The Volokh Conspiracy
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How Originalist Is the Supreme Court?
More than you might think—and it’s getting better all the time.
At last month's Federalist Society National Lawyers' Convention, which had the theme of "Originalism on the Ground," I got to speak on a panel addressing the question "How Originalist Is the Supreme Court?" My answer was an optimistic one: "more than you might think—and it's getting better all the time." As I argued,
Despite occasional denunciations from its perceived critics on the bench, originalism remains still the coin of the realm of legal argument. As Judge Posner (no friend to originalism) wrote decades ago, originalism was and is the orthodox mode of legal justification.
And despite occasional betrayals from the perceived friends of originalism on the bench, they too are doing better than one might think. But to see this we need to recognize three distinctions:
- The distinction between a rule, and its applications;
- The difference between pursuing the original law, and merely the original meaning;
- And the difference between originalism as a standard or as a method of interpretation—as a destination, or as a route.
When we draw these distinctions, we can see that originalism is in fact central to the practice of American courts, including the Supreme Court—and that they're no worse at it than at anything else they do.
Like the person who's a vegetarian not because they love animals, but because they hate plants, I take this view not because I'm an optimist about originalism, but because I'm a pessimist about everything else done by our courts.
For the rest (and a video of the event), see below!
So, let's start with the perceived critics of originalism.
I'm thinking here especially of the joint dissent in Dobbs, which strenuously criticized both the majority's history and its use of history to give content to current rights. Consider its surprise at the majority's focus on the status of abortion in the 1800s, even looking "back as far as the 13th (the 13th!) century."
But even the Dobbs dissenters gave originalism its due. In a crucial passage, they argued:
The Framers (both in 1788 and 1868) understood that the world changes. So they did not define rights by reference to the specific practices existing at the time. Instead, the Framers defined rights in general terms, to permit future evolution in their scope and meaning.
Note the claim being made here: not that we define rights in general terms, but that they did. That is a historical claim! If, as a historical matter, the due process clause wasn't defined to permit future evolution in its scope and meaning, then the argument of the Dobbs dissent is wrong. In other words, the dissenting Justices made themselves vulnerable to history, to refutation on historical grounds.
And this, in fact, is absolutely standard for arguments on both sides of the judicial "aisle." Consider the claim in Obergefell v. Hodges that
[t]he generations that wrote and ratified the Bill of Rights and the Fourteenth Amendment … entrusted to future generations a charter protecting the right of all persons to enjoy liberty as we learn its meaning."
The claim there is not about how we understand the Fourteenth Amendment, but how much they entrusted to future generations. This, again, is a historical question.
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Now, I recognize that all of these uses of history claim—whether accurately or not—that the Founders provided for certain kinds of change. But this is hardly surprising, when we distinguish between a rule and its applications.
As Chris Green has pointed out, beyond the first Congress, the original Constitution didn't spell out how many representatives each state would get; instead it made that number depend on an actual enumeration. And it didn't fix the size of the Senate: it said to take the actual number of states, and multiply by two. In other words, it laid down fixed rules, which were to be applied consistently to modern facts, unless the rules themselves were amended.
As Caleb Nelson has argued, the Founders recognized the danger of the dead-hand problem: but they thought of it as a drafting problem, not an interpretive problem. To use Hamilton's example, they decided not to fix in amber which goods the federal and state governments might tax, and instead to leave that up to future congresses and state legislatures to decide. This wasn't a license for judges to depart from the Constitution's fixed rules, but a decision to fix particular rules that allowed for certain kinds of lawful change.
And even today, it's common ground, among virtually all judges of virtually all stripes, that you can't go into court and say, "Yes, your Honor, our position is against the original Constitution, but we had a constitutional moment in 1937 that changed everything." You can't admit that the rule in the original Constitution is actually against you—that the rules laid down back then don't allow the outcome you want, even as applied to modern facts.
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Now, sometimes, of course, the Supreme Court doesn't base its decision on the rules as laid down back then in the text. Sometimes it bases its decision on rules found outside the text—like precedent, or waiver, or res judicata.
But that doesn't mean they're being bad originalists. There's a difference between the original meaning of the text and what originalists really ought to be after, which is the original law.
After all, what makes the text of the U.S. Constitution relevant, and not the text of Articles of Confederation or the Virginia Plan or the Report of the Committee of Detail, is that it was actually part of the law back then, and remains part of the law today.
But there are a lot of things that were also part of the law back then, which don't outrank or override the Constitution, but which coexist with and help implement other legal rules. (Think of the doctrines of the common law, the principles of equity, or the rules of admiralty and maritime law.)
And these doctrines and rules and principles can matter in constitutional litigation. So, if you have a knock-down originalist argument about the original meaning of the First Amendment, that doesn't matter, in our legal system, if you forgot to raise that argument in the district court. And that's not because the courts are being nonoriginalist, or are breaking the law. It's because they're obeying the law, and the law contains a common-law rule of waiver, which requires you to present your arguments at the earliest opportunity.
Likewise, you can have an excellent originalist argument, but lose because of res judicata, or because of issue preclusion, based on having brought and lost a prior case.
And you can also lose because of another common-law doctrine, stare decisis, instructs courts to leave a past decision in place. To borrow again from Caleb Nelson, the original rule of stare decisis seems to have been an epistemic rule—that if the evidence is 51-49, but a prior court made up of smart people went the other way, you should let it go, even if you think they were probably wrong.
But if they're demonstrably wrong, if you can explain the nature of their error and show what happened, then you do have to apply the correct rule and not what past judges have said about it—unless, according to that common-law rule, certain specific considerations of reliance apply.
If all this is right, then it's much easier to understand what's going on in the majority opinion in a case like Dobbs—which doesn't toss substantive due process in the dustbin of history, doesn't revive the Privileges or Immunities Clause, but simply keeps on going with the Glucksberg history-and-tradition test, reversing certain precedents (like Roe and Casey) in the name of obeying another. That's because, in Dobbs, both sides acknowledged the authority of Glucksberg, and neither side asked the Court to reconsider it. So it's hardly surprising, given the party-presentation rule that requires arguments to be presented on appeal, that the Supreme Court might have dutifully gone ahead and Glucksberged.
That doesn't mean that precedent overrides constitutional rules. It just means that, when a court sits down to decide an actual case, there are lots of legal rules in play, all of which can be consistent with the original law, and any lawful changes thereunder, even if they might direct a court away from discussing the original meaning of the text.
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But, of course, a court can still get the original law wrong. One might say that, more often than not, courts that seek out the original law do get it wrong. They are adhering, not to the Constitution of the United States, but to a much higher law, Sturgeon's Law, which is that "90% of everything is crap."
Judges, like everyone else, find it easy to slip into motivated reasoning—to assume that what the answer is and what the answer really ought to be are the same. They do this with the Constitution; they do this with statutes; they do this with treaties; they do this with the common law.
And, if you've read any law reviews lately, I'll let you in on a secret: academics do this too. But our errors are easy to ignore, because our errors drop stillborn from the press and get buried in the law reviews, while judges' errors decide actual cases. And especially when you have lots of precedents on the books, and lots of discretion on which cases you take or which arguments you consider, it's easy to avoid confronting your errors.
So how do we deal with this? The answer, I think, is to recognize that originalism is a standard, not a method—a destination, not a route.
As Judge Oldham mentioned this morning, there's no guidebook that says "Start with Source A, then move to B, and so on." And even if there were, it wouldn't necessarily avoid errors.
If James Madison quotes could ward off constitutional error, like garlic wards off vampires, then we'd want to see opinions littered with Madison quotes everywhere. But if citing the right sources doesn't guarantee that you're using them well—if the devil can cite Publius for his purpose—then we can't tell from the number of Madison quotes who the good originalists are.
Yet if we think about originalism as the destination, and not the route, we can see the glass as half full: we can understand and forgive the human frailty in reaching incorrect conclusions, but still pursue the goal of correct original analysis. We know that juries sometimes make mistakes, but we don't think that's an excuse to throw up their hands and say, "I dunno, he looks guilty to me." Likewise, we know that judges make mistakes, but that doesn't give us a reason for them to do anything other than grit their teeth and say, maybe next year.
Thank you.
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Students for Fair Admissions is not consistent with original public meaning. (If the Court had decided it as a "discrimination against Asians" or an overbreadth case, it could have been, but Justice Jackson is absolutely correct about the original public meaning of actions to assist Black Americans.)
The Court does originalism when it likes the result or the stakes are not high, and ignores originalism otherwise.
The 14th Amendment has an Equal Protection clause which binds the states but says nothing about the federal government. We can speculate about the reasons (“we won the Civil War, we can do what we want, and the states must also do what we want”), but the fact is textually clear.
So all the “precedents” about federal discrimination by race are beside the point as far as the obligations of the *states* are concerned.
I’m not speaking as an originalist because I think, even when carried out fairly, originalism is just a form of legal positivism. But at least it professes a commitment to the amendment process – a process requiring that constitutional change get the approval of the states, not just federal judges.
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No that's (as Balkin terms it) original expected application.
How many different originalisms are there? Original intent, original expected application, original public meaning, original meaning according to these quotes I cherry picked from among the millions of Americans alive at the time...
Is an originalist Court bound by the decisions of a previous originalist Court? Or is every generation free to make its own decisions as to original meaning?
I've asked this question several times and haven't gotten an answer.
Not if you’re playing by the stated originalist rules. It’s the only legitimate interpretive method. Therefore any later majority is free to ignore the first originalist precedent so long as they claim their sources reveal the true original public meaning. And because there are no standards on sources and methods and lots of possible materials to use when interpreting the words in the most hotly contested document in American history, any opinion can arguably claim to be more originalist than the last.
I think the reason no originalist has answered my question is because the answer is just what you said.
This somehow reminds me of a federal judicial nominee who told a ratings board that he could see only one legitimate reason to disregard stare decisis.
Scripture directly on point.
That’s odd because they shouldn’t have a problem with acknowledging this is what would and should happen as an abstract or theoretical matter. You’d think they would only hesitate on that if there was actually a five justice majority ready to start relying on historian’s briefs more than the ones pumped out by the legal academy.
I’m an originalist, I’ll answer your question. No, an originalist decision is not the word of God and thus can be properly overruled by another originalist decision that has legitimately unearthed new and contrary information on the text’s original public meaning. I’ve never met any real originalist who would claim otherwise.
original public meaning
As opposed to original intent. Or original drafter's meaning.
Splitters all, I'm sure.
Area Man,
Thanks for your response. I’m not aware of any originalist who has addressed this question (except you).
Though it shouldn’t be a “decision” which unearths the new information. It should be the researchers and historians which the judges would be relying on.
It will be interesting to see what changes in the law will result when new information is dug up. Whether in Biblical studies or American history, it seems that unknown documents are always being discovered.
Area Man, when you say, “new and contrary information,” do you mean to say, “newly discovered in the historical record.” Or do you mean to say, “previously unnoticed by legal precedent, despite currency among historical experts?”
Also, why should any judge’s historical interpretation create a legal precedent if the judge manifestly used no historical analytical tools, and credited no historical experts? Do you suppose a belief that ability to read text written in English qualifies a judge to deliver contextual insight to match not only history relevant to one particular case, but also to all other historical contexts which might arise?
In general, originalism as practiced does seem to take that as a tacit premise. Which is remarkable, because professional historians stake out far narrower areas of speciality—defined by particular places during particular eras—in which, following long years of specialized study, they claim limited expertise. Historical scholars generally do not assert authority beyond their areas of specialty.
By contrast, pro-gun commentary from would-be originalist writers cites alleged historical evidence from almost everywhere and everywhen—and gets cited in support of Supreme Court rulings. Those pro-gun advocates apparently lack historical training, but do not hesitate to present as experts. They pronounce without apparent limit across expansive time periods. No geographic scope seems too broad. They claim an expertise so gigantic that it would take the most erudite professional historian five careers to master, but legal originalists take it all seriously. Why do you suppose that happens?
In theory it should not, but in reality originalism is still interpretive, since we rarely, if ever, have clear documentation of original meaning. So there is always the possibility of the interpretation changing or new information being discovered.
An understatement.
I’ve asked this question several times and haven’t gotten an answer.
Another question I would like to see an originalist answer is whether the original meaning of the Constitution was that originalism is the correct method to interpret the Constitution. Or put in a less convoluted way, what evidence do we have that the Founders expected their understanding of the meaning of the Constitution to rule long after they were all dead? What if some Founders thought that the application of the Constitution in practice should only change through amendment, while others thought that future generations would be free to interpret the text differently that previous generations?
I think these are the first questions any originalist needs to address before they do anything else.
Good question! I haven’t seen an answer to that one either.
The framers might have had a definite meaning in mind when they used the term (for example) “cruel and unusual”, but did they really expect future generations, 200 and 300 years into the future, to attach the same meaning to it that they did? Go back 300 years from 1787 and you have people in England burned at the stake and nobody in 1487 though that was “cruel and unusual”. It happened quite a lot during the Reformation era and both sides did it, Protestants under Henry VIII and Edward VI and Catholics under Mary I.
You'd have to look at the writings of the Founders themselves, and think about some of the things they said/did while in power. For example, I's put Jefferson very much in the ...while others thought that future generations would be free to interpret the text differently that previous generations camp. I think all of them to varying degrees felt their descendants would be dealing with novel issues and would be flexible where the Constitution allowed.
I think all of them to varying degrees felt their descendants would be dealing with novel issues and would be flexible where the Constitution allowed.
I think most of the founders, perhaps all of them without exception, felt that their descendants were not constrained at all by the Constitution. Because they understood the Constitution to constrain government, not the jointly sovereign People.
In other words,
Law is fluid with variable viscosities and dependent on: the time of day, current barometric pressure, amount of sunspots, whether shadows are cast, position of the drying tea leaves, moods, and the luck of the draw on who will decide.
Travel is not, nor has it ever been, a straight and unencumbered path between start and finish. Passage is always buffeted by forces beyond control. Your being who you are depended on firstly which of many sperm made it to the egg first. And, that sperm depended on the time of day, the day of conception, and the struggle between the many thousands of other sperm on hand.
Uniqueness is who each is. Decisions in court must never be so unique, but must be in accordance to a solid framework which can change over time in accordance to established procedures allowing for such changes to be made. However much one wants must be tempered by rules established, for transitions made quickly defeat stability. Without stability, there is no order, and thus no society with government.
Responsibility is an art for controlling the demands of wants and needs - desires and absolutes. Responsibility is the required requisite enabling us to be Human forming such as to be here today and tomorrow.
Using originalist arguments among other arguments does not mean the Court is originalist.
I also so an increasing gulf between originalism the political project of the 80s and 90s, which says the Constitution is frozen in amber and only rights from the 1700s count (even for 14A analysis) versus actual originalism researchers who as noted above find the Constitution *as originally intended* is indeed subject to evolution and change.
The first group are common here, and even have a few on the Court. They are known for attacking every other method of interpretation as cover for policy preferences. (Coincidentally their originalist views align with their own policy preferences).
The second group is still one I disagree with, but seems more sanguine about the good faith of those they disagree with. Big nonlegal donors don't seem that into this boring stuff though.
" the Constitution *as originally intended* is indeed subject to evolution and change."
Via Article V, obviously.
Amending the Constitution was deliberately made very difficult. That seems correct for a lot of things in government, because a momentary majority could abuse amending the Constitution to increase and protect its power otherwise. That has happened a lot in pseudo-democratic countries. But it also leaves minorities vulnerable to abuse as it takes such a large super-majority to change the Constitution to protect them.
Looking at U.S. history, we see how injustice so often had to reach some egregious levels or some critical mass of demand for change before the Constitution was amended, and infamously, a civil war was needed to correct one of the biggest injustices of all.
"Amending the Constitution was deliberately made very difficult."
It was deliberately made more difficult than legislation, but primarily, it was made subject to approval by different stakeholders.
There's a lot of exaggeration about how "hard" amending the Constitution really is. Procedurally, it's not really that hard. You can see many instances in which amendments were proposed and ratified in the space of just a few years. The 21st amendment, in 1933? Originated and ratified the same year. The 22nd took almost 4 years, but the 23rd was ratified in under a year. The 24th and 25th? Less than two years. The 26th? Less than half a year!
The 27th is a bit of an outlier there. 😉
Then the ERA was proposed by Congress in '72, and the states rejected it, though somewhat narrowly. The DC voting rights amendment was proposed by Congress in '78, and the states rejected it with a vengeance; Only 16 states ratified!
The Constitution, and Article V, have not changed since we were able to routinely and swiftly ratify amendments. What has?
I'd argue that the constitutional preferences of federal politicians are no longer representative of the general public; They no longer want amendments the people would ratify, they only want amendments the people would reject. So Congress gave up on originating new amendments 45 years ago, knowing that nothing THEY wanted had any chance, and not wanting anything that did have a chance.
Article V isn't broken, Congress is.
Hold a constitutional convention, and the dam will burst. Probably the first amendment out the gate should be taking Congress out of the loop entirely in determining if a constitutional convention will be held.
No, as I have told you many times, those of legal training in the founding era assumed common law reliance on precedent was a baseline part of legal practice.
Will Baude has established this quite well, whether you like it or not,
We have common law, but we don't have a common law constitution. We have a written constitution which specifically requires state ratification for changes.
They didn't do that to empower the federal government to change the thing unilaterally.
We had common law everything (including Britain's constitution). There is no sign the expectation or intent was different for the Constitution.
Rather the opposite in fact, at least as to the contemporaneous expectations of the American legal community. Who were the target audience for the Constitution.
You don't get your own facts just because you want to use the old and busted originalism of the 1990s. That was an unsupported political project to give cover to the Supreme Court passing a bunch of unpopular stuff.
It later turned into a way to attack everyone who didn't agree with the right's political project as bad faith judicial policymakers. Still no actual historical scholarship, just telepathy and spite.
Now actual legal historians and academics are in the mix, and those eggheads with their facts and sources are finding reality isn't as simple as the political push made it out. Shocking.
And Brett is keeping with the smooth and simple version of reality. Shocking.
Enjoy your conservative originalism relevance while you can, clingers.
When the Court improves, toward resembling the modern American mainstream rather than a bunch of cranky old, intolerant, religious culture war casualties, memories of this "peak originalism" period can provide solace to Federalist Society members as they await replacement, watching their stale, ugly political preferences continue to lose influence.
To establish that originalism is in any sense important, one has to show where some decisive number of justices chose against ideology and in favor of constitutional originalist interpretation in deciding a case.
There are no such cases. Originalism is used in the reverse direction. Pick the result using ideology. Use originalism to have some fig leaf plus an imaginary thread of control of the future.
To establish that originalism is in any sense important, one has to show where some decisive number of justices chose against ideology and in favor of constitutional originalist interpretation in deciding a case.
I would say that all methods of judicial interpretation, whether of statutes or the constitution, are only important if there is some way to determine whether judges are applying them neutrally or as cover for their own political preferences. Seeing whether a faithful application of their preferred method leads to conclusions in opposition to their decisions in some cases might be evidence that it is just cover, but no one is perfectly consistent, so it would take an accumulation of such cases to establish that.
Really, I think that the only way to separate judicial rulings from political ideology is only choose judges that don't have strong political leanings. Barring that, confirmation processes should focus on evaluating a potential judge's demonstrated ability to separate their political views from the specific cases they would hear. Instead, Presidents and Senators all simply have too much incentive to try and get judges that match their political views and oppose those that don't. No one has an incentive to look for judges that are likely to be objective.
The current hierarchy, all nine:
1. ideology
2. personal preference
3. precedence
4. what the constitution, or the law, actually says.
If it's not decided by 1, it moves down to 2, and so on.
No disagreement from me on that.
Indeed, this is not a problem limited to originalism. Living constitutionalists also face it: How often have you seen a living constitutionalist say that the Constitution has evolved in a direction they don't like?
Which Originalism are we talking about?
Actual Originalism
Framework Originalism
Intrinsicist Originalism
Instrumental Originalism
Liquidated Originalism
Original Intent
Original Meaning
Original Methods Originalism
Original Public Meaning
Semantic Originalism
Structuralism
Textualism
"Halfway Originalism"
If the facts are against you, argue the law. If the law is against you, argue the facts. If the law and the facts are against you, claim originalism.
Note the claim being made here: not that we define rights in general terms, but that they did. That is a historical claim!
This looks pretty circular as an argument that talking about evolving meanings is originalist. By that logic any argument that says anything about the Constitution is originalist.
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Disaffected right-wingers -- the kind of obsolete losers who can't stand modern America just can't abide all of this damned progress -- are among my favorite culture war casualties.
Carry on, clingers. Better Americans will continue to let you know how far and how long, of course.
Take another look at the text.
Not to mention the stuff the feds felt free to do when they weren't constrained by equal protection.
Cruel is a matter for the judicial conscience, unusual - I believe - refers to the common law. So the judicial conscience may deem hanging murderers cruel, the common law is all for it. It's when new punishments are devised, purporting to improve on the common law, that judges can let their nonoriginalist first principles shine forth.
Scalia very explicitly said that "cruel and unusual" is determined on the basis of what was cruel and unusual at the time of the BoR's passage. Utterly unsurprisingly, he did not hold to the same approach wrt the meaning of "arms".
And that seems passing strange, doesn’t it?
Yes but is nonetheless right because the same words have different connotations over time. There's a wonderful short story by JL Borges called Pierre Menard, author of the Quixote which explores this amongst other things.
"And that seems passing strange, doesn’t it?"
No. That is how we change the meaning of a Constitution.
Slavery was legal then we made it illegal by changing the Constitution. An non-apportioned income tax needed an amendment.
What is "passing strange" is letting some un-elected judges just change the meanings as they like it..
Homer didn’t think himself bound by his rule, as I recall (based on the episodes back when the Simpsons was actually good).
When did I say the text answers *every* question?
"same approach wrt the meaning of “arms”
A musket and a modern rifle kill in the same way. Use of an explosive charge to send a projectile into a body. Differences are just superficial.
I don't see the strangeness.
For the 8th, consider rape. Rape today isn't really any different than rape in the 1700s. If you are originalist at all, if it was OK to hang rapists in the 1700s it ought to be OK until the 8th is amended to preclude it. One can quibble about the electric chair or capital punishment for some new crime, but hanging rapists today isn't any different from hanging them in 17XX.
For the 2nd, I take it your argument is that the drafters intended to protect arms that were equal to military arms in 17XX, but to forever fix that level of technology. If the Constitution had been drafted in the matchlock era, then you could prevent anyone but the military from having flintlocks, for example. But they didn't say that explicitly, and given how they seemed to envision the militia being used, it seems pretty unlikely they intended to freeze things in that way, any more than they intended to fix printing press technology at the hand crank level for 1st amendment purposes.
Well, "unusual" sounds like a term of art, but "cruel" is something which needs to solved on first principles.
First see if it's unusual. If it's not unusual it's not against the 8A so cruelty is irrelevant.
But if it's unusual, which I think means going beyond the common law (e. g., replacing hanging with electrocution), then the judge shouldn't be asking how the guys in the powdery wigs would define cruelty, but what cruelty actually *is.* That doesn't mean simply making something up, but seeing how wise people have analyzed it and see if their analysis makes sense and how that all applies to (say) electrocution.
Yes, it does say that no state shall deny equal protection of the laws, but has any court ever held that the federal government is not bound by that?
The Supreme Court "incorporated" the EP clause so as to bind the feds, by the route of the Due Process Clause of the 5th Amendment.
Was the Supreme Court correct? They didn't exactly go into a lot of doctrinal detail, just the argument from incredulity - "OMG it's unthinkable the it's not this way!"
But they didn’t say that explicitly, and given how they seemed to envision the militia being used, it seems pretty unlikely they intended to freeze things in that way, any more than they intended to fix printing press technology at the hand crank level for 1st amendment purposes.
But the Court has not (yet) said that the 2nd Amendment protects the right to own weapons equivalent to those in military use. We still have laws restricting the use of fully automatic weapons and explosive devices designed to be carried by basic infantry, including the National Guard, SWAT teams, or whatever else would be "well regulated militia" today. They still seem to be looking to politics to see what will be accepted by enough Americans to keep their vision of the 2nd Amendment viable as well as their own preferences rather than applying actual originalism.
Was the Supreme Court correct? They didn’t exactly go into a lot of doctrinal detail, just the argument from incredulity – “OMG it’s unthinkable the it’s not this way!”
To be honest, if I took the time to review many of the controversial cases of my lifetime, there would probably be several that could have benefited from the Justices saying that rather than what they did write. We too often pretend that the drafters of the Constitution and later amendments (especially the 14th) had thought through every conceivable scenario before finalizing what they sent to the states. Instead, we see things that make us facepalm and wonder how they could have missed something so obvious. And then the justices and academics go in circles debating doctrines and looking at text with microscopes as if hoping to find hidden messages when a solution should be simple.
The unreformed common law allowed many cruel punishments, many of which were gradually abolished by legislation.
As for innovative punishments, they have to be examined for cruelty, which isn't based on any kind of originalism, nor is it based on something being OK today and cruel the next day. The courts should strive for a constant, universal meaning of "cruel" when evaluating innovative punishments (like, say, electrocution, or life sentences for drugs, etc.).
Abolished in 1790 without the courts coming up with new definitions of "unusual." (Her body was burned after she was executed, according to the link)
In short, a division of labor:
-the legislatures get rid of cruel common-law punishments.
-the courts strike down innovative-and-cruel punishments.
The legislatures held up their end of the deal by getting rid of the old common-law horrors. The courts, however, have not been so zealous about striking down the “updated” cruel punishments.
So if anyone's fallen down on their 8th Amendment job, it's the judges not the legislators.
"But the Court has not (yet) said that the 2nd Amendment protects the right to own weapons equivalent to those in military use."
Actually, they said that back in the Miller case. One of my beefs with Scalia was that he seriously misrepresented Miller in the Heller case.
The justices came up through legal academia at a time when the law schools were REALLY hostile to gun ownership, and committed to pretending it wasn't really a constitutional right. It's something of a triumph of reason over indoctrination that they managed to shed at least some of that.
I think they might continue down this road, but they're taking small steps and watching for a backlash, that's for sure.
Well, for one thing, because you can factually disprove "unusual" by pointing to a history of imposing the penalty in question. "Cruel" is more of an opinion.
“unusual” sounds like a term of art,
Why? I take it to mean, simply, uncommon, rare, etc. If, for example, 49 states abolished the death penalty it would be unconstitutional for the 50th - Texas, probably - to keep it.
Yes, deciding what is "unusual" is subjective, but so are lots of other things.
But you can't force that evolution, as a judge, by insisting that some practice that's routine is actually "unusual" just because you don't like it. It's up to the legislature to decide to make a usual practice "unusual". Not the courts.
My understanding is that this particular amendment was actually pointed at judges, not the legislature: To prevent them from getting viciously creative with penalties.
You may not have typed it, but we all know you intended it.
😉
Miller also tied the right to bear arms to the militia as justification for why weapons used by the military were relevant. By disregarding the militia reference in the 2nd Amendment as a prefatory clause with no utility, Scalia misrepresented both aspects of Miller, it seems.
You don't seem to be disputing my point, which was that the current Court is not about to declare a 2nd Amend. right to own fully automatic weapons or many other things currently restricted or banned that a typical infantry soldier would use. They have picked what suits their views from the early history of the Republic and ignored the way that firearms were legally regulated for well over 100 years before Heller. All of that is in order to turn the 2nd Amendment entirely into an individual right based on personal self-defense, and the role of the militia in the 2nd Amendment is completely irrelevant now.