The Volokh Conspiracy
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You're 18 and Having Sex with 14-Year-Old? No Problem (in Arkansas). But Better Not Show Your Genitals!
From Kidd v. State, decided today by the Arkansas Court of Appeals, in an opinion by Chief Judge Brandon Harrison, joined by Judges Rita Gruber and Kenneth Hixson:
Kidd and M.C. met at a private high school with ten to fifteen students. She [Kidd] was a senior. He [M.C.] was in ninth grade. Kidd was about three years, nine months older. They exchanged DMs (direct messages) on Snapchat, Instagram, and Pinterest. The conversations went where one might guess.
During Spring Break in March 2021, the two had sexual intercourse at least seven times, mostly in Kidd's parked car. She was then eighteen; he was fourteen. M.C.'s parents found out. The prosecution that followed revealed that virtually everyone involved had made some mistaken assumptions about what sexual conduct between Kidd and M.C. was or was not prohibited by Arkansas law.
Kidd had assumed that, because of her and M.C.'s ages, sexual intercourse with M.C. was a crime. She told him in one message that if she became pregnant with his baby, she would have to give birth in jail. M.C.'s parents also believed sexual intercourse between Kidd and M.C. was illegal, and testified so at the bench trial.
In truth, it was not a crime for Kidd to "engage in sexual intercourse" with M.C.—at least it was not a sexual assault, the crime she probably had in mind (and which the State might rather have charged). It would have been second-degree sexual assault for Kidd, who was "eighteen years of age or older" to engage in "sexual contact with another person who is [l]ess than fourteen (14) years of age." But M.C. was fourteen. It would have been fourth-degree sexual assault if, at "twenty (20) years of age or older" she had "[e]ngage[d] in sexual intercourse or deviate sexual activity" or "sexual contact" with a person under sixteen. But Kidd was younger than twenty.
So Kidd's sexual contact and sexual intercourse with M.C. was not sexual assault by statutory definitions. Some prosecutors might have stopped there. This one didn't.
The State's first attempted workaround was to charge Kidd with the solicitation offense in section 110(a)(1)(A) of the sexual-indecency statute. The statutory elements would encompass a person Kidd's age who "solicit[ed] another person who is less than fifteen (15) years of age"—as M.C. was—"to engage in sexual intercourse."
But we had held in Worsham v. State (Ark. App. 2019) that section 110(a)(1)(A) was unconstitutional as applied to solicitations sent by an eighteen-year-old (✓Kidd) to his fourteen-year-old (✓M.C.) girlfriend. Engaging in (instead of requesting) sexual intercourse with her would have been lawful for Worsham {[o]r at least not a sexual assault}. So the solicitation offense in section 110(a)(1)(A), which directly regulates speech, was subject to strict scrutiny under the First Amendment …. We held it was not narrowly tailored to protect the State's stated interest in protecting children from communications from older teens and adults soliciting sex. If the State wanted to do that, it was required to prohibit the sexual conduct itself, not speech soliciting conduct that remained lawful.
The solicitation charges against Kidd promised a rerun of Worsham, and she moved to dismiss them on many of the same grounds. But Kidd had done much more than speak to M.C.: He would testify at her bench trial that he could see Kidd's vagina when he was performing oral sex on her and having vaginal intercourse with her. He confirmed that she had wanted him to see "it" and had enjoyed doing so.
The State saw another workaround. The elements of the exposure offense in section 110(a)(2)(A) of the sexual-indecency statute could also encompass an eighteen-year-old's conduct with a fourteen-year-old:
A person commits sexual indecency with a child if [w]ith the purpose to arouse or gratify a sexual desire of himself or herself or a sexual desire of another person, the person purposely exposes his or her sex organs to another person who is less than fifteen (15) years of age.
The State filed an amended information charging Kidd with six counts under that provision, which it argued focused on conduct, not speech….
The circuit court … found Kidd guilty of one count of sexual indecency with a child under section 110(a)(2)(A), committed between November 2020 and April 2021. It acquitted her of the other counts, sentenced her to two years' probation, imposed a $1,000 fine and statutory fees, and ordered her to register as a sex offender.
The court rejected Kidd's argument that the exposure offense is unconstitutional under Worsham:
First, the exposure offense in section 110(a)(2)(A), which the State characterizes as a prohibition on "the act of exposing sex organs to a child in person, in the flesh" does not present the free-speech concerns that controlled in Worsham. Although the First Amendment's protections are not limited to the written or spoken word, the United States Supreme Court has rejected the view that a "limitless variety of conduct can be labeled 'speech' whenever the person engaging in the conduct intends thereby to express an idea[.]" Rather, conduct must be "sufficiently imbued with elements of communication to fall within the scope of the First and Fourteenth Amendments[.]"
As the State notes, the exposure provision in section 110(a)(2)(A) was originally codified in the indecent-exposure statute. We have interpreted the term "expose" in section 110 to mean "laying open to view." In Krol v. State, we affirmed a conviction where a Walmart employee noticed in surveillance footage that the defendant had walked up behind three children and exposed his penis as he stood behind them. No one had reported the incident; the children were never identified. It was not clear they saw anything. We held that section 110(a)(2)(A) did not require proof that they had "because the plain language of the statute does not contain any explicit requirement that the child observe the act."
We infer that the defendant in Krol acted to "arouse or gratify a sexual desire" peculiar to the transgressive act of exposing his sex organs near children, even if they were not aware he had done so. That wholly self-gratifying conduct might be closer to the typical application of section 110(a)(2)(A) than Kidd's conduct here. But our affirmance in Krol demonstrates that section 110(a)(2)(A) restricts nonexpressive conduct: it applies even if no one but the defendant knows, or is intended to know, about the exposure. "Being 'in a state of nudity' is not an inherently expressive condition."
Kidd's own exposures of sex organs, as M.C. described them at trial, were what might be called functional nudity, not expressive nudity. After the State elicited that M.C. could see Kidd's vagina the first two times they engaged in sexual conduct, he testified they had vaginal intercourse on another occasion. This examination followed:
PROSECUTING ATTORNEY: Could you see it?
MINOR CHILD: Yes.
PROSECUTING ATTORNEY: Did she want you to see it?
MINOR CHILD: Yes.
PROSECUTING ATTORNEY: Did she enjoy it?
MINOR CHILD: Yes….
PROSECUTING ATTORNEY: So, how could you tell that she wanted you to look at it?
MINOR CHILD: She wanted it.
PROSECUTING ATTORNEY: And when you say, "She wanted it," what do you mean?
MINOR CHILD: She wanted to have sex with me….In Worsham, the absence of a prohibition on sexual intercourse set up a constitutional right, not a statutory right: If doing X with a person is lawful, a restriction on speech soliciting the person to do X has to pass strict scrutiny. We reviewed for overbreadth because the defendant had a constitutional right to speak to his girlfriend, not a right—of any kind—to have sex with her….
In that posture, we're left with three statutes. Section 110(a)(2)(A) makes it a Class D felony for Kidd to expose her sex organs to M.C. The other statutes do not separately prohibit the sexual intercourse that followed. The statutes establish different offenses for acts that might—but might not—occur close in time between the same people. We are not persuaded the General Assembly meant to license everyone whose sexual contact is not sexual assault to engage in related conduct that is expressly prohibited by other statutes. Nor are we persuaded by Kidd's contention that her conviction under section 110(a)(2)(A) infringed upon her constitutional rights.
There might be merit in Kidd's argument that the exposure offense in section 110(a)(2)(A) creates a complicated, even surprising, interaction with statutes that might be mistakenly understood to establish a single "age of consent." But the State did not "create offenses" by construction or intendment by employing section 110(a)(2)(A) here. The General Assembly created the offense by enacting its terms.
My question (besides noting the absurdity of a state scheme that allows sex but criminalizes showing genitals, including during sex): Was there really enough here to prove, beyond a reasonable doubt (at least based on the quoted testimony), that Kidd exposed her vagina "[w]ith the purpose to arouse or gratify a sexual desire of himself or herself or a sexual desire of another person"?
M.C. testified that, when he said "she wanted it," that meant "she wanted to have sex." He didn't testify that Kidd had the purpose of satisfying the sexual desire through the exposure of her genitals; the exposure may indeed have been just functional in the sense of that it was convenient to having sex, which is what gratified sexual desire. (It's certainly possible that she also got turned on by showing her genitals, or wanted to get M.C. turned on that way, but I just don't see how that motivation was proved beyond a reasonable doubt.)
Or is the court's implicit view that, to "purposely expose[] … sex organs" with "the purpose to arouse or gratify a sexual desire," it's enough to expose them just as a step towards having sex, even when the sexual gratification would come entirely from the sex and not the exposure? If M.C. and Kidd had made clear that neither was trying to turn either on by watching, but were solely interested in doing, would the crime of indecent exposure to a 14-year-old (with whom Kidd was lawfully having sex) still have been committed?
Joseph Karl Luebke represents the state.
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Rule of law for the loss.
Joseph Karl Luebke [and the judges too] ought to be ashamed.
Uh, the raison d'être of the Republican side of the culture war is governmental restrictions upon other people's sex lives.
"It's ok if you do it in the dark."
Not even then. Because the court held that it's not necessary that anyone see it.
Which, to me, raises the obvious issue: It's essentially impossible to have sexual intercourse without exposing the genitals (I mean, I suppose if they are both covered by blankets up to their neck, that counts....but maybe not, because, again, it's not necessary that he see her, it's enough if she is exposed). At any rate, somewhere in the neighborhood of 99+% of sexual intercourse is going to involve exposure of genitals. Thus, 99+% of sex between an 18 year old and a 14 year old is criminal in nature though the statutes say otherwise. This is a huge injustice.
And registered as a sex offender? That's just evil to do to her for what, by all appearances, was consensual and (except for this needles on the head of pin BS) legal sex.
A pox on the prosecutor, the jury, and especially the boy's parents. The boy too. He shouldn't have participated in this travesty of justice.
But that cuts against Professor Volokh’s lack of intent argument. Exposure for purposes of sexual intercourse is exposure for purposes of sexual gratification.
Not at all; the exposure was incidental to the act that provided sexual gratification.
So if I fire a gun into a crowd and kill people, I can get out of a charge of possessing a gun for the purpose of committing murder by arguing that possessing the gun was merely incidental to firing it. After all, it was firing the gun that was the act that actually provided the killing. Possessing the gun was merely incidental to that act. Therefore, it was in no way for the purpose of killing.
Right? Argument is perfectly valid, I get off, the judge apologizes that the prosecuter had the temerity to prosecute such an obviously innocent person with such an obviously bulletproof defense. Right?
When you intend a goal (especially when you actually achieve it so your purpose is clear), and you do a preliminary act necessary (or even merely very helpful) to achieving the goal, the preliminary act is for the purpose of the goal, not merely incidental to it.
You’re still not getting it. The law is against exposing yourself for sexual gratification. Some trouble souls gain sexual gratification from exposing themselves. These kids did not expose themselves for sexual gratification; they had sexual intercourse for sexual gratification. The normal assumption is that they got undressed because it’s hard to have intercourse with your clothes on. The prosecution would have to prove that they also gained sexual gratification from merely exposing themselves.
So if it were a Madonna song, "Touched for the very first time" is ok, but the inherent erotic nature of "Exposed for the very first time" is illegal.
Gotta love lawyers.
You’re not getting it.
Perhaps a better example would be a crime where the essential element is crossing state lines. Exposing yourself for the purpise of sex to get sexual gratification is no different from crossing state lines for the purpose of sex to get sexual gratification - an actual federal crime when sex with a minor is involved.
Exactly as here, the sex itself isn’t illegal, its the antecedant act.
But it’s hust as obvious that the exposure was part of course of conduct undertaken for the ultimate purpose of sexual gratification as it is in federal sex-with-a-minor cases that crossing state lines is part of the course of conduct for the purpose of sexual gratification.
ReaderY,
That's part of the question. Volokh's and Craig's position, as I understand it, is that the intent element is not the mere intent to get undressed (or to cross a state line), but that the act of exposure (the act of crossing the state line) is the sexual gratifying act. It is not sufficient, on this view, that the act of exposure was necessary to get to the sexual gratification.
Under your view, as I understand it, as the law doesn't make such fine distinctions and it is enough that the exposure was part of a course of conduct designed to achieve sexual gratification.
I think the Volokh/Craig argument has appeal given that exposure of genitals is, except in very rare, contrived circumstances, necessary to have sex and an 18 year old is legally permitted to have sex. Thus, the exposure law must get at something different and the only way to reconcile the two is with the added, very specific exposure element.
Or, maybe, you're arguing that exposure of genitals is necessarily arousing and part of foreplay and, thus, exposure incidental to sex is always for the purpose of arousing one's partner. And that's pretty true too.
But all of this is why this prosecutor is an awful human being for pursuing these charges. The sex was legal. Tagging this woman as a registered sex offender on a technicality when the consensual sex was legal under the law is despicable.
.
Er, it might be a bit
harddifficult to secure a conviction if nobody saw it. It's not necessary that the child see it."Deep into that darkness peering, long I stood there, wondering, fearing, doubting, dreaming dreams no mortal ever dared to dream before."
Professor Volokh,
I don’t think it’s a viable argument. The whole course of conduct was intended to obtain sexual gratification. You can’t seriously argue the exposure wasn’t. Even a purely functional exposure, one done just to enable the physical act, is done with sexual gratification ultimately in mind and with the intention of obtaining it.
By way of analogy, suppose an oddity of law makes cocking a gun with intent to kill a crime, but not actually firing the trigger. If a person deliberately pulled the trigger and shot someone within a reasonable amount of time after cocking the gun, I don’t think it can seriously be argued that cocking the gun wasn’t also done with intent to kill.
And this is so even though if the shooter had just used a gun that didn’t require cocking, everything would have been legal, so from the shooter’s point of view the conviction appears to depend on an irrelevant detail that doesn’t seem inherently wrong in and of itself.
I’ve deliberately picked a hypothetical the opposite of the way you might see things, where the fact that firing the trigger is legal represents the weird and unexpected anamoly, and to everyone except the shooter it seems fully appropriate to find any possible way to convict for something that obviously ought to be a crime of some kind, even if the conviction is based on a legal anomaly. I suspect this may be the way the State of Arkansas sees this case.
But of course one ought to look at the intent issue here the same way regardless. If you thought the conduct wrong, I think you would find the intent element much more clearly present.
The idiocy is the inconsistency. Only a lawyer would ignore that.
The result sucks, but I think the court was right. The legislature wrote a set of laws that were not consistent with each other.
Legislatures get the law they wrote, not the law they intended to write.
The first two laws cited clearly were designed to legalize this sex. The law about showing was not clearly meant to apply here. Therefore, the accused should be found innocent because rule of lenity, and the prosecutor should be sanctioned for bringing a frivolous case.
This. Neither the defendant nor anyone else was on anything close to notice that the behavior described here was illegal. (The fact that the participants thought they were guilty of a different crime (but weren't) does not establish that they knew about this law.)
Whoever first said "ignorance of the law is no excuse" should be dug up and posthumously drawn and quartered. Ignorance of the law is an excuse even if courts don't want to admit it. If you don't like that result because it will let some lawbreakers escape punishment, simplify the laws and improve our education system until you can say with certainty that the defendant not only did it but knew that it was illegal.
Hear, hear. I've never understood how anyone can utter that phrase with a straight face, especially when police get away with qualified immunity using the even worse excuse that they didn't know some appeals court had declared it illegal to steal from people or shoot them or rape them.
Law enforcement is held to lower standards.
I think that “ignorance of the law is no excuse” made sense at some point; if someone goes on an ax murder spree I want them in jail, even if they honestly had no idea ax murder sprees were illegal.
I am sympathetic to the problem of convicting people of crimes that many/most people wouldn't realize were crimes. Parsing out which crimes are on which side of the line in a consistent manner is likely to be pretty hard, though.
No, that is ignorance of common sense, of the golden rule, of self-ownership, of many things. It is not ignorance of the law.
I think the attitude was born of people claiming innocence that way, and if it were accepted, it would turn into a Monty Python routine.
"I did it, but I didn't know it was illegal."
"Right, then. Off you go!"
Having said that, if lawyers need tricky, complicated arguments to wheedle a way to convict teens for sex, the lawyers should spend the time in jail, not them.
Right then, off you go. https://youtu.be/ucgU2DJlBiw
Thanks, needed a good laughs this morning.
Doesn’t really seem applicable here, though, where it appears the only ignorance involved is the belief that the conduct was more illegal than it actually was.
Well, I don't know if he first said it, but it's from a Thomas Jefferson letter:
"Capt. Thomas has probably engaged in this business, not knowing the law: but ignorance of the law is no excuse in any country. If it were, the laws would lose their effect, because it can be always pretended."
The thing is, ignorance of the law often is an excuse.
It has been used (unfortunately successfully) quite recently.
The thing is, ignorance of the law often is an excuse.
QI gots ta go.
Someone should come up with an app that would inform individuals in Arkansas (Sarah Huckabees’ domain) more/less than x years of age contemplating sexual activity of any sort with another individual more/less than x years of age whether they would or wouldn’t be putting themselves in legal jeopardy. All sorts of potential advertisers might support the development of such an aid to sex that was not only safe from a medical standpoint (prevent STDs), but also from a legal one, but also from a legal one. And even evangelicals might sponsor such an app to take on last try at discouraging moral terpitude.
I am surprised, yeah even shocked that MC was so willing to give the prosecutor the answers he wanted. Is 14 y.o. too young to expect a modicum of chivalry? The little pr*ck wasn’t at all grateful to his older paramour for the sexual favor(s) she granted him, even allowing her car to be used for these puposes?
(BTW, how did all this end? What, if any, discipline did the court impose? Did the vixen at a minimum loose her driving privileges? Did these young people go on to graduate high school? What was the governor’s take on all of it?)
This hairsplitting reminds me of the blue laws conversation from yesterday.
I don't think that's coincidence.
In the context of a state public indecency statute being applied to a commercial establishment featuring dancers in a state of undress, Justice Souter opined that, while nudity per se is not inherently expressive, "when nudity is combined with expressive activity, its stimulative and attractive value certainly can enhance the force of expression, and a dancer's acts in going from clothed to nude, as in a strip-tease, are integrated into the dance and its expressive function[,]" such that the plaintiffs' dancing was subject to a degree of First Amendment protection. Barnes v. Glen Theatre, Inc., 501 U.S. 560, 581 (1991) (Souter, J., concurring in judgment).
Justice Souter's opinion in Barnes, which resolved the question before the Supreme Court on the narrowest grounds, is binding precedent among the four opinions pursuant to the rule of Marks v. United States, 430 U.S. 188, 193 (1977). See, Triplett Grille, Inc. v. City of Akron, 40 F.3d 129, 134 (6th Cir. 1994). The Arkansas Court of Appeals cited Barnes, but referred only to Justice Scalia's (non-precedential) concurring opinion.
In the Arkansas matter, Ms. Kidd's exposing her genitalia to her companion was expressive conduct -- the message being "I am aroused by you and want to have sex with you." The Court should accordingly have analyzed application of the statute under the four part test of United States v. O'Brien, 391 U.S. 367 (1968).
This blog has some strange preoccupations.
In that sense, it's pretty reflective of the world at large.
I'm surprised the relevant statutes did not include an exemption for the benefit of clergy.
"...It would have been fourth-degree sexual assault if, at "twenty (20) years of age or older" she had "[e]ngage[d] in sexual intercourse or deviate sexual activity" or "sexual contact" with a person under sixteen. But Kidd was younger than twenty...."
So (to put myself in the position as the villain), if I am 19 and am having sex with my 14 yr, 10 mo-old boyfriend, I am fine...legally-speaking. right? But, exactly 365 days later, when I turn 20 (and my now-long-term boy/girlfriend is 15 years and 10 months old), our sexual activity is now suddenly criminal?
I think (from the rest of his OP), Eugene would say, "Yup, the law is what the law is. And this sort of logical inconsistency does not make it unconstitutional." But any time real life starts to read like a law school final exam question, I start to worry.
Are you just now learning for the first time that a person’s age, measured in years, has legal significance?
Sounds like a natural pairing, until Western Civilization got in the way.
The prosecutor and the judge should get tossed into woodchippers.
Freud would have called their behavior “reaction formation”.
As far as I'm concerned nonsence legal interactions like this (you can have sex but can't see each other naked) runs afoul of due process. One of the hallmarks of due process is proper notice that what you are doing is a crime. When they have what for all practical purposes is contradictory statutes, especially when there doesn't seem to be an logical reason for it, then proper notice isn't given and due process is violated.
That's an interesting point. (And one I'd agree with.) But...in this case, both the boy and the girl acknowledged that they thought the sex was illegal. So, ironically, that sort of takes away much of the strength of your/our argument. If I know that sex is LEGAL, than almost everyone in my shoes would assume that display of genitals is also legal. *But*, if the sex is (in my own mind) illegal, then I'm arguably on notice that genital display is also verboten.
It's an interesting case.
The glib tone of this opinion, when the result of this seeming abuse of prosecutorial discretion is an 18-year-old now having a felony record and being branded as sex offender, is really offputting. I’m tired of judges trying to seem witty; we see a fair amount of this with SCOTUS as well.
Indeed.
Things were quite different in the 70's, I met my first wife when I was 22 and she was 16, we were married 35 years and had 3 kids. But she didn't move in with me until after she turned 17. Nobody batted an eye back then.
Today, I'd get sentenced 35 years.
Sounds like your were sentenced to 35 years anyway.
+1.....lol
lol
There is an obvious and common analogy here. The Mann act makes transporting across state lines for the purpose of sexual gratification a federal crime. If this same couple had gone to a hotel in Missouri, it would have been a federal crime.
Why is this any different? To anybody outside the United States, it would seem just as crazy that the innocuous act of crossing a state line would suddenly make an otherwise legal act a crime. (And to many inside. The New Yorker had a recent article on Mann Act prosecutions asking why an act that’s perfectly moral to do in Los Angeles suddenly becomes immoral when done in New York.)
What makes this any different? The federal system has made this kind of thing part of our law for a long time.
Exposing oneself for the purpose of sex is exposing oneself for the purpose of sexual gratification, exactly as crossing a state line for the purpose of sex is crossing a state line for the purpose of sexual gratification.
More fundamentally, basic concepts of causality and intent don’t suddenly change based on whether you agree or disagree with the underlying law.
Exposing oneself for the purposes of sexual gratification should work the same way as crossing state lines for that purpose. If you cross state lines to facilitate the act that leads to sexual gratification, you are crossing state lines for the purpose of sexual gratification, even though the sex act would be legal if state lines hadn’t been crossed on the way to it, and even though crossing state lines does not itself produce sexual gratification. Federal law and numerous federal prosecutions and appeals and court opinions have made this very clear. I don’t see why this should be any different or treated any differently.
I have over the years pointed out that underage sex offences are generally essentially moral offenses, not crimes of violence, because ages of majority have varied widely across human society and were historically lower in our own society, as many states in the United States increased them only in the last few decades. I have objected to federal judges classifying them as crimes of violence for sentence enhancement purposes. What is perfectly normal in one society and is consensual and doesn’t physically harm should not lightly be considered violence by judicial fiat, without a legislature specifically saying so.
I’ve also pointed out that laws of various kinds, and morals laws in particular, often involve compromises that may appear anomalies from an outsider’s point of view, but this is just par for the course and within rational basis. It’s hard to compromise between opposing points of view. Any compromise will appear to make no sense to people fully committed to one side or the other.
So although the state has only a rational and not a compelling interest in enforcing morals laws, nonetheless it is entitled to enforce them, compromises and anomalies and all. Opponents are not entitled to twist ordinary concepts of intent and causation to avoid what they consider an “anomaly.”
And this is especially so when, as I suspect may have happened here, the “anomaly” is exactly what a group in the legislature who wanted to keep things illegal was able to achieve, perhaps by strategem and burying details in the fine print, in legislation that might have appeared on its face to completely decriminalize. A compromise is a compromise. They got their way by legal means. The law is the law. Prosecutors who think it should have been kept entirely criminal to begin with are fully entitled to use and enforce the “anomaly” their friends in the legislature gave them.
The main difference is that the Mann Act does not require that the transportation be done “ for the purpose of sexual gratification”, but does require that the target sexual activity be illegal.
The original Mann Act language was for “immoral purposes,” which was then subjected to judicial construction. The more specific language was added later. However, the underlying act still does not have to be illegal where minors are involved, only adults, and minor is defined with respect to a federal age of majority, which is 18.
So in this very case, if this couple had happened to have gone to a motel in a neighboring state, it would have been a federal crime, but if they had picked a similar motel room within Arkasas it wouldn’t be. And this is so even though there’s nothing inherently sexually gratifying, or anything that itself particularly facilitates sexual intercourse, in picking a similar motel room in one location as opposed to the other.
That is incorrect:
18 U.S.C. § 2243(a).
The couple here could not have been charged in your scenario (unless, of course, the sex act was itself illegal in the neighboring state).
Well, the simple and obvious answer to your question is ... because they are different sovereigns.
It would be similar to saying, "Look, imagine that this sexual conduct was legal in one country, but illegal in another. WHAT ABOUT THAT, HUH?"
Before getting into any other issues, your analogy fails because the federal government is a different sovereign than the state.
Yes, the two distinctions, sex with exposure illegal vs. sex without exposure legal and sex with crossing state lines illegal vs. sex without crossing state lines legal, are indeed different. Yes, the reasons for the two distinctions are different. Yes, one has the reason “legislative compromise,” the other “different sovereigns.” But so what? Why should the fact that the distinctions in the two cases exist for different reasons change the underlying principles of causality and intent? Why should the question of whether the conduct each distinction focuses on was or wasn’t done for the stated forbidden purpose be answered differently in the two cases?
....because, once again, different sovereigns. Is this too obvious for you? Not being snarky, genuinely curious.
Here- imagine a state supreme court is trying to decide if double jeopardy applies. Now, you come in and try to analogize it to blah blah blah FEDERAL CRIME. Except ... it doesn't matter, because (wait for it) different sovereigns.
Or imagine that the exact same conduct (possession of marijuana) is legal under state law, yet illegal under federal law. Just think, there might a situation where something is completely legal to one sovereign, and illegal to another!
Are you getting it yet? Invocation of the Mann Act doesn't matter. At all. Because (wait for it) different sovereigns. Instead, the issue here is the criminalization of an act necessary to an act that the state legislature expressly rules lawful. (Personally, I think that there are other issues with this decision, but that suffices.)
That's the problem. Bringing in the Mann Act is unhelpful because it has no application.
I think the judges were correct under the law as written. It’s not their fault that the law is a mess. But shame on the prosecutors for pursuing this based on legal sex between two teenagers! This is a circumstance where you use prosecutorial discretion. Just because you can come up with a minor technicality doesn't mean you have to prosecute it and slap her with a felony conviction and registration as a sex offender. I'm guessing the boy's parents were either extremely well-connected or very big donors.
In some areas it is illegal to watch an X rated movie if you are under 21. In those same areas it is LEGAL to star in an X rated movie at the age of 18. Pretty much the same logic.
My Sister use to do computer forensics for a County District Attorney. A married couple had taken their computer to a shop to have it upgraded. While working on the computer the Tech found a porno clip of two people having sex. He turned it into the Police because the people in it looked underage. The investigation found out that it was the married couple having sex when they were both 16. There was an attempt to charge the man with child pornography, but, the Judge threw it out. They could have charged both of them, but, then there would be no victim and that didn't fit the DA's plan for re-election, so it was dropped. I have to wonder if somebody in this case was up for re-election?
In most topless or nude clubs, you have to be 21 (or 23) to enter. But only 18 to be a dancer.
.
Where?
I would wonder if the minor boy's parents were influential in the community.
But maybe I'm cynical.
"I know no method to secure the repeal of bad or obnoxious laws so effective as their stringent execution."
Ulysses S. Grant, First Inaugural Address, March 4, 1869.