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Why a "Patchwork" is Better than Being Uniformly Wrong: A Qualified Defense of Section 3 Federalism
The Supreme Court's ruling in Trump v. Anderson is in part rooted in fears of divergent state decisions on election issues. But a patchwork of divergent state rulings isn't necessarily bad.

A major consideration underlying the Supreme Court's recent ruling in Trump v. Anderson was fear of a "patchwork" of conflicting state determinations on the application of Section 3 of the Fourteenth Amendment to Trump (and, potentially, other candidates for federal office). This concern united all nine justices, even as they disagreed on a number of other key points. The majority per curiam opinion worries that "state-by-state resolution of the question whether Section 3 bars a particular candidate for President from serving would be quite unlikely to yield a uniform answer." Similarly, the concurring opinion written by the three liberal justices invokes the specter of "a chaotic state-by-state patchwork, at odds with our Nation's federalism principles."
In previous writings, I have argued this issue is overblown because federal courts can review state decisions on federal legal issues. And, to the extent the concern is valid, it is a natural consequence of the Constitution's assignment of power over election administration to state governments, as opposed to a federal agency with authority to impose uniform nationwide rules. See also Michael Rappaport's and Chris Green's originalist critques of the Court's reasoning. They argue that state diversity on election policy is a part of the Framers' original design. As Green puts it, "lack of uniformity in the Electoral College is a feature, not a bug."
In this post, I argue that some divergence between states on Section 3 issues isn't necessarily bad. An election law "patchwork" has its flaws. But it may often be better than uniform wrongness. I do not claim that decentralization of election law is clearly superior to uniformity, merely that the issue is a much closer call than often assumed. If so, there is even less justification than there would be otherwise for the Supreme Court to base its decision in part on anti-"patchwork" policy considerations.
Imagine, for the sake of argument, that Trump or some other presidential candidate really is an insurrectionist who deserves to be disqualified under Section 3. Would it not be better if he is disqualified from running in at least some states, than if he is allowed on the ballot everywhere because the federal government takes no action or makes a mistaken decision that binds the entire country? In the former scenario, disqualification in some states might prevent the insurrectionist from winning the election, thereby saving the nation from having a constitutionally ineligible president who poses a grave menace to liberal democracy. Disqualification in some states might also incentivize the insurrectionist candidate's party to choose someone else instead, even if only to increase the chances of winning the general election.
In this scenario, a federalist patchwork seems clearly superior to a uniform-but-wrong decision imposed by the federal government. As David French puts it in a New York Times column on the Supreme Court's ruling, "[c]haotic enforcement of the Constitution may be suboptimal. But it's far better than not enforcing the Constitution at all."
The same logic applies to disqualifications for other federal offices. It's far better that insurrectionist candidates for the House and Senate be disqualified in only some states than that they be permitted to run and take office everywhere.
And the same goes for enforcement of other constitutional qualifications for the presidency and other federal offices, such as the Twenty-Second Amendment, the requirement that the president be at least 35 years old, and so on. Better to enforce them effectively in only some states than not at all.
The above assumes that enforcement of constitutional constraints on office-holding is generally good. I admit I think this is not true in the case of the Natural Born Citizen Clause, which I have argued is indefensible and unjust. But the other restrictions generally make good sense, including Section 3. Liberal democracies have good reason to bar some types of people from holding high office, especially those whose track record indicates they are incipient authoritarians. And even the Natural Born Citizen Clause is still binding law, unless and until revoked by a constitutional amendment.
The federal government might over-enforce constitutional constraints, as well as under-enforce them. Imagine a candidate who is unjustly accused of being an insurrectionist. Here, it's better if some states allow him or her on the ballot than if the federal government bars the candidate nationwide. The same goes for false accusations of violating other constitutional constraints on office-holding.
The above arguments might not move you if you think uniform federal resolution of these issues is highly likely to reach correct results. But if you believe federal officials are likely to err or simply under-enforce through inaction, then the case for a federalist patchwork approach becomes much stronger.
Under-enforcement through inaction is especially likely in the case of Section 3 disqualification. Particularly in our highly polarized age, it is highly unlikely that Congress will enact meaningful enforcement legislation of the kind the Supreme Court majority held is necessary. Thus, if such legislation is required, there will be no meaningful enforcement of Section 3 against candidates for federal office for a long time to come.
There is a tradeoff here: the risk of flawed decisions by some states must be balanced against the risk of uniformly wrong federal ones - and situations where the federal government simply lets constitutional provisions atrophy through inaction. From a pragmatic or consequentialist point of view, which is better depends on how likely the federal government's uniform determinations are to be wrong - and how likely the feds are to simply fall down on the job through inaction.
On balance, I think letting states take the lead, subject to the important constraint of judicial review by federal courts, is better than relying on the federal government exclusively. The latter can, of course, still enact enforcement legislation under Section 5 of the Fourteenth Amendment (for Section 3). But such legislation should not be a mandatory prerequisite to enforcement by states. Admittedly this is a tentative judgment, and people with greater confidence in the federal government's judgment may have good reason to doubt it.
On a variety of issues, I support decentralization because it empowers people to vote with their feet, thereby leading to better decision-making than is usually feasible under ballot-box voting. But it's unlikely many people will vote with their feet for states with better procedures for addressing candidate-disqualification issues.
Thus, the case for decentralization here is weaker than for decisions on many other issues. But, depending on how often the federal government is likely to err, it might still be strong enough to outweigh the case for total federally-mandated uniformity. A uniformly wrong decision is even worse than a patchwork.
Once we take account of the dangers of uniformly wrong federal decisions, it is far from obvious that a "patchwork" approach to issues like Section 3 disqualification is necessarily a bad thing. In my view, the tradeoff between the costs and benefits of uniformity is a policy issue that was determined by the framers and ratifiers of the Constitution, not a matter for the Supreme Court to decide.
But if the justices insist on basing their ruling on this policy question, they should at least have considered both sides of it. Instead, they overrated the risks of divergent state judgments, while completely ignoring those of misguided uniformity.
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And, to the extent the concern is valid, it is a natural consequence of the Constitution’s assignment of power over election administration to state governments
It’s the assertion of natural consequence that is the error. Flat out, they all agreed this was the chaos that would allow any individual state (with the subtext of motivated state) to control the national election. That’s not a natural consequence, but rather an absurd result.
I took the discussion of potential chaos as a way of understanding the framers’ meaning, not as a freestanding reason to reject state disqualification. That is, they would not have wanted the resulting chaos, so the words would not mean states had the power unless it was specifically granted.
Similar to the discussion of Griffins’s Case. Not because it’s precedent but because it’s an inside look from someone who was close in time to the amendment process.
"but rather an absurd result"
In the context of a system that includes as many senators from California as it recognizes from Wyoming, Rhode Island, each Dakota, West Virginia, Alaska, Vermont, etc.?
As that was the design from long before California joined, no, that was not an absurd result.
But let's continue your ahistorical, motivated, modern talking point outside your echo chamber, where trained, protected seals clap and go oof oof oot.
These are the United States, where all states sit at a round table as equals. The senate is the descendant of that, as is approval of treaties, sending out provisional constitutional amendments, and other things.
It's only a problem if you try to claim US citizens are only to think of themselves as citizens of the federal government, and that that federal government is supposed to be the source and font of all legislation.
That is, of course, of interest to the power mongers at the federal level, which is why they conjure such statements into existence.
.
The House of Representatives contravenes that assertion.
Is it any surprise that some Government Worshipper doesn't have a basic understanding of why our Great White Founding Fathers created a bicameral legislature.
No, it doesn't. The House represents the people of a state, whereas the states themselves are represented in the senate. Recall that prior to the 17th Amendment, state legislatures chose its senators. That they are now popularly elected doesn't change the purpose of the senate.
How is not having an insurrectionist on the ballot in a state going to control the national election any more than the state not giving its electoral votes to that candidate? It would throw off the popular vote totals, but we all know those have no actual meaning in our system, and what the vote would have been would just be another thing to lie about.
Maine -- Trump likely win win the 2nd district's vote.
That doesn't address the question I'm asking, which is about states that the insurrectionist would not win anyway, and it's not clear what would have happened in Maine if the process continued (except that the Secretary of State would not have been impeached). While there are unlikely scenarios in which Maine or Nebraska districts decide the outcome, that's just the way a close election works; Florida "decided" the 2000 election for the nation, but so did every state that went for Bush.
I will note that Trump cultists were just fine with the Independent State Legislature theory, in which unrepresentative state legislatures (generally, ones gerrymandered by Republicans after the 2010 elections and census, like Wisconsin, Michigan and Pennsylvania in 2020) could defy the actual voters of that state. But apparently actual legal proceedings in front of judges (who were 4-4 in Colorado: 4-3 in their Supreme Court, 0-1 in the lower court) are a bridge too far.
It seems to be the typical IOKIYAR situation; non-uniform voting practices in Florida in 2000 were fine, but recounting could not be done if it weren't uniform.
(I will repeat my earlier statements; Trump is unquestionably an insurrectionist, but should still be on the ballot, so we can find out if this is when the Constitution is revealed to be a suicide note.
However, the Supreme Court should have limited its ruling to the question of President and Vice-President; it doesn't harm any other state if a state disqualifies a candidate for Congress who only represents that state, and they shouldn't have answered questions that weren't being asked.)
I can see your point about Trump on the ballot being necessary to reveal whether the country can be saved or not, but I'm equally curious to see what would actually happen if the Republican Supreme Court ruled that he was constitutionally disqualified.
Would MAGAs suddenly decide they didn't care about the Constitution after all? Would the citizen militia rise up and seize power? Would the resident Reason keyboard warriors reveal themselves as the cowards they certainly appear to be?
Shouldn't you be putting Ukraine, BLM, and Gay flags on your social media count profiles so you can make your powerful contribution to changing the world instead of embarrassing yourself here?
If you are not a superstitious gay-basher, a right-wing racist, and a Putin-hugging, un-American, Trump-level write-off you are not expressing yourself well, clinger.
If you are those things, however, this is the blog for you!
Actually the Independent State Legislature “ theory” is the correct answer to this question.
The appointment of Presidential electors is a federal power granted by the federal constitution exclusively to the state legislature of each state.
Thus the only federal question is whether the electors representing a state have been duly appointed according to the state legislature’s chosen manner.
If the state Supreme Court decides to make up its own crap and oust the state legislature’s scheme, the federal courts have the power to intervene.
That’s all they should have considered in this case. Was the Colorado Supreme Court decision consistent with the Colorado legislature’s manner of appointing electors or not ?
SCOTUS reserved the power to correct egregious usurpations by state Supreme Courts in the case in which it (wrongly) rejected the ISL theory.
I doubt that this Trump decision was in accordance with Colorado law - they had to stretch a long way to get from Section 3 to a clear obligation for state officials to keep Trump off the ballot- so in this case it was on the margin of egregious.
But since the constitution says Legislature not (Legislature plus Governor plus State Courts) they need not have restricted themselves to egregious cases.
Trump is an insurrectionist; not an egregious judgment, not a reach, but simply the truth, and not contradicted by the Supreme Court in Trump v. Anderson. The Colorado legislature passed a law that Colorado could not put ineligible candidates on the ballot, so the ruling was perfectly consistent with Colorado law.
The independent state legislature theory was the "Republican blueprint to steal the 2024 election", and even the partisan Supreme Court rejected it.
The Colorado Supreme Court had a couple of hurdles to get over, long before it ever got to the (many) questions involved in trying to apply Section 3 to Trump
1. inferring a duty on the Colorado Secretary of State to review the factual and legal accuracy of claims made in a candidate's notarised statement of intent - a duty unstated in the Colorado law
2. and a power to remove a candidate from the ballot on the basis of her judgement of the accuracy of his statement - also unstated
3. interpreting "qualified candidate" in the Colorado statute as incorporating Section 3, when the long standing Colorado SoS form refers only to the Article II qualifications
then they had to move on to Section 3 finding :
4. the existence of an insurrection against the constitution of the US
5. in which Trump "engaged"
6. having previously taken an oath to "support" the constitution
7. as an "officer of the United States"
8. and that the Presidency is an office under the United States
9. and that Section 3 imposes a "qualification" on candidacy rather than on holding office
10. notwithstanding the power of Congress to remove the disability of a President-elect prior to his taking office
And all of these hurdles have to be cleared with sufficient ease and panache that the plaintiff has met his burden of proof that the Colorado Secretary of State is not merely making an error of judgement or exercising her discretion contrary to the plaintiff's preference, but "is about to commit a breach or neglect of duty or other wrongful act" - an expression which connotes a clear, obvious and deliberate or negligent failing.
That's a stretch. A real stretch.
That's not to say that you couldn't draft the Colorado law differently, to say for example that the Colorado SoS could refuse to put a candidate on the ballot unless she was "entirely satisfied" that the candidate met all of the federal qualification conditions to hold the office in question. That would establish the Colorado SoS's discretion, and put all of the long list of maybes on her side. Then the decision wouldn't be a stretch.
But as it is - it's a big streeeeeetch. So much of a stretch that even ignoring the state law hurdles, seven Democrat appointed judges out of eleven have concluded that the Colorado Supreme Court was wrong.
But Trump is an insurrectionist; the Supreme Court, even the very partisan conservative majority, did not reverse that judgment. The Supreme Court ruling was a purely pragmatic one and seemingly much more of a stretch; I am not unhappy with the effect on Trump, but I think they should have limited it to presidential (and vice presidential) candidates, letting states enforce the disqualification on candidates who run only in their state.
I'm going to defer to the Colorado Supreme Court on Colorado law; the opinions read a lot better than the SCOTUS one or comments here. Lots of cases require rulings on a number of elements of the law; I don't think the number alone should say that a ruling is a stretch.
I think they should have limited it to presidential (and vice presidential) candidates, letting states enforce the disqualification on candidates who run only in their state.
As a matter of policy, and law for that matter, I am inclined to disagree.
As to policy, bearing in mind that the reason for applying Section 3 to state offices was to try to prevent Confederate insurrectionists retaining power in the former Confederate states, it hardly makes sense to leave the enforcement as to state offices to the states themselves. That's leaving the fox in charge of the henhouse.
Moreover it's a federal restriction on who can hold state office. There's no need to defer to the states on federal questions.
As to the law, stipulating that SCOTUS (all 9 of them btw) were correct that Section 3 is not self enforcing, then there's nothing in the text that suggests a different approach for state and federal offices. There's no textual reason why Congress should not be the body making the Section 3 implementing rules for both - it's given the express power in Section 5.
It's not leaving it to states to enforce; it's allowing them to enforce requirements in the Constitution, when they are given the authority to run elections. Congress can enforce that (and other election requirements) as well.
I’m going to defer to the Colorado Supreme Court on Colorado law
And this is where, IMHO, you (and SCOTUS) are wrong. It’s not simply a question of Colorado law. The federal constitution gives the power to direct the manner of appointment of presidential electors to the state legislature. This is a federal power granted by the constitution to a particular state institution – the legislature.
The legislature (ie the actual legilsature, not the “whole constitutional, lawmaking and judicial process of the state” or suchlike nonsense) might – but IMHO does not have to – enact its chosen manner as a state law (for which it would need the co-operation of the Governor.) If it does so, as it did here, then the Colorado state courts are fully entitled to chip in with their opinion.
But since the legislature is exercising a federal power, which is entrusted to the state legislature, then the federal courts are also entitled to chip in with their view as to whether the state courts are correct in their judgement of what the state legislature’s manner entails.
So unlike questions of purely state law, there should be no presumption of federal court deference to the state courts.
What there should be is deference by both state and federal courts to the scheme of the legislature.
See, that’s the thing. Several Amendments limited the states’ powers in this regards. Several of those limitations are found in 14A § 1, which effectively made the Bill of Rights applicable to them. Key here were the limitations on Due Process and Ex Post Facto laws. It was a Mickey Mouse, kangaroo court hearing, that utilized the “findings” of Nancy Pelosi’s hyper partisan J6 committee as the basis for their decision. The Republican House leadership was allowed to appoint zero members to the committee. They thus had no ability to call witnesses, cross examine and of the Dems’ witnesses, view the 14k or so hours of video from the thousand or so cameras at the Capital that day, etc. Moreover, the actual witness transcripts were encrypted, then deleted, by the Democrats when they turned over control of the House to the Republicans. It was allowed into evidence, despite it being an obvious violation of the Hearsay Rules by the CO SC expanding an exception to that Rule well beyond recognition, despite that evidence being devoid of any of the indicia of reliability previously required for such exceptions.
Moreover, the 5 day hearing, with extremely limited ability for Trump to introduce evidence, and none to confront the witnesses against him, was justified by the use of a CO election law, designed for post election disputes, prioritizing finality over accuracy (the opposite of this pre-election challenge), and justified by minimizing, to irrelevancy, the interests involved. It was a clever case of LawFare by the entirely Dem appointed CO SC, and as such was, as is almost always the case in such, violative of the Bill of Rights.
Are these lies really necessary, Bruce? The Republican House leadership was initially allowed to appoint five members to the committee "in consultation with the Speaker". Two of those members were rejected for likely conflict of interest reasons (the committee was likely going to be investigating the actions taken by those two members), but rather than appoint two other members, McCarthy withdrew all five names he had initially proposed. Faced with McCarthy's blanket refusal to propose any other Republicans, Pelosi ultimately invited two Republicans onto the committee.
Which means, "was allowed to appoint zero members to the committee" is false, and as you know it is false, also a lie.
But Trump is an insurrectionist
I couldn't help but read this in the tone of a 5 year old crying, "but mommy, I WANT a cookie!!" /cry
Just reporting the facts, something that Trump cultists have sheltered themselves from.
You're aware Colorado could have tried to criminally charge him with that first.
Yet...they did not.
Hard to punish somebody for a crime they have never even been accused of.
No, Colorado could not have done so.
And Colorado wasn't punishing him for a crime; excluding an unqualified person from the ballot isn't punishment.
"Trump is an insurrectionist"
Explains the charges against him for it --- oh wait, there were none.
Explains his conviction of it --- oh wait, did not happen either.
Stop confusing your belief with reality.
Thus the only federal question is whether the electors representing a state have been duly appointed according to the state legislature’s chosen manner.
Lee Moore, that cannot be right. State legislators swear an oath to defend the federal Constitution. They are thus not at liberty to choose any method of appointment disapproved by the jointly sovereign People of the United States. Section 3 thus prohibits choosing insurrectionists, and states are not at liberty to make choosing an insurrectionist a matter of state discretion.
Except for now, of course, if a consequentialist Court has singled out (however tacitly) a particular insurrectionist for a special privilege which is beyond the Supreme Court's constitutional power to bestow. As a practical matter, that makes it different.
Well I do agree with a bit of this. Not your usual “jointly sovereign People of the United States” drivel – but it’s true that the same federal constitution that grants power to the state legislature to direct the manner of appointing electors also contains restrictions on that power.
Thus as you say Section 3 prohibits a state appointing an oathbreaking insurrectionist as an elector, though the recent SCOTUS decision indicates that the determination of that prohibition in any particular case requires Congressional implementing legislation, in order to be operative.
Section 1 of the 14th Amendment was held in Bush v Gore to require the state to use a manner consistent with “equal protection” (if it chose to have an election for electors, which of course it is not obliged to do.)
But the other federal constitutional limitations that are relevant to the President – natural born citizen, 35 years old, 14 years resident, not disqualified following impeachment, not disqualified under Section 3 of 14A (if it applies to the Presidency) – are limitations on holding the office, not on being elected. With the sole exception of the two term limit which is a limitation on being elected. But this “elected” is the election by the Electoral College, not any prior election for presidential electors.
Thus none of these constitutional limitations, except equal protection, restrict the manner of appointing electors that may be directed by the state legislature. Instead they affect either whether a person may be elected (22A) or may occupy the office if elected (the rest.)
So you are correct that Section 3 limits the state’s choice – but only as to presidential electors, not as to who the electors may be pledged to support.
But whether the state is entitled to prohibit non oathbreaking insurrectionist electors from pledging their votes, and voting for, oathbreaking insurrectionist presidential candidates, is one of those mysteries hovering somewhere between the Term Limits case, the meaning of those “officers” in different parts of the constitution, and equal protection, which I trust we do not need to bother with today.
Except the Constitution does NOT assign administration of the 14th Amendment to state governments
As the lefties pointed out, it "defies logic" to pretend that they did.
It also defies the text:
The Congress shall have power to enforce, by appropriate legislation, the provisions of this article.
And it defies original public understanding, which is obviously Griffin's Case.
You know, case ruled within a year of the Amendment passing. Congress looked at the ruling, and run by Radical Republicans w/ an over 2/3 majority, they agreed with the case and passed a law under their Section 5 powers to enforce the Amendment?
The reality of the situation is you have to be a TDS addled lunatic to think there's even the slightest shred of legitimacy in the Co position. Because there's NOTHING in the text, history, or logic of the 14th Amendment that would justify a believe that it created a brand new power for State governments to take away people's right to vote for the candidate of their choice in Federal elections.
Correct; it assigns administration of presidential elections themselves to state governments. The 14th amendment isn't a separate power; it's merely a qualification on how presidential elections (and other elections, too, of course) work.
No 14AS3 is not about elections it’s about holding office.
And no the Constitution assigns the power to determine the electors to the state legislature, not as SCOTUS wrongly decided recently, to the state Supreme Court.
Except that 14A § 1 applies the Bill of Rights to the states. Of course - we knew that, from Bush v Gore, which was ultimately decided based on 14A § 1 Equal Protection grounds by the US SC. Whatever the states do in this regard is limited by the rest of the US Constitution.
It is not unusual for a candidate not to be able to get onto the ballot in certain states.
Sigh. Ballot petition signatures are not the same thing as the subjective question about whether someone has committed insurrection.
The possible multiple answers to that question go to why it’s different that ballot access procedures. It’s entirely legitimate that different states have different rules, because states run elections according to the Constitution (subject to specific regulations passed by Congress under its Article I Sec4.1 authority). What’s illegitimate (which the Court addressed by citing US Term Limits v Thornton) is having a different answer in different states for the SAME (dis)qualification question. Just like one state is not allowed to decide that Obama’s Hawaii birth certificate is inadequate to establish his age/natural born status (full faith and credit). That’s not something a Texas election official could decide on his own. The supremacy clause works similarly in conjunction with Section 5.
Here’s the thing about real insurrections. There’s never any doubt that they occurred. The event speaks for itself. Jan 6…not so much.
So is your claim that if, say, a random person shows up at Texas election HQ in Austin and says, "Here are my signature petitions; put me on the ballot," that the official can't say, "Wait a minute, we're not putting you on the ballot because we don't think you're eligible, because this 'birth certificate' looks like it was photoshopped"?
I am curious as to the answer to that question. Do/may state election officials independently verify eligibility under the Constitution for federal offices? Or do they just perform the purely ministerial function of making sure the election paperwork (petitions etc) is in order and timely?
The way I read the SCT decision, they can only do the latter, but I don't know what actual practice has been.
That is not my claim at all. It's as made up as your inference, of that very example, that every candidate running for office needs to prove he's not a disqualified insurrectionist. There's no need to photoshop a "Not an Insurrectionist" certificate since it's not a thing.
Barack Obama made his chops in politics by challenging his opponents election filings, to keep them off the ballot. That such procedures exist, and may vary from state to state, is nothing like the factual/threshold question about whether one "shall have engaged in insurrection or rebellion". The answer to that should not vary state to state like the dead or alive state of Schroedinger's cat. As much as some of you want to pretend that Trump's insurrection status is as objective as Obama's birth certificate, I'm not going to take you seriously.
Can you point to any textual basis in the Constitution for distinguishing between qualifications that you think are easy to assess and qualifications that require a bit more work?
What are you on about? A bit more work? The difference with being an insurrectionist and being 35 years old are qualitatively different.
I can look at a birth certificate to verify age. Assuming the certificate is genuine (a silly point you've already broached), there is no dispute.
A determination of insurrection is a finding of fact, which in a criminal trial would be decided by a jury after hearing evidence. In a civil proceeding, decided by a judge. You really are going to argue that a different jury and a different judge will come to the same determination no matter how many times you repeat the exercise? That's not what I call an objective fact. Maybe we should just let an AI decide these things.
The same birth certificate will give you the same answer EVERY time. Stop being obtuse.
To maybe clarify, birth date and citizenship can be given judicial notice based on a certified birth certificate - Something that is assumed to be accurate millions of times a year. Whether or not someone engaged in Insurrection is a highly fact specific question, that is not susceptible to judicial notice as a result - unless there had been a final criminal conviction of such (under federal statutes). There wasn’t in this case.
Right, and why should we expand on that abuse?
Somin and so many others: well, because in this case...
well, but Trump...
FTFY
Almost all of the rules for ballot access at the state level are objective standards. The most common is a minimum number of valid signatures. You either have enough or you don't. The same is true for age and residency. You are either old enough or not and you are either a resident of the district or not. It is simply A or B. When the standards are subjective that is what creates problems.
When the standards are subjective
First, that is itself a subjective take. Second, that's not the Court's reasoning, though.
How is it a subjective take? Most rules of ballot access are yes/no determinations. If the law says that a candidate needs 1000 valid signatures to get on the ballot but has only 990 it is a no. The state official doesn't get to decide 990 is close enough or that 1030 isn't really enough. They can only count the number to see if it meets the standard. They don't get to decide that the standard is suddenly wrong.
You smuggled valid in there pretty slyly, eh? How objective is that standard?
Similarly one can say that it is an objective, factual determination whether someone did an insurrection.
Subjectivity is not a good line to draw.
Here in Oregon VALID signatures can get you on the ballot and state law defines VALID signatures as those of registered voters who reside in the district that holds the office. So yes a very objective measure. These objective measures are determined by the officials with the legal authority to determine these objective measures.
And what the SCOTUS decided was that the state courts of Colorado did not have the legal authority to declare anyone an insurrectionist under the 14th Amendment. What the SCOTUS decided was that under section 5 of the 14th Amendment the authority on how to enforce section 3 was given to Congress and that the only such legislation passed was the Insurrection Act. So the objective standard involves prosecution and conviction under the Insurrection Act. So was Trump ever even charged under that act? Objective answer is no meaning no conviction meaning Trump can not be removed from the ballot for being an insurrectionist because objectively he is not an insurrectionist.
Why is it smuggling to explicitly say valid? That was implicit from the moment this example was raised. It’s standard practice for candidates to get as many signatures as possible, lest some of them be challenged as invalid. Fake people, not registered voters if that’s required, etc. As CountmontyC said, those things are yes/no determinations.
As I observed above, Barack Obama made his chops getting his opponents thrown off the ballot utilizing challenges like that.
One cannot say say that it is an objective, factual determination whether someone did an insurrection. In fact, that’s a very stupid thing to say, because it’s not true. As evidence? Different states have reached different decisions. QED
In fact, that’s a very stupid thing to say, because it’s not true
Sounds like you and CountmontyC should get together to decide whether not doing an insurrection is an objective or subjective standard; you two seem to disagree.
As CountmontyC said, those things are yes/no determinations.
So is 'is the guy an insurrectionist.'
As the SCOTUS ruled section 5 gave the power to create enforcement legislation concerning section 3. Congress passed the Insurrection Act. That means that until Trump is convicted in a federal court that the determination of whether he is an insurrectionist is a no. State courts can not decide he is or isn't. It is not in their purview. That is what the objective measure is in this case.
What he (CountmontyC) said.
Whether someone is an insurrectionist is a yes/no question at the end of a process defined by law as commanded by section 5. Because it is not objective fact without first such adjudication process like age or residency/citizenship. As I and others have been saying repeatedly here. You need a Section 5 implementation to decide whether that adjudication is criminal, civil, and if civil what the standard of proof is and where such a challenge can be raised (for federal officials).
The Constitution from its beginning provided for deciding age/citizenship residency qualifications: Article IV, Section 1.1. Full Faith and Credit shall be given in each State to the public Acts, Records, and judicial Proceedings of every other State. And the Congress may by general Laws prescribe the Manner in which such Acts, Records and Proceedings shall be proved, and the Effect thereof. Given the Court’s ruling, I’m not sure whether Congress would need to explicitly provide that a state criminal conviction for insurrection would need to be authorized here. I’ve previously thought that could be as self-executing as a birth certificate (under full faith and credit), but maybe not.
It’s derangement syndrome to insist that Trump is “obviously” guilty of insurrection for the purposes of Section 3.
MaddogEngineer, the notion that Colorado disqualified Trump is where you make your mistake. As you and others have insisted, Colorado has no power to disqualify Trump for insurrection. But not for any reason your advocacy has supposed.
The actual reason is that Trump arrived in Colorado already disqualified by his own conduct, as the text and structure of Section 3 make clear. The need for two-thirds majorities in both houses of Congress to, "remove," the disability would be nonsense if the disability did not pre-exist, put in place already by the candidate's own conduct.
You may suppose that an outrageous reading, because to you it seems subjective, or not adequately supported by highly reliable and carefully adjudicated evidence. That would be a misjudgment based on your error to ignore that it is not your point of view and weighting of relative values that the jointly sovereign People intended to empower, but their own. It was their joint preference not to encumber in any such exacting way candidate choices they intended to make at pleasure and without constraint.
In fact, the People who amended the Constitution with Section 3 did not care a fig for considerations of due process, exacting adjudication, or personal prerogative for any particular candidate, if it be necessary to slight such considerations to keep insurrectionists out of office. They said that explicitly, with the language and structure they chose for Section 3.
In action, the People proved willing to disqualify without personal consideration at least tens of thousands of potential candidates, and they did so. They did that in confidence that even after categorical disqualifications subtracted from candidacy those tainted by inference of potential disloyalty, a generous supply of untainted candidates would remain available to choose among. That exact adjustment to the means of choosing candidates was the People's intention expressed by the structure and language of Section 3, and proved by the People's implementation of Section 3.
Thus, it turns out that power for particular candidates to achieve office was not only not a high priority, it was not even on the list of the People's priorities. They prioritized instead to convenience and maximize their own power to bestow at pleasure and without constraint the gift of office upon a candidate who was not even slightly tainted by recognizable possibility of disloyalty.
The present Supreme Court's contrived notion that a law passed by a simple majority—which is readily applicable otherwise in a different context, is controlling in a Section 3 context—is evident nonsense. The conclusion is inescapable: this Court got the Constitution wrong on purpose, to obtain a consequentialist result a partisan-minded majority demanded. They favored a candidate already Constitutionally disqualified, and distorted the meaning of the Constitution to restore that candidate's chance to win the presidency.
Trump v. Anderson will go down as another Bush v. Gore, except as a more grievous Constitutional violation than Bush v Gore. That decision involved flouting a presumption not explicit in the Constitution—that state election outcomes cases would be decided by state courts. That was not Court misconduct as flagrant as this Court's present lunge to defy unambiguous Constitutional text, intention, and practice in Trump v. Anderson.
What piss poor logic you use.
Your
“The actual reason is that Trump arrived in Colorado already disqualified by his own conduct, as the text and structure of Section 3 make clear. The need for two-thirds majorities in both houses of Congress to, “remove,” the disability would be nonsense if the disability did not pre-exist, put in place already by the candidate’s own conduct.”
Fails because the disability occurs upon a conviction according to the SCOTUS. Simply because the disability can be removed by Congress doesn’t mean the disability occurs automatically. It merely means that after the disability is decided upon by whatever method Congress decided it can be removed later.
As to your statement
"In fact, the People who amended the Constitution with Section 3 did not care a fig for considerations of due process"
Aren't these the same people who put due process in the 14th Amendment in Section 1?
Would seem odd that they suddenly dismiss due process in the same Amendment
CountmontyC, reread Section 1. It applies to state action. Trump’s disqualification is federal Constitutional, not state imposed—the point I actually began with. You would have done better to insist that the Constitution implicates federal due process, but for a reason I will mention below, that also misses the mark.
More generally, the entire notion of due process is about sovereign constraint of government, not about sovereign constraint of the sovereign itself, which is a contradiction in terms, in addition to being anti-originalist nonsense.
There is simply no due process to be had against a sovereign decree. All 3 branches of government are led by officials sworn by oath to make sure that does not happen.
I hate to do this so often that others get sick of it, but here again is the originalist basis you have to understand to grasp that calls for due process against the sovereign must be unavailing. This is from founder James Wilson:
There necessarily exists, in every government, a power from which there is no appeal, and which, for that reason, may be termed supreme, absolute, and uncontrollable . . . Perhaps some politician, who has not considered with sufficient accuracy our political systems, would answer that, in our governments, the supreme power was vested in the constitutions . . . This opinion approaches a step nearer to the truth, but does not reach it. The truth is, that in our governments, the supreme, absolute, and uncontrollable power remains in the people. As our constitutions are superior to our legislatures, so the people are superior to our constitutions. Indeed the superiority, in this last instance, is much greater; for the people possess over our constitution, control in act, as well as right.
As for your other stuff, it is blather, no more creditable than the incompetent, consequentialist distortions from the present SCOTUS. To make your point, you have to dispense with the plain language of Section 3, and you have not even addressed that, let alone accounted for it. Of course nobody else has either. It is unanswerable.
You also have to account for an otherwise mysterious two-thirds vote requirement imposed on Congress, for which there is no precedent at all, except in cases of prior Constitutionally imposed pre-conditions. There is not another example of any kind of law making Congress is capable of, in which it is empowered to act by majority vote, but in doing so to create willy-nilly a two-thirds voting requirement on itself for later related action to undo its own prior action. Merely to describe that is to suggest how ridiculous it is.
Instead, Constitutional super-majority requirements are field marks of Constitutional law-making mandates which address direct Constitutional predicates, like impeachments, treaty ratifications, overturning vetoes, or Constitutional amendments. See the difference? Section 3 is a Constitutional predicate. That means due process does not constrain its operation. Congress voting to define a criminal procedure is not a Constitutional predicate. That means due process does constrain it.
From what I explained above, you ought by now to understand that to reach the decision they announced in Trump v. Anderson, the justices had to break their oaths of office.
The People who require due process be followed in Section 1 are not likely to turn around two sections later and say "fuck due process in this section." And in Section 5 the same people who wrote Section 3 detail who has the authority to define the due process to impose the disability. It reads
Section 5 Enforcement
The Congress shall have power to enforce, by appropriate legislation, the provisions of this article.
Quite simply put Congress gets to set the rules about how the disability is implemented. So basically you want to ignore sections 1 and 5. It doesn't work that way. The 14th Amendment must be read as a whole and not just 5 disparate parts where you pick and choose.
As to your "sovereign decree" bullshit under our Constitution we require a process before we take away anyone's rights. Nothing is automatically decreed just because some people want that decree. Under your logic it could be decreed that everyone is somehow an insurrectionist and is barred from public office because they just are. In the USA we have standards and due process so that there is order. You and your ilk are willing to destroy due process because of the hate you hold for one man. Fuck that.
CountmontyC, I gave you chapter and verse quoted straight from one of the most influential authors of the U.S. Constitution. What do you make of it?
He says the power lies with the People. To me that says he would leave the choice up to the people and not some state court saying " you can't vote for your preferred candidate because we think he has been naughty. "
Your position is to take power away from the people.
CountmontyC, your insistence is that a faction voting indirectly during a presidential election by the agency of presidential electors be treated as sovereign individuals. No matter what you think Wilson, "would have," said, that insistence is one the Supreme Court never ratified when Wilson sat on this nation's first Supreme Court, nor afterwards to this day.
Sovereign individualism is not part of this nation's constitutionalism, let alone sovereign individualism for presidential electors. Instead, joint sovereign action by super-majority ratification is what runs the show.
Section 3 of the 14A received that imprimatur. It can be removed or modified by amendment, but not otherwise. The disability it prescribes for an insurrectionist can be removed by a supermajority vote in both houses of Congress, because that provision was ratified. Nothing has been ratified to let presidential electors perform that function.
Your, "logic," has not served you well. You should rely on it less.
If you are capable of winning a Congressional, Senate, or Presidential election, getting onto the ballot is not an issue. Put differently, if you lack the funds and the ground game to get on the ballot, you lack the funds and ground game to be competitive.
Is it too difficult to type “I was wrong?”
Indeed.
My first reaction was “oh geez”, how many of these are we going to be treated to?
Upon reflection, it doesn’t surprise, because it’s his same approach with immigration law–not recognizing its legitimacy either, but keep blundering on as if he’s correct.
At least Blackman can acknowledge (barely) when he’s wrong, even if it doesn’t stop him from making endless follow-on blog posts.
It's not all that hard to glance at the author and move on.
Besides, we won't be here all that much longer anyway.
(holds breath to see if this is the post that will not be accepted)
Academics often make their whole bag disagreeing with the Supreme Court.
You're allowed to do that! It's ordinary, even.
Libertarians are detached from reality. They are never wrong.
.
You're leading with your chin, Roger.
Conservatives aggressively choose superstition, nonsense, and dogma over reality and reason.
Do you often (or ever) sense that audiences from the reasoning, modern, educated American mainstream find your arguments persuasive and positions attractive?
Reasoning? Mostly I hear identity politics from Democrats.
An interesting observation from the Christian nationalist/white supremacist/Christian dominionist/white nationalist/Christian identity/patriarchy camp.
How does a blog operated by law professors attract such a remarkable concentration of these clingers? By limiting membership to conservative affirmative action hires and focusing on white, male professors, for starters.
He's not even wrong.
He's making policy arguments not legal arguments, which would be fine if we were designing our federal elections system from scratch, but of course we are not.
The 9-0 decision literally lead off with this patchwork concept would be chaos, and that that reason alone was sufficient to toss it.
And then, here's some other blabber that one or more only agree with.
And the problem with making a policy decision here, is that the policy decision was made a century and a half ago. That’s the purpose of Congress, and in this case, ratification by the States.
So assume for the sake of argument that an insurrectionist is allowed to be on the ballot for president because of inaction at the federal level. Is that really so bad??? The only way that person will become president is if he wins a national election. In that situation, the people of the country have spoken and decided that (1) they disagree he/she is an insurrectionist or (2) don't care. In either case, democracy has spoken so what is the great harm?
That is a bad thing, of course! Congress should get their butt in gear to define some process that can make such determination, preferrably at a national level.
Honestly, I'm not so sure even that is a good idea. With the Civil War, who was engaged was not really in doubt. Here, whether it was an insurrection is heavily debated and doubted, as was participation.
Any such future rules by Congress should keep that in mind. They can make rules, but, if they exist, will be gamed by opponents.
Is a "workaround" for profound lack of agreement on insurrection an actual benefit?
With broad concensus, no rules are needed, any more than in the aftermath of the Civil War. Without concensus, the rules will be gamed to get enemies.
In non-obvious cases it will be gamed.
The Court says that Congress DID get their butt in gear and define that process: The federal insurrection statute.
French: "But it's far better than not enforcing the Constitution at all."
We need to stop humoring this pretense that, unless Trump can be disqualified by some dodgy civil process or 50%+1 vote in Congress, Section 3 has no enforcement mechanism. It does have an enforcement mechanism: Convicting Trump of insurrection!
They don't want to have to use it because, despite all the bluster about his guilt being indisputable, they know their case is absurdly weak, to the point that no responsible prosecutor would run with it.
We need to stop humoring this pretense that, unless Trump can be disqualified by some dodgy civil process or 50%+1 vote in Congress, Section 3 has no enforcement mechanism. It does have an enforcement mechanism: Convicting Trump of insurrection!
I don't DISAGREE with this, but also, we should more broadly stop humoring the pretense that the most important thing in the world is a purist interpretation of the Constitution. Section 3 poses all sorts of practical real world problems when applied to a presidential election, and could result in the disenfranchisement of millions of voters (or disenfranchisement in some states but not others, if Prof. Somin's proposal were accepted). It's bog standard to take this into account when deciding how to interpret a law.
Now obviously, if Section 3 literally by its terms applied to presidential candidates and said that it could go state by state and said a state court could determine on an evidentiary hearing whether a presidential candidate was an insurrectionist, we'd probably have to enforce that. But it doesn't. And thus it isn't "case closed we are disobeying the Constitution" to say we're not going to cause all sorts of mischief in the presidential election by doing this.
Who needs a presumption of innocence when political power is on the line, just declare things true and off we go.
That’s why I keep pointing out how mad it is to try applying Civil war precedents in a country that didn’t just have a civil war. A lot of that was stuff they could only get away with because the South was beaten down and under military occupation.
Otherwise trying half of it would have caused a civil war!
Most of these precedents they’re trying to rely on have no legal reasoning beyond, “We won. You lost. Sucks to be you.”
Well sure, but you are not an originalist, and you are fine with a results oriented Supreme Court decision.
But of course rejecting "the pretense that the most important thing in the world is a purist interpretation of the Constitution" puts us right back on the slippery slope the court was on for decades where the court decided it was super legislature.
Lets not get back on that ride.
If there is anything the most recent period of Supreme Courtery is known for, it is judicial humility.
No it doesn't. There are all sorts of mechanisms for preventing that slippery slope.
Section 3 poses all sorts of practical real world problems when applied to a presidential election, and could result in the disenfranchisement of millions of voters
The drafters of sec 3 agreed and specifically opted the President out, as a target of sec 3. It covers the Electors of President and Vice President. Because that is determined by the State. And the amendment is designed to keep the States from sending bad actors to DC.
Sec 3 fully trusts the vote of all the voters will be more that enough to weed out a bad actor. IF not, impeachment for bad acts is at the ready.
Commenting late here, but this highlights an excellent point...
Because as written Section 3 poses all sorts of problems, all the more reason that there needs to be Section 5 legislation to deal with all that. From the beginning it was maddening to hear anyone suggest it could be self-executing. That was a Rorschach test of how someone felt about Trump.
It's pretty obvious from the post Civil War history that the politicians of the day cared more about their desired outcomes than the legal niceties to achieve it. The Radical Republicans wanted what they wanted, and for a while there was no one strong enough to oppose them. The federal courts not being what they are today. Eventually the Supreme Court did, short circuiting much of their Reconstruction civil rights efforts. But not in the immediate aftermath of 14A was ratification.
Ilya Somin will say literally anything as long as it is bad for Trump. He would pen an article about how execution without a trial is not in conflict with any constitutional provision in Trump's case. His critical thinking faculties have been deranged by Trump.
Ad hominem telepathy is so pure.
Is that why you use it so much? I've often wondered.
By all means call me out when there are specific instances when I do that.
Just hand-waiving accusations like this look more like dressed up name-calling.
That's right. He claims to be a Libertarian, but no Libertarian would approve of the Trump prosecutions or the lawfare against him. Only personal Trump hatred can drive such opinions.
Has Prof. Somin indicated he is a member of the Libertarian Party?
Or, instead, is Roger S unfamiliar with (or disdainful of) capitalization in standard English?
Somin claims to be following Libertarian principles. And yet he supports prosecuting Trump for his political positions.
He supports prosecuting Trump (I assume) for his crimes. He supports disqualifying Trump for engaging in insurrection. He hasn't said anything at all about Trump's "political positions" here.
I have read a lot of Libertarian publications, and I have never seen one advocate prosecuting anyone else for anything similar.
It's not easy to come up with anyone similar. Richard Nixon wasn't prosecuted for his crimes, but he was pardoned (although he might not have been prosecuted anyway; resigning was essentially a deal to avoid prosecution) and he didn't attempt a coup to stay in power.
Oh yes. Every President has retained documents. Many thousands have put dubious estimates on a loan application. Many have paid a lawyer and recorded it on the books as a lawyer payment. Many have denied a false accusation of rape. Many have contested an election. No, libertarians do not agree with these types of prosecutions.
It's not denying a false accusation of rape; it's defaming the accuser, repeatedly, when there's enough evidence to find that sexual assault was committed. It's not retaining papers; it's refusing to return them, lying about them, hiding them and enlisting others to thwart their recovery. It's not contesting an election; it's moving on to an insurrection to prevent the transfer of power.
I'm not sure what paying a lawyer is about; probably the hush money case, and John Edwards was prosecuted over a similar thing. I don't know what libertarians thought of that.
Hmmm... Have you read his posts on other topics? They're just as deranged!
If there is anything a bunch of antisocial, disaffected, bigoted white males (assembled at a right-wing blog by some neurodivergent culture war casualties strutting about in faux libertarian drag) can't abide, it is some genuinely libertarian content.
Another 19,000 words on why Somin's right and the remainder of the solar system is persistently wrong.
Do you figure he'll try to paste the stuff together and call it a book , as some disaffected, downscale losers did with respect to comments concerning the Obamacare debates?
Was it called Broccoli for the Loss?
"Everyone else is wrong"
"Would it not be better if he is disqualified from running in at least some states, than if he is allowed on the ballot everywhere?" A few things. First, the states that seek to disqualify Trump almost surely would not to be won by him. They would essentially disenfranchise Trump voters, but those voters are voiceless anyway. Second, it sets up a scenario where Trump could declare victory in those states, claim their electoral votes even if only rhetorically, and call the election stolen if they would have given him a margin of victory. Not a good thing IMO.
Trump's acts of telling/cajoling/threatening Pence to disregard the actual electors in swing states (or close election states) and instead certify his fake electors would had disenfranchised hundreds of thousands of voters in those states. Nobody mentions this. Nobody cares.
And if you think Trump won't claim the same bullshit this upcoming election, then you are delusional. Trump was signaling the "if I lose it can only be because of fraud" well before the election. Told his voters not to trust mail in votes and use same day voting. And they did. PRECISELY because the same day returns would show him with a lead which would slowly and steadily evaporate as all the mail in ballots were counted. Which is entirely predictable. And so was his whining that he was winning, then mysteriously he wasn't. Its so transparently obvious.
Enforcing the constitution is sometimes hard. But it is the supreme law of the land. If people have a problem with it, change it. Don't pretend its operative phrases and conditions don't exist.
Pence had already promised to reexamine those electoral votes. Trump was just expecting Pence to do what he had already promised.
The accusation against Trump is central to the DC criminal case, and currently held up by Scotus. So this issue is not being ignored.
Its being ignored by all his supporters. They whine and whine and whine that democrats are afraid of democracy, and point to the CO lawsuit/case as proof positive of this. Despite it being registered Republican voters who filed the fkn lawsuit to kick Trump off their GOP primary ballot.
If Trump had been successful in supplanting the acting A.G. with Jeffrey Clark or whatever...he was going to order the seizure of voting machines and try to stop the count/certification. All with some nebulous goal of 'throwing it to the legislatures.' GOP legislatures which he fully expected to name him the winner regardless of what the vote totals actually were. Its ridiculous to look at all that and say Trump and his inner circle are champions of democracy.
Righhhhhhhht...
Pence promised that objections would be heard in Congress; they were, and even if there had been any basis to those it wouldn't have changed the result. (More objections might have been made if the insurrection hadn't interfered.)
You'll shamelessly lie about anything. Is it genetic? Pence expressly told Trump that he had no power to reject electoral votes and was not going to do so.
He may not be lying. This guy seems to believe some inexplicable things.
Ask him about superstitious gay-bashing, white supremacy, women’s rights, and whether childish fairy tales are true, for example. Or, because this is Prof. Volokh’s blog, ask him about the use of vile racial slurs.
Here is what Pence said on Jan. 4, 2021: "I know we all have got our doubts about the last election. I want to assure you that I share the concerns of millions of Americans about voting irregularities.... I promise you, come this Wednesday, we will have our day in Congress."
https://www.realclearpolitics.com/video/2021/01/04/pence_on_election_doubts_we_will_have_our_day_in_congress_well_hear_the_evidence.html
He promised that "We'll hear the objections, we'll hear the evidence" and kept that promise when Arizona and Pennsylvania were objected to. Interesting that there was no objection in Congress to Georgia, where Pence had made that speech; maybe too many members of Congress embarrassed by the insurrection.
/cajoling/threatening Pence to disregard the actual electors in swing states (or close election states) and instead certify his fake electors would had disenfranchised hundreds of thousands ,
Yet that is exactly what Raskins legislation triggers.
The endgame probably was to use the blue states decisions as evidence in lawsuits in purple states to get Trump kicked off the ballots in those states. They would claim that the other states had to accept the declaration of him being an insurrectionist under the full faith and credit provision.
At the very least the Democrats were hoping to use the declaration of him being an insurrectionist in campaign ads.
Two not mutually exclusive strategies:
1) All they really needed was for Trump to be disqualified in one or two swing states to throw a close election.
2) Disqualifying him in a few large states, even ones he could never win, would suppress his popular vote total dramatically, giving them PR excuse for declaring an EC victory illegitimate.
Your assumption that everyone is as corrupt as you is not correct.
The second strategy would obviously be pointless, because Trump and his cultists rejected the popular vote within single states, a result which gave Biden the electoral votes in each such state. It would in fact be counterproductive, as they would likely insist that he would have gotten millions of votes from states with fewer than a million voters (cf. inauguration audience counts).
No. This entire Amendment was written in a moment of civic passion. Prosecutions based upon it languished for over a hundred years.
Today it has our attention merely because it provides a convenient opportunity for motivated reasoning based on partisan politics.
If we were smart, we would never allow ourselves to "imagine, for the sake of argument, that [a] candidate really is an insurrectionist".
We don’t have to imagine. There was a contested trial, Trump was represented by counsel, and he lost on the issue of whether or not he was an insurrectionist, engaged in insurrection or gave aid and comfort to enemies of the constitution.
The only reason the issue is so rare post Civil War is because typically, major political parties don’t make as their standard bearer people who could even be remotely accused of being 5degrees removed from insurrection, let alone an active participant.
No, there was no real trial. The supposed evidence was all hearsay. Trump was not even charged with the crime of insurrection. The closest thing to a trial was the second impeachment trial, and Trump was acquitted by the Senate.
The CO Supreme Court invented a new exception to the CRE Hearsay Rule to get the hyper-partisan J6 report admitted into evidence.
"There was a contested trial"
In a court without jurisdiction.
Oh I am sorry...did the US SUP CT invalidate CO's election laws? I didn't read that in the opinion. They very clearly said that CO could kick state candidates off the ballot per sec 3 just couldn't do that for federal candidates (including the Presidency).
You and Roger S don't know what the hell you are talking about.
Really? I think they are talking about a white, male, heterosexual, Bible-based, conservative world, and they seem to be very knowledgeable in that area.
States cannot disqualify so a state court lacks subject matter jurisdiction over the claims against Trump. Lack of subject matter jurisdiction makes a judgment void.
“The only reason the issue is so rare post Civil War is because typically, major political parties don’t make as their standard bearer people who could even be remotely accused of being 5 degrees removed from insurrection, let alone an active participant.”
THIS is precisely your blind spot. Instead of waiting for a process to be duly followed that conclusively proves someone committed a crime, you are content with “proof” that is 5 degrees of remove away.
Why are you content with that? Why aren't you INSISTING on real, hard proof? Do you have doubts?
That’s the part of all this that I call “motivated”. You want Team Red to be found guilty because you believe they are guilty, not because you can prove they are guilty.
But of course motivated reasoning works in both directions. There are dozens and dozens of things that President Biden has done that are 5 degrees removed from a crime. Cries of insurrection on such a basis are going to be UNENDING.
That’s the stupid part of all this lawfare. It’s just so damn lazy. Anyone can do it, and it leads to nowhere good. It’s an escalation, nothing more.
JFC. Trump committed his crimes on live television. And Twitter. The government of course needs to afford someone process before they take action against him, but ordinary people do not need to pretend that they didn't see what they saw.
These gape-jaws are not interested in your facts, evidence, and reality-based world. They are on a holy mission from God to vindicate righteousness, smite demons, restore the Lord God of the Bible to his dominion, protect the Orange Jesus and his golden sneakers, glorify angels, and protect the rights of white, male, Bible-believing, half-educated, economically shambling, intensely bigoted Republicans.
So it was written. Or something.
Gape-jawed: mouth wide open from being stunned at seeing something
Slack-jawed: mouth hanging open, perhaps drooling, from being an idiot yokel, straw in danger of falling from the lips
Prof. Volokh has forbidden use of the second term to describe conservatives at his blog.
His playground, his rules. Partisan hypocrites and slur-hurling, viewpoint-driven censors have rights, too.
In libertarian world, only foreign killers of college girls get a presumption of innocence.
1) The government is required to presume innocence; ordinary people are not.
2) The issue in Trump's case is that this presumption has been overcome by the evidence we've all seen. Whereas we've seen no evidence of any sort related to that college girl's murder.
And there it is! Trump’s guilt is so obvious, even a cave man can see it! (Just like the first impeachment.)
Verdict first, trial later. Maybe.
Everything I know about justice for politicians, I learned during the Clinton impeachment trial. Move on indeed.
(Disclaimer: I’ve never voted for Trump, and am disappointed he’s going to be the nominee yet again.)
Yeah, that's the downside. Now I have to not vote for him a third time.
So, a preview of things to come: He needs to lose because we don't need him waiving a checkered flag as Putin's tanks pull to a stop somewhere west of Poland.
Because Putin invaded so many places under Trump's watch as opposed to either Biden or Obama. JFC you're stupid if that is your thought process.
So Putin didn't invade when Trump was POTUS, because Trump's a big tough guy, where as Biden would never stand up to Putin.
Right!
JFC you’re stupid if that is your thought process.
, but ordinary people do not need to pretend that they didn’t see what they saw.
The voters will take that knowledge into the voting booth. Why do insist on FORCING your view on all the voters of self selected States
The authors of the 14th amendment insisted on doing so.
The authors Exempted the President an Vice President
His speech is actually his alibi
He was on live TV addressing his supporters when 1.5 miles away a crowd was breaking down the barriers and breaching the capitol, by the time he exhorted the crowd to fight like hell, and march peacefully to the Capitol, the riot was well under way, the barricades had been breached and the police were falling back into the capitol building.
And the crowd Trump had "incited" with his speech was still at least a 40 minute walk away from it all.
Those are the simple facts that shows Trump couldn't have incited the Insurrection, and its why Jack Smith knows he has no chance of success if he brings a charge of insurrection.
Your argument is: we are 100% certain Trump is an insurrectionist, but we know we can't prove it in court, so we need a shortcut.
Trump summoned and assembled the mob, you bigoted dumbass.
Trump told them to move toward the Capitol, you worthless rube.
Trump lied to the police about whether he would send the crowd to the Capitol, you disaffected culture war casualty. Repeatedly.
Delusional, antisocial, right-wing misfits like you are the reason rural electrification turned out to be such a bad idea.
What crime did Trump commit on TV? Was he convicted of committing Insurrection under the federal criminal statute? Or did he do something that you personally believe was Insurrection?
TL;DR due to the OP's TDS.
If congress wants to disqualify candidates, it knows what to do.
There was never any chance the Supreme Court was going to allow the disqualification of a candidate that garnered 70 million+ votes, without Congress speaking clearly.
No… I am not a Trump supporter. I would have liked to see any one of 4 other people be the nominee. But also, I live in the real world.
Your use of the term "TDS" in this way does tend to undermine your "not a Trump supporter" claim.
Your lack of logic does tend to undermine your "ObviouslyNotSpam" moniker.
No: "Disliking Trump" is not the same thing as hating him so much it clouds my judgement to the point I cant see facts. I can diagnose you as living in a bubble impervious to facts without living in the same bubble.
The majority opinion got it right. I'd rather see Trump defeated the old fashioned way, at the ballot box. Not really sure at this point its going to happen. 60-40 he gets re elected.
Your false binary choices continue to mislead.
I have never voted for Trump. Never will. I have no problem identifying derangement syndrome when I see it.
Of course you can choose to believe I'm lying about this. That only reinforces any syndrome you may be experiencing, that you lack objectivity about the issue.
Shut Up!
Shut Up!
Shut Up!
OMG F’ing God just shut up about it already!!
No one cares!!
Move on!
Can you create a separate SubStack to prattle on about this?
Shut Up!
Shut Up!
Shut Up!
Come on - tell us what you really think!
Holy crap dude just don't click!!
Holy crap dude just don’t comment!!
I'm not the one acting like commenting or reading is being tortured.
Does the Volokh Conspiracy's habitual use of vile racial slurs bother you half as much as this seems to?
I have a hunch in this regard.
"Imagine, for the sake of argument, that Trump or some other presidential candidate really is an insurrectionist who deserves to be disqualified under Section 3."
Here's the flimsy lynchpin of the entire posting. How can we know that someone "really is an insurrectionist?" There must be some kind of determination of that fact. And it is better to have a single determination, binding on all, than to have a patchwork of such determinations.
When your position accepts that a traffic-court judge should be able to--between granting deferred adjudications on drivers going 55 in a 45--determine the composition of statewide ballots for the presidency, then you need a new position.
If he were really an insurrectionist, he would not be leading in the polls.
Do you make the same claim about Trump's bigotry, or criminal charges, or civil liabilities?
Yes. Polls show him doing well with Hispanic and Black voters. Not possible if he were a bigot. He also would not be doing well if anyone believed those rape and other charges.
So well they were faking up images of black Trump supporters using AI.
they
they?
Trump supporters. If he had so much support, they wouldn't need to create fake photos.
If he didn’t have that much Black support, I wouldn’t be complimented as often as I am by Blacks for the Trump (hotel) hat that I am wearing.
Then there would be no need for faked pictures.
Actually, no. I am sitting right now in a Trump Hotel. I often see Black Americans (by their accents) here. Employees and guests. And, maybe surprisingly to some here, I get a lot of positive comments about my Trump (hotel) hat I am wearing from many of them. Yes, my sample is self selecting, but sometimes the hotel lobby becomes a sea of well dressed Blacks, when a Black social function is held here. Engaging those complimenting me on my Trump hat in conversation, and they (esp the Black men) really like the guy, and despise Biden. Yes, still a minority, but from my experiences, less and less every month.
Plenty of Trump supporters indicate they believe he has committed crimes -- including serious crimes -- but that they don't let that criminality diminish their ardor.
They're on a mission from god . . . and not the good (Jake-Elwood) kind.
If you genuinely believe in the fairy tales you seem to claim to be true, Roger S, how do you square that with support for Trump?
I read the indictments, and the civil case charges. They are all bogus. The people who brought the charges must be removed from office, in order to save the nation.
Save the nation from what?
Inclusiveness (at the expense of your multifaceted bigotry)?
Reason and science (at the expense of your childish superstition and silly dogma)?
Progress (at the expense of your wish to revive the 1950s?
A non-white majority (at the expense of your white nationalism and white supremacy)?
Women's rights (at the expense of your old-timey patriarchy fetish)?
You are culture war roadkill, just like the wingnut professors and comments at this blog. You should try to remember that you will spend the rest of your life complying with the preferences of your betters, and that there is no requirement that a culture war's victors be magnanimous toward the losers.
No, Biden is jailing his political enemies.
Is that important to his voters, or is verbally punching the "demonic" opposition really hard important?
I make no claims on the value of those things, or interpretations, but that seems to be the operative meme structure.
If a candidate is disqualified for federal office, then it would be desirable to insist all states recognize the fact. Some federal procedure should be the way to do this – but on the other hand, a U. S. Supreme Court appeal of a state Supreme Court decision *is* a federal procedure. So I’m not sure what the problem is.
But if a candidate is *qualified,* that doesn’t (under modern interpretations) automatically entitle him to ballot access. Maybe he’s an independent candidate, or the nominee of a third party, or a dissenter within one of the major parties. Would you say that such candidates should be on the ballot merely because they’re qualified? Perish the thought!
Article IV section 1 is a friend of Amendment 14 sections 3 and 5.
Just like the federal courts below the Supreme Court, just because the Constitution authorizes something doesn't mean it must exist. Maybe Congress shouldn't have repealed the quo warranto process. But it did.
Imagine, for the sake of argument, that Somin didn't have a terminal case of TDS, and didn't argue backwards from his preferred outcome.
So imagine Somin had stopped writing?
Are you trying to turn me on?
Foot vote! Foot vote! Foot Vote!
First, you need someplace better to move to. That is not a trivial issue for this argument.
Second, you need free egress/ingress to that better place. That too is not a trivial issue.
Lastly, this argument is rooted in one side of Goodhart's Anywhere/Somewhere divide. I don't think it will take a lot of imagination to figure out which side and why the blindness of that side is annoying.
I agree with Ilya that a patchwork of state decisions is better than a national decision, It does not matter if the decision from a state or the national government is one you agree with or not.
I do have a separate but aligning issue "What about the enforcement?".
Let's take the scenario where the delegates from a state are in dispute. Examples would be where a particular state does not allow its electors to vote for a candidate for any type of federal reason (insurrection, natural born citizen, age limitation) or the electors election process is in contention.
We need to have a mechanism to fully investigate or disallow the state's elector under certain circumstances. The assumption seems to be the VP has to allow the state electors from the vote count no matter what.
And if the supposedly disqualified candidate wins and becomes POTUS does the state that disqualified him/her get to ignore the result. Remember that they said he was disqualified. So after being sworn in does the state declare that everything he authorizes is invalid?
What does this line of reasoning do for you? It's akin to the "what if a Marine refused to follow the orders of a disqualified president" hypothetical. That state would simply find itself in conflict with the federal government, the dispute would work its way through the courts and the Supreme Court would decide. That's how the system works.
Following the Constitution is hard, but it's not impossible.
Well the line of reasoning is why we don't have a patchwork option here because if that state does declare that they don't have to abide by the result what you have is essentially an insurrection and what amounts to a secession. Remember what caused the Southern Secession was that they didn't like the result of a presidential election. So under your scenario the South could simply have taken Lincoln to court and hold off obeying the elected POTUS Lincoln until it was decided. You might want to think before posting.
So long as the dispute stays in the courts, we would have a difference of opinion, not a revolution.
Always the drama with you guys.
From someone who wants Trump tossed in jail because he was contesting the election your remark is laughable.
Ilya The Lesser strikes yet again...
tl;dr
Remember how I said I was wrong, but SCOTUS was wronger?! Take that! 🙂
Why is he Ilya The Lesser (the contrast is with Ilya The Bigot)? It is just the shared, old-timey, right-wing bigotry, or do you perceive another reason to consider Ilya The Bigot superior?
Your bigotry is one reason your superstition is fading as a force in modern, improving America.
Ilya is too stupid to understand he’s actually arguing for a national split if not civil war when he and his proggy allies refuse to give up control over those they oppress.
Open wider, clinger.
Or not.
Your comfort is a receding consideration among your betters.
The Fourteenth Amendment represented a fundamental restructuring of the federalist order as it had stood under the original Constitution. The states were stripped of a great deal of their sovereignty vis-à-vis the federal government. The 14th Amendment is not a paean to federalism. It is the opposite. The suggestion that its drafters intended to insert within the Amendment a grant of power to the states over federal elections, a power that could be used for great mischief, is absurd.
A presidential election is 50 state elections, not a federal election, and the constitution itself grants states power to the states over those elections.
The Constitution also requires that the federal government makes certain each state has a republican form of government and various laws, such as the Voting Rights Act, routinely interfere in how states conduct elections. Another example is federal courts hearing cases about how the districts are divided up. While the states do administer the elections that grant of authority is not unlimited.
I agree! And if there were an express constitutional or statutory provision — akin to the equal protection clause or the VRA — forbidding states from enforcing A14S3, I would say that states did not have such a power. But nobody has pointed to any such provision.
Section 5 delegates enforcement power to Congress. There is no section that delegates that power to the states
new law:
Any action under section 3 of 14A must be brought before a 3 judge US district court in DC
In the event of an unanimous decision to disqualify, an appeal to the DC circuit shall be taken as of right
In the event of an unanimous decision of the DC circuit court to disqualify, an appeal may be taken to the US Supreme Court.
If the Supreme Court declines the appeal, then there shall be no disqualification. If at least 6 justices agree that the disqualification should be upheld. then the candidate is disqualified.
Unanimous trier of fact and a super S/C majority ought to mean that there truly was an insurrection and keep dissent at a minimum.
This is why I posted I am wary of even this. If it’s obvious he did something wrong, the people will see it, and such rules are unneeded. If it’s contested between sides, this process will be gamed, with loud, facetious statements of “obvious” stuff on both sides, and we're right back here with lawyers fighting weasel motivated fights in court, the opposite of obvious.
Section 14A 3
"... shall have engaged in insurrection or rebellion against the same, or given aid or comfort to the enemies thereof. But Congress may by a vote of two-thirds of each House, remove such disability."
Rapport's comment - "While I agree with the Court that Trump cannot be disqualified, it is not because of the nonoriginalist, made-up argument in the majority and concurring opinions. It is because section 3 applies to those who engage in an insurrection, not those who aid and assist a riot."
Is characterizing the Jan 6 as an insurrection an overreach or distortion of the meaning of "Insurrection"? Not an armed rebellion, not a act of war or anything resembling such.
Then there the phrase "...given aid or comfort to the enemies thereof." Would that action not apply to either Obama or Biden with their back door dealings with Iran which has been facilitating Iran's terrorist activity? or does that not apply because the war with Iran since 1979 been an undeclared war.
"Is characterizing the Jan 6 as an insurrection an overreach or distortion of the meaning of 'Insurrection'? Not an armed rebellion, not a act of war or anything resembling such."
Yes, it is over-reach and it is over-reach which itself reduces the sacrifice made by soldiers on both sides of the issue and, in doing so, angers a significant portion of the voting population. But that is a traditional immigration issue: immigrants whose forebearers were not a part of the founding and subsequent events truly lack an understanding of -- and even have disdain for -- what is in the American mix.
The Union invasion into the Confederate States was not that long ago: my parents' lives overlapped those of the invading and defending soldiers and mine has overlapped those of children of slaves, freemen, and soldiers raped or killed by the invaders. Sometimes, we have to repeat the questions asked by victims -- such as "What (other than the color of my skin) made you think I wasn't free already?", "How does raping me make me free?", "How does burning my food source make me free?" -- and then ask ourselves if it is morally repugnant to even attempt to use an originally morally repugnant amendment in an effort to defeat the democratic will of the people.
I also note that the tide has turned rather sharply and those who were tacit opponents of the sitting President are now vocal opponents, in part due to the misplaced efforts of Somin and others in the Stalinist cabal wishing for unfettered control of every facet of American life. President Trump is winning his second term by astounding margins (see https://www.realclearpolling.com/elections/president/2024/battleground-states ) and we have Somin to thank. Keep Somin talking and Trump might become even more popular than Ronald Reagan!
Since what you call "the Union" was actually just the United States, and what you call the "Confederate States" were actually just some of the United States acting treasonously, there could not be any "Union invasion" into "Confederate States." One cannot invade oneself. HTH.
That was the "Union" position at the start of the war, but by the time it was over they had pivoted 180 degrees.
Otherwise the "Confederate" states wouldn't have had to apply for re-admission, and meet the conditions like ratifying the 14th amendment.
And they didn't act "treasonously" because they didn't adhere to our enemies, but they did act insurrectionously.
Although a lot of historical sources talk about "readmitting" states to the Union, that's not what actually happened; there was no pivot. It was readmission to representation in Congress, not readmission to the U.S. (To be sure, some of the Radical Republicans considered the traitor states to have essentially dissolved as states, and therefore felt that the states had essentially reverted to the status of Territories, which needed to be (re-)admitted as states.) But from nobody's perspective on the U.S. side were the traitor states ever considered to have been independent.
They acted treasonously because they levied war against the U.S., which is the first definition of treason in the Constitution.
You are using ex post facto reasoning. To the victors goes the power to write history. The Constitution speaks of a number of states combining to form a Union of states. That strongly suggests that they could also disaffiliate, or secede, from that Union. What was treasonous about that? Much of the country believed that at the time. It was only after the fact, after the Confederacy lost to the Union, that Secession could be considered to have been treasonous.
I say this as the descendant of GAR soldiers who fought and died to protect that Union. As a side note, noted Civil War historian Bruce Catton, in his autobiography, wrote that his interest in the Civil War was sparked by growing up watching the GAR survivors in town marching several times a year, and one of those named by him was my great great grandfather. Bruce grew up with my grandfather, and his younger brother Bob was my grandfather’s best friend. My grandmother baked his 80th birthday cake. My grandfather, similarly inspired, retired a Colonel in the Army, finishing his service as a judge on a Nazi War Crime tribunal.
Yes, just like the American Revolution, the question of treason was going to be decided by arms when the states not attempting to secede chose to preserve the Union at any cost.
It's revisionist history to pretend that secession wasn't an open question, being seriously considered over the prior 50 years, within a decade or so early in that window both by Jefferson and Madison, and then New England states. Every time some national question went against a region, some blowhard would spout off suggesting it.
It suggests no such thing.
Once again: the constitution defines treason as levying war against the United States. That's what the southern traitors did. That makes it treason.
Legal immigration during the past 200 years creates an "immigration issue"...
Well, well, well. It always reveals itself eventually.
Out of curiosity, would you also consider Trump’s backdoor dealings with Russia, North Korea, and other “undeclared war” opponents of the United States treason by your definition? Or does your definition apply only to your political opponents? Perchance you think some people’s equal rights are more equal than others here?
ReaderY- Back door dealings with Russia? such as uranium one?, such as cancelling the polish missile defense, or such as asking russia to keep quite until after the 2012 election?
You left off refusing to allow (for a while anyways) Poland to give Ukraine F-16s! Russian operative!
Is that a "yes" or a "no"?
This discussion persuades me that among Republicans Trump not only defines morality, lawfulness, election reliability, sound pandemic management practices, piety, and family values, but also now defines originalism.
Which, of course, will be less reliable, less popular, less important, less attractive, less persuasive, and less well-known than Kim Kardashian . . . but is -- as conservatives love to point out -- a few months older than Kim Kardashian!
A patchwork of 50 state opinions on a question is surely far less to be feared by those who hate disorder, instanility, chaos, and non-uniformity than a patchwork of millions of individual opinion. If this nation needs to speak with one voice, than the cacophony that comes with popular elections and free speech causes far more damage to national unity than merely letting 50 states each make their own decisions. If the “federal” interest in uniformity justifies doing away with remaining vestiges of enumerated state powers and the principle of federalism, then surely the “democratic” interest in uniformity, in a leader who represents all the people and not just a subset of with no dissenting voice permitted, must justify doing away with remaining popular rights and vestiges of democracy.
I’m not here to argue policy. If enumerated constitutional rights and powers to decide who our leaders are can be done away with by resort to policy arguments, then a dictator for life can be installed on policy grounds.
The system the framers established is very likely not the best system. But its high level of tolerance for non-uniformity and resulting disorder, its acceptance of multiple speakers speaking with multiple voices and sometimes drawing opposite policy conclusions, is far from its worst characteristic. It is a feature, not a bug.
Glad to hear Ilya has taken up quilting. Maybe he'll now have less time to post bullshit.
Not really on topic, but I just saw the strangest headline-
"American has never had a presumptive nominee like Trump."
I mean, say what you will about the situation, but I can think of at least two times in the past when America has, in fact, had someone running for President who was ... um .... very, very, very similar to Trump.
Is there a point either in the story or your comment?
Presumably the CNN article https://www.cnn.com/2024/03/06/politics/trump-presumptive-nominee-analysis/index.html
Not a great headline, but I think it's a reasonable point of view that Donald Trump in 2016 or Donald Trump in 2020 were significantly different from Donald Trump in 2024, who is bent on retribution.
I’m not even sure this is different in kind from the past, but maybe in magnitude.
I recall a concern in horror when the Democrats lost an election, maybe Trump 2016, or maybe Bush 2004, anyway, cancel culture was well under way and they were terrified “he was gonna do to ‘us’ what ‘we’ had been doing to them”, which meant wield some nebulous cancel culture magic wand, wrecking them every way possible.
No such thing occurred, of course, in spite of occasional bursts like kneeling at NFL games.
It was more illuminating for the acknowledgement that was a Good Thing oh no we lost control of it!
Although he talked insurrection before the 2016 and 2020 elections, he's only now done it; and he didn't have so many felony convictions hanging over him then.
Your recall is entirely fictional. Bush after 2004 continued to do what he was already doing (disastrous Iraq war, failure in the war on terror) plus some other incompetence involving natural disasters and the economy, but not anything that any opponent had been doing. Trump has promised retribution if he gets another term, but like his try at locking up Hillary, he's not going to achieve it by the lawful process that has indicted him.
Isn't this the same guy that thinks States can't do anything about hordes of illegals streaming over their borders? Yeah . . . I think I'll pass on reading this one.
This is the same blog that thought Obamacare was unlawful and unconstitutional . . . how much of your respect have these clingers reclaimed?
So consider a patchwork of 48 states kicking Trump off the ballot, and 52 states kicking Biden off the ballot.
And we start doing the math, and ...
Every state does that. Every state’s electoral college ballot consists of a single name. All others have been kicked off the ballot before the ballot reaches the electoral college and the federal election.
What federal difference does it make how a state decides to kick the others off the hallot? What federal difference does it make whether they are kicked off all at once or in stages, by a single act of exclusion or by several distinct acts at different times?
One can understand a case to be made that presidential elections are decided by state legislatures, without any direct guidance from voters. Each state legislature decides who the electors will be.
But I'm not ok with that, and I don't think very many people would be. It's just not, American.
Even more bizarre: let the state secretary of state make the decision. That would for sure end the question of "what does the secretary of state in a state actually do?".
So free speech only applies to “American” speech? If it’s “unAmerican,” the Supreme Court can just ignore the Constitution’s text?
I see nothing unAmerican about three different systems for selecting federal officials, direct election by the people for Congress, appointment by existing federal people for the Judiciary and Cabinet, and however each state wants to do it, each making its own decisions, for President.
I mean, what’s American having a President select the judges? The same argument about “officers who represent all the people must be elected by the people, anything else is unAmerican” could equally well be made about that.
Yeah, 50 states. Can't edit, can't delete and repost on this forum.
I don't think much of Ilya's argument here.
It seems to just assert that the risk a few states will make bad decisions is outweighed by the risk that the federal government will make one. AFAICT this is largely his personal opinion. I see no real support for it.
To my mind, permitting states to play games with disqualification is a disaster. Imagine a purple state disqualifying a candidate of either major party.
Imagine a heavily gerrymandered legislature disqualifying the candidate a majority of the states' voters support.
This is not democracy. It is chaos.
Look, the Presidency is a national office, no matter what Blackman says. Dump the formalism, dump at least this one federalist pretension. Tell the law professors to go back to teaching law.
Hear, hear!
Preach.
If the federal government disqualifies a candidate, the party can replace him or her on the ballot in every state. If the candidate is disqualified in some states, it can result in a win for the opponent, either outright (use friendly judges in swing states to accomplish the goal), or because that's how voting works.
How voting works: turnout matters. Let's say that a bunch of states (either via legislation or a judge) decide that Biden has violated the insurrection laws for some reason or another - open borders, supporting riots, maybe they believe their rhetoric or maybe they don't. North Carolina, Missouri, Arizona, Nevada, Georgia, Florida, Virginia all knock Biden off the ballot. He needs to run the table everywhere else. Then, Election Day comes. Blizzards all across the upper Midwest and Rust Belt. What if a bunch of Biden supporters in Ohio and Wisconsin don't bother showing up to the polls because "Trump is going to win anyway because of Georgia and NC and MO"? People who, absent those shenanigans, would have voted anyway because their swing state is one of many?
People make decisions to donate time and money also based on likelihood of winning. If someone is doomed to failure, they tend to not get a whole lot of resources thrown their way. Throw Biden off in a couple of states and hope that it causes Dem donors to put their money elsewhere. Or tie up the state long enough that Biden doesn't bother spending money or recruiting volunteers there.
Wow. The Constitution is a suicide pact after all.
Never mind
Did Trump does something of galactic proportions that only microscopic Legal analysis can detect ? No, Hillary, people aren't fools.
Ilya...just take the "L"
It's incredibly ironic that Ilya "Foot-Voting" Somin is in favor of an outcome that would allow one jurisdiction to decide the election for the entire nation. Pathetic.
How would it do any such thing? Even setting aside that this ruling was only about the primary, the only thing this decision would do is keep Trump from getting Colorado's votes.