The Volokh Conspiracy
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"Unpublished" or "Noncitable" Opinions
This issue arose in the Adams v. Gulley thread ("California Judge Orders Removal of Reddit Criticism of Scientist/Consultant Who Publicly Criticized English Lucy Letby Murder Trial"), but I've also seen confusion about it in other places as well, so I thought I'd write briefly about it.
In federal appellate courts and many state appellate courts, many court opinions are labeled "unpublished" or "not for publication." This essentially means that they are not binding precedent, and are not to be published in the official reporters where binding precedent is published. The opinions are often "published" in the lay sense of the term: They are made public on pay services like Westlaw and Lexis, and on many free sites, generally including the sites of the very courts that label them "unpublished." Indeed, some are published in print volumes (such as the Federal Appendix, where federal appellate unpublished decisions are printed).
There is no legal prohibition on writing about them, quoting them, or reproducing them online or elsewhere. They are just not binding precedent.
Now some courts, such as the California Court of Appeal, go further and make the opinions noncitable even as persuasive precedent. California Rule of Court 8.1115(a), for instance, provides that
an opinion of a California Court of Appeal or superior court appellate division that is not certified for publication or ordered published must not be cited or relied on by a court or a party in any other action.
There are exceptions; for instance, "[a]n unpublished opinion may be cited or relied on" when it's "relevant under the doctrines of law of the case, res judicata, or collateral estoppel." Those doctrines have to do with factual or legal conclusions set forth in that case with regard to the particular details of the case—for instance, that a criminal defendant was found guilty (res judicata), that a plaintiff lost the case (also res judicata), that the court found a particular fact against a party (collateral estoppel), and so on.
Thus, generally speaking, future lawsuits involving one or both parties to the case can rely on those specific factual or legal conclusions from the unpublished opinion. But the legal reasoning in those opinions can't be cited as precedent—either binding or persuasive—in cases involving third parties. (I oversimplify here.)
But this is limited to citation by courts and parties to actions—i.e., litigants in court. It doesn't purport to bind people outside court. There is no legal prohibition on writing about the cases, quoting them, reproducing them, or discussing their reasoning or their factual or legal conclusions outside litigation in California courts.
Indeed, sometimes courts in other jurisdictions, such as federal courts, rely on unpublished California cases as persuasive precedent, or more broadly as evidence of how California law operates. The California Rules of Court don't bind other courts, and certainly not people outside court.
Likewise, people who are quoting such unpublished cases continue to enjoy the fair report privilege in any libel lawsuits, invasion of privacy lawsuits, and other such lawsuits brought based on such quotation. Cal. Civ. Code § 47(d)(1), for instance, expressly makes privileged (with exceptions not relevant here) any "fair and true report in … a public journal, of … a judicial … proceeding, or … of anything said in the course thereof." A judge's statement in an unpublished opinion remains something "said in the course" of "a judicial … proceeding," and quoting it is thus as protected as is quoting a published opinion.
So we all remain free to quote what is said in such "unpublished" opinions, and indeed to publish them in the lay sense of the word. And we all remain free to cite them in our publications, even when they are supposedly "noncitable." The rules control only whether and when they can be cited in court as binding precedent (or, in California and some other jurisdictions, even as persuasive precedent).
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The courts in the UK and Ireland have this rule as well (the distinction between "published" and "unpublished" opinions). I think the rationale is that the court takes greater care in writing published opinions, but I sure hope that isn't it.
I think it's more to relieve practitioners, so they don't need to try to master a huge volume of opinions, when they're highly fact-specific and won't actually change things.
I think that it is to reduce criticism. Sometimes it appears that a decision is unpublished just because it is contrary to law and precedent, and hard to defend. Publishing might further expose the judge's prejudices.
What are some of the cases you're thinking of?
The "official" explanation that courts give is the one Martinned2 (was there a Martinned1?) says: that it relieves judges of agonizing over every word in the unpublished decision because it's not citable anyway. So they can write just for the parties and not have to worry that some very fact-specific assertion will be taken out of context for a much broader proposition.
It's only supposed to be for relatively trivial, fact-specific decisions that break no new grounds of law.
Imagine a case where one side is pro se and the other has a crack legal team. The judge might be concerned about arguments not made, or not made well.
Then the judge should fill in the blanks. Ius cognoscit curia, it’s the judge’s job to know the law, including all the arguments that can be made about the law.
SHOULD the judge fill in the blanks? Usually arguments not made are waived, right?
Arguments *of* law that are not made are waived, but then there is no harm in the (published) opinion not discussing them. The only one hurt is the party that might have made them.
Arguments *about* the law should be filled in by the judge as and when necessary.
To clarify, an example of the former is "the plaintiff is estopped from making this argument". An example of the latter is "the plaintiff's definition of estoppel, as applied to this case, is wrong, because the correct definition/application is X".
Ohio actually has a very good system. They started posting every single appeals and Supreme Court opinion on the Supreme Court website with specific “web-cite” that can be used as the citation way back in 2002. Then in 2012 it made the website the official reporter (although a printed reporter still exists). They’re all cite-able. Further it got rid of the distinction between “controlling”and “persuasive” opinions after 2002. The cited opinions “can weighted as deemed appropriate” by the courts. So lawyers can argue what is binding and what isn’t, which is what they might be doing anyway without external labels. There are of course pre-2002 unreported cases that a court can’t accept as binding authority, but they can still be used as persuasive (local rules often ask that these be attached but those aren’t really enforced so long as someone can find it, which they almost always can).
Given how workable this system is, it blows my mind that circuits and states are still making this dumb distinction in 2024. Especially California one. It might have made sense when a large chunk of people still used printed reporters and courts couldn’t publish every opinion nor could every lawyer easily find them. But we are at least 15 years past that being the case.
How do they figure that out?
It’s no different than if I say X case is binding authority and controls the outcome and you say it’s not because the case was fact specific and the broader language is dicta. Then the court determines which of us is right using legal reasoning. Courts and lawyers grapple with this sort of thing all the time.
This prevents panels from slapping arbitrary labels on one case and not another even though there isn’t a good reason for the distinction.
I guess from "'can weighted as deemed appropriate' by the courts", I thought you were saying they could decide not to follow authority from a higher court if they didn't think it was "appropriate". So it sounds like really everything is just a published case?
Yes. Gets rid of arguments about the mode of release and instead you just argue about what the case means. Those issues might come up if you cite a pre-2002 appeals court case. But those situations will get rarer as time goes on.
In principle I like the idea that any part of an opinion broader than necessary to decide a case is obiter. Arguably this is justified by the Constitution giving the courts the power to decide cases and controversies – because any decision broader than that necessary to decide a case goes outside the lines of case and controversy.
But it makes precedent trickier…
“The cited opinions “can weighted as deemed appropriate” by the courts. So lawyers can argue what is binding and what isn’t, which is what they might be doing anyway without external labels.”
That sounds horrifying. Lawyers aren’t the ones to decide what cases are binding, the judges who write them are. Practitioners and lower court judges need to know what the law IS, not what one judge might follow on a particular day depending on how he’s feeling.
Your example in the later comments isn't really talking about the same thing. Yes, you can always argue that a particular case isn't applicable for XYZ reasons. But if you have a clear case that says "The law is X" and another clear case that says "The law is Y," and one is from a controlling court or published opinion and one is not, then you are required to follow the controlling one. You're just introducing needless confusion by "eh, it might be controlling and it might not."
I don’t think it’s difficult at all. It’s simply doing law. It doesn’t eliminate the concept of binding authority, just distinctions based on mode of release because every opinion is released the same way. And if a large appellate district has panel decisions that can conflict you can have an en banc proceeding. This is also what the Supreme Court is for: to resolve conflicts.
Will AI know the difference?
Will A.I. care?
Fun story!
There aren't just unpublished decisions, there are also withdrawn decisions.
I had a case a while back where the opposing counsel was relying almost exclusively on a single case.
Except ... it had been withdrawn. Ouch.
(Bonus fun fact- the reason it had been withdrawn was because it contained an incorrect statement of the law. The one that opposing counsel was using.)
How wrong we talking?
The court (and, by the way, this was a federal district court) made a statement in the opinion that was, in fact, the opposite of the actual correct standard of law.
I don't want to be too specific, since it would become obvious to someone who saw it what I was talkin about, but it would be the equivalent of, um, a court saying that in ruling on a motion to dismiss, the court must accept all the allegations in the complaint as false.
(Bonus fun fact- in that case, the parties hired new counsel for the appeal. The appellant counsel apparently relied on the arguments made below, didn't see the response, AND USED THE CASE AGAIN. Which made for a really fun answer brief.)
That sounds close to Aileen Cannon territory...
California’s prohibition always struck me as bizarre. Anything can be persuasive authority. A newspaper article can be persuasive authority. A YouTube video can be persuasive authority. But an unpublished opinion that’s directly on point can’t? Weird.
I agree. It seems they are saying don't hold us responsible for what we said before, or don't expect us to take seriously what we said before.
A newspaper article may be persuasive but it isn't authority.
Texas has an odd system too. First, it depends on whether the case is criminal or civil. Then it depends on what level of court—and Texas has two courts of last resort with different rules. Finally, it depends on when the case was decided.
I’ll focus on modern cases—January 1, 2003 onwards—just to keep it simple. All civil cases are binding precedent, but not all are sent to the official reporter (the South Western Reporter). “Opinions” are sent to the reporter, while “Memorandum Opinions” aren’t. The latter are noted with (mem. op.) after the citation. The Texas Supreme Court, which only handles civil cases, always sends its opinions to the reporter (as far as I’m aware, at least).
Criminal cases in the intermediate courts of appeals that are published are designated as such, and are almost always “Opinions.” They are binding on that court (and the trial courts in that jurisdiction), and are sent to the reporter.
If they aren’t published, they say “Do Not Publish,” aren’t binding, and aren’t sent to the reporter. They are almost always “Memorandum Opinions.” They can be cited for their persuasive authority as (mem. op., not designated for publication) after the case cite.
Finally, the Court of Criminal Appeals is the supreme court for criminal cases. Its cases can also be published or not, and they will note which is which. Published cases are sent to the reporter. Unpublished cases are like the California cases discussed in the OP in that they cannot be cited for any legal proposition, but can be cited for the law of the case, case history, etc.
Unless I’m misunderstanding the procedure here, the Texas court of last resort in criminal cases issues opinions that can’t even be cited as persuasive authority? Don’t they have a discretionary docket? They’ll take a case, write a whole opinion, and then say no one can use it even as persuasive authority? That’s even weirder than California’s rule. Do Texas rules prevent Tx CCA from DIGing a case once they’ve taken it?
As odd as it sounds, yes, an unpublished CCA case cannot be cited even for its persuasive value. In their discretionary cases, it’s rare, but not unheard of, even in big cases. However, it’s usually used in its non-discretionary cases, which are almost always dealt-penalty cases that go straight to the court.
Also, yes, they can DIG a case, and sometimes they do. But occasionally they still want to decide the case without publishing.
I don’t approve of this system, but the court has shown no interest in changing the relevant rule despite its ridiculousness being brought to its attention by lower courts.
Most of the CCA unpublished opinions are for writs, which isn't a discretionary docket and you have an awful lot of "They've filed this same claim five times and are procedurally barred" or "They didn't raise a legal claim." No reason for those to be published.
I think unpublished opinions are as wrong in principle as closed trials. Just as judicial proceedings at the trial level need to be open to the public, appellate judges need tp stand by their work and write every opinion assuming it will be cited and quoted. Appellate courts are welcome to distinguish important or first impression cases from routine ones. But routine cases should be citable as precedent too.
I didn't realize how widespread the practice of Calvinball was among judges. Seems wrong to decide a case and then say "don't ever use this as precedent". I've always thought Bush v Gore was an outlier, but apparently not.
Often the “unpublished” decisions are the only ones on point. In New Jersey at least, the practice is an anachronism from the days when only some decisions made it into the hardcover reporters. Nowadays it amounts to courts avoiding responsibility for their actions.
And often the more obscure areas of the law are relegated to unpublished decision. I was just recently researching an issue of trusts and estate law. The most recent Appellate Division on point was from the 1960s! There were a fair number of unpublished ones from the last 20 years, but none citable.
It gets very frustrating when you find a case directly on point with what you're raising and have a court dismiss it because it's not published. I think the rule started when it was print publishing only and there was no need to clog up the reports with so much dross. Now that it's all available online and everyone cites them readily anyway, it doesn't seem necessary anymore.
It's not necessary, agreed. But is retroactively making cases binding, when the authors believed it would not be binding... is probably a pretty bad idea.
Is this a case of trust us, we know what we're doing, just don't quote us on it?
I think EV needs to print the comment or letter that provoked him to write this fascinatingly obvious post today. Did some Internet troll actually accuse of EV of something for the heinous crime of quoting from an unpublished trial court order?
Not even. It derives from the comment thread in "California Judge Orders Removal of Reddit Criticism of Scientist/Consultant Who Publicly Criticized English Lucy Letby Murder Trial," in which a commenter mentioned a factual finding by a California court, and the individual against whom that factual finding was made showed up to rant that the decision was unpublished and therefore the commenter was wrong to mention it. Prof. V is just explaining what it means when an opinion is unpublished. (Not what the ranter thinks it means.)
There is a practice in some courts of circulating to-be-published panel opinions to the full court to get more eyeballs on them.
In CA, about 95% of criminal opinions are unpublished. I’ve run across unpub’d cases that would help my clients doing serious time but can’t cite them. I can cite federal and other states’ unpub’d opinions, so it seems absurd that I can’t even cite my own state’s cases as persuasive authority to show that another panel of their judicial colleagues, or even that panel in another case, agreed with me on the issue I’m raising. I’m considering raising a due process challenge next time but need to do the research to see if it’s viable.
I posted this in a similar thread but add that some CA unpublished cases are very detailed and well-reasoned and some are utter garbage.
The power to declare a case result non-citable should not exist.
You can bet that the side which is now "weaponizing" the courts to use them against their political opponents will use this power to keep doing that, if nobody prevents them.