reverse also happens. The potential jury pool is all old, white and skews female and you want a male black client charged with domestic battery to waive jury and have a bench trial.
Shooting from the hip, I'd guess the lawyer called the judge a gringo or a cracker.
I practice in NYC and I assumed it was a white defendant in front of a black judge.
Ah. I didn't consider a white male snowflake.
Aren't there Jewish judges in NYC? I was thinking a female Jewish judge and Black defendant.
Although I am reminded of Bonfire of the Vanities
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=i7UW-MKthI0
It’s just that, though I only practice civil law, not criminal, I was on the defense side in cases in front of a black judge (with a mostly brown and black jury) and the partner (my boss) was freely trading racist comments with our client during prep sessions. IOW, I’ve actually been witness to this kind of behavior, and in that context.
Also I've had senior attorneys make statements like that to me. Of course, I was not in a position to object. I did refuse to nod, probably to the detriment of my advancement.
I'm not an attorney, but this seems rather stupid to me because all you need is for the client to let one of those comments slip in front of said judge and I suspect you are going to have a really bad day.
It's like the Mass State Troopers texting about Karen Read and (I'm sure) never expected the Governor to be asked to comment on what they wrote. (Hint: She was not pleased...)
So call a member of the public a Nazi and it's no big deal despite destroying their life but infer a judge isn't a saint and there are consequences. Gotta love the modern injustice system.
Every judicial system I have heard of is more focused on ritual than justice, with the end goal maintaining the powers that be status quo. I doubt Prof Volokh would agree with that, but he does say that lawyers' true super power is turning any question into a question of procedure.
"The first thing we do, let's kill all the lawyers."
-- William Shakespeare, Henry VI
You neither got the cite correct nor understood it (yet again).
OK, what play *was* it in?
And maybe I *do* understand it...
*imply
Not liking "infer" in this context is recent and not universal. "Inference" has kept some of that flavor better.
Furthermore, according to the American Heritage Dictionary, one of the definitions of "infer" is "To indicate indirectly; imply."
One of the things I hated most about the Navy was the sharp distinction between officers and enlisted, especially the salutin' and sirrin'. Respect is earned, not an entitlement.
But I will give it to them: an aircraft carrier is one heck of a toy, and I don't regret a minute of my four years.
Theoretically, the officers are gentlemen.
Hey, anyone else remember when Blackman said it would be malpractice to not take the biases of a judge into consideration and go judge-shopping?
I do (see this post). And?
Volokh, I take you for a wicked man, but not a dumb one.
Don't try to be cute: you aren't.
This unfortunate opinion is a predictable consequence of adding DEI language to the ethics rules. Are judges really better suited than the general public to determine when someone is "manifesting, by words or conduct, bias or prejudice based upon age, race, creed, color, sex, sexual orientation, gender identity, gender expression, religion, national origin, disability, marital status or socioeconomic status, against parties, witnesses, counsel or others"? No. And neither are judges especially well-suited to determine whether an exception to the rule applies for "legitimate advocacy when age, race, creed, color, sex, sexual orientation, religion, national origin, disability, marital status or socioeconomic status, or other similar factors are issues in the proceeding."
Despite the opinion's efforts to obscure the context of the statements here, it seems very likely that counsel was criticizing the lack of racial diversity on the bench and opining that a minority client was unlikely to get a fair shake as a result. Maybe true and maybe not. Maybe a critique made honestly and in good faith and maybe not. But why should the judge be in a position to decide these questions? I'd much rather see lawyers "get away" with making cynical or even unfounded remarks about lack of diversity on the bench than have them silenced for fear that an unsympathetic judge will mire them in disciplinary proceedings. After all, if the lawyer is right, and the judges on that court are generally biased, surely those same judges are likely to retaliate against lawyers who point out the bias.
It is completely legitimate (arguably required) for a lawyer to advise his client about factors the lawyer thinks may impact the likelihood of success in litigation, not to mention the severity of the client's sentence if he is convicted. Subordinating that obligation to a desire to stamp DEI gibberish on every available surface does a disservice to litigants, including those ostensibly served by DEI policies.
I think you're 100% correct.
This seems...odd.
Let's say you're a divorce attorney with a female client. And you mention a certain female judge will be more amenable to giving you custody of the kids, so you'd like to get her to hear your case if possible.
Now, that's an ethics violation?
Yes, the argument seems to be that acknowledging that judge shopping is an effective practice is an ethics violation.
No word on whether judge shopping itself is a violation.
If you subtract the (unspecified) racial slurs, there was nothing objectionable about that conversation. It might indeed have been the truth, and the truth is something that an attorney must tell his client. But the Ethics people wanted to look good, and to make themselves feel good about themselves.
It does seem to be in the "it's worse to call out someone's racism then it is to be racist" camp of arguments.
We're kind of shadowboxing because the opinion is so vague, but I think there is a hair to be split here.
"Judge Smith is a woman and she usually gives custody to mothers, I like our chances"
vs.
"Judge Jones is a woman and women always give custody to mothers, I like our chances."
Yeah, that's where I see the line being, too. Making bigoted characterizations of all judges of a given background is a no-no. But if you have the experience to back up a sincere belief that a given judge is biased in some way, it would be unethical NOT to speak to your client about that.
Clearly, the New York judicial system has very stringent requirements for the behavior of trial lawyers, such that they must avoid even the appearance in word or deed of prejudice and bias. It's also clear that New York judges have fairly wide discretion in investigating and sanctioning allegations of prejudice/bias against a practicing lawyer.
It is further clear that the New York judicial system has a well-defined set of guidelines for proper judicial conduct for sitting judges, i.e. 22 NYCRR Part 100. In the preamble to Part 100 is a declaration that "The rules governing judicial conduct are rules of reason." I'd say that here on Reason.com we should be taking note of that. The rules contain 22 NYCCR 100.2, which states "A judge shall avoid impropriety and the appearance of impropriety in all of the judge's activities." There are a number of admonitions concerning the words and actions a judge must avoid to be in compliance with the rule. This section of Part 100 suggests to me that all a sitting judge (or candidate) needs to do is "Just Say No" to people or circumstances that might possibly run him/her afoul of the rule. Simple. Like first grade simple.
So why can't we have a similar uniform code of conduct for the federal judiciary? Such a code should be written by a designated commission drawn from within the judiciary (to preserve judicial independence), but not to include the sitting judges themselves. Neither Congress or the White House would have to be involved. It could simply lay out 8-10 clear, unambiguous rules for all federal judges and justices to follow to avoid giving even the appearance of impropriety. Simple. Public confidence in the federal judiciary would begin to increase again following the SCOTUS' publication of the rules.
I read this as a judge being unsure of what his obligations were...
Are you being sarcastic? Honestly can't tell whether you're pretending federal judges don't have a code of conduct in order to highlight the fact that it doesn't bind the Supreme Court or whether you're really worked up over a bad assumption.
Suppose this had happened with a lawyer representing a black client in Alabama in 1950. I would not want that lawyer disciplined. I would prefer that such a conversation remain between attorney and client. So while I suspect I would be less sympathetic to this modern day attorney, I find it concerning that the judge is getting involved here.
There is absolutely no difference between a lawyer representing a Black client in Alabama circa 1950 and a lawyer representing a MAGA client in New York today.
The rules need to be written on that presumption -- yes, we try to abate the prejudice, but we presume that it exists because our legal system is run by human beings.
There is absolutely no difference between a lawyer representing a Black client in Alabama circa 1950 and a lawyer representing a MAGA client in New York today.
What a rich fantasy life you lead
There WAS a NAACP that actually won cases back then. There were Black lawyers back then, I've met a few (now retired).
Your last paragraph identifies a potential problem for a judge who reports an attorney in New York. You wrote, "As a reminder, if the judge chooses to report the attorney, he/she must thereafter disqualify in all cases involving that attorney during the pendency of the disciplinary complaint and for two years after its resolution . . ."
So if a judge reports an attorney, then can't a litigant who isn't happy with the way a case is going in front of that judge simply hire the reported attorney and adds that attorney to the party's counsel, and behold, a mistrial and the party gets to start over with a new judge.
I was thinking that seemed odd too. You can also get out of having a particular judge in any of your cases for 2+ years by making a comment strong enough to make the judge want to report you, but not necessarily strong enough you'll get any real discipline.
So, it’s unethical to tell your client the truth? After practicing criminal law for 40 years, I know which judges have certain biases, and it’s irresponsibly Pollyannaish to think judges don’t, and I will be candid with my clients, regardless of what the pretentious power structure thinks.
Absolutely correct.
The issue is that, from what little we know, it doesn't sound like the attorney was saying "these judges will be difficult because these particular judges are biased" but rather "these judges will be difficult because of their age/race/sex/politics." The former is good (unless untrue) but the latter is stupid and apparently unacceptable.
"I've never seen Judge A give a black man a fair shake" vs "Judge A won't be fair to you because she's Jewish."
How about "Judge A is a Jew and I've never seen her give a Black man a fair shake"?
When you think of jury consultants or even the amount of information one can get about potential jurors from Lexis Peoplefinder, I have a hard time sanctioning attorneys for what well may be sloppy language. We're policing thoughts here, that's scary.
And honestly folks -- there isn't any of those prohibited thoughtcrimes in jury selection when all you have are prejudices, including what the potential juror is wearing.