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Can Copying Data Be a Fourth Amendment Seizure If Accessing It Is Not a Search?
An important new case on reverse keyword search warrants raises a Fourth Amendment puzzle.
Yesterday, the Supreme Court of Colorado handed down the first state supreme court case on the law of reverse keyword searches for Google terms: People v. Seymour. Here's the issue: If the government has reason to think that someone entered in a particular Google search related to a crime, can it get a warrant to compel Google to hand over IP addresses or account that entered that search? If so, how broad can the search be? And is a warrant needed at all?
Seymour involves an arson at a particular address. Having no leads about who set the arson, investigators figured that whoever did the crime probably googled the address of the arson in the weeks beforehand. (The idea being, I assume, that between getting directions and getting Google images pictures of what it and the surrounding area looks like, it's a natural way to do recon of the place as part of the plan to commit the arson.). Investigators obtained a warrant covering the 15 days leading up to the arson, and Google responded that 8 IP addresses had googled that address. Five of the eight addresses were local, and investigators ruled out two of them. They then obtained another warrant to get records of the other three. One of the three was the defendant, Seymour.
Among the questions raised: Did Seymour have Fourth Amendment rights in Google's records of his search terms? Someone at his computer, presumably him, had googled the address; Google had the search term that was sent to it. Did informing the government that the term had been searched from his IP address violate his Fourth Amendment rights?
The Colorado Supreme Court answered that question in a very novel way. First, it held that although it was likely not a Fourth Amendment "search" to collect that information — the user is sending the data to Google, after all, so Google receiving and storing it is covered by the third-party doctrine — it is a search under the broader Colorado Constitution. I don't have any particular view of the Colorado Constitution, so that part of the opinion is isn't all that important.
But then the court did something I have not seen before: It ruled that copying the data held by Google "seized" it under the Fourth Amendment even though accessing it was not a search. The court did this in two steps. First, it ruled that a Google user has a possessory interest in search terms held by Google sufficient to receive Fourth Amendment seizure protection:
Under both the Fourth Amendment and the Colorado Constitution, a seizure occurs when the government meaningfully interferes with an individual's possessory interests in property. Hoffman v. People, 780 P.2d 471, 473 (Colo. 1989); accord Jacobsen, 466 U.S. at 113. And several courts have recognized, albeit in different contexts, that individuals can have possessory interests in intangible or digital property. E.g., Ruckelshaus v. Monsanto Co., 467 U.S. 986, 1003 (1984) (holding that, at least for the purposes of the Takings Clause, individuals have property rights in intangible property, such as trade secrets); Integrated Direct Mktg., LLC v. May, 495 S.W.3d 73, 76 (Ark. 2016) (holding that electronic data can be converted if a person impedes on the property rights of the owner). Indeed, Google's licensing agreement makes clear that it does not own its users' content. Instead, users own their Google content, which, according to testimony from a Google policy specialist, includes their search histories.
It next ruled that copying the data was a "seizure" of it:
"One of the main rights attaching to property is the right to exclude others, and one who owns or lawfully possesses or controls property will in all likelihood have a legitimate expectation of privacy by virtue of this right to exclude." Rakas, 439 U.S. at 143 n.12 (citation omitted). So, while law enforcement can copy digital data without affecting the owner's access to that data, it is the act of copying that meaningfully interferes with the owner's possessory interest because it infringes on one's rights to exclude and to control the dissemination and use of that digital data. See Randolph S. Sergent, A Fourth Amendment Model for Computer Networks and Data Privacy, 81 Va. L. Rev. 1181, 1186 (1995); Orin S. Kerr, Fourth Amendment Seizures of Computer Data, 119 Yale L.J. 700, 710–14 (2010) (discussing that a seizure of digital property occurs when the government copies the data because it is the copying of the digital property rather than control of the physical hardware that preserves it for future evidentiary use and therefore meaningfully interferes with the possessory interest of exclusive control)
I don't have a problem with the second part of that, as you might guess: I have long argued, including in the cited article, that copying Fourth Amendment protected data is a seizure of it.
But the first part of that holding strikes me as incredibly novel and far-reaching, as it gets to a super-important question about when copying is a seizure. I have always treated the seizure power as coextensive with the search power. Under that approach, copying data is a seizure only if accessing it is a search. As I put it in Fourth Amendment Seizures of Computer Data, it's copying of "Fourth Amendment protected data" that is the seizure—not just any copying.
Unless you take that view, it seems to me, you end up silently overturning—or least practically nullifying— Fourth Amendment caselaw on what is a search in the first place. The problem is that the process of revealing information almost always requires first copying it. If you say that it's a seizure to copy information, even when revealing it is not a search, then you end up requiring a warrant for act of obtaining the data even though the obtaining doesn't require a warrant. Just the incidental need to copy the unprotected data to obtain the information ends up requiring a warrant. And I don't think that makes sense.
Indeed, if you take that view, you end up having to devise a brand-new set of principles as to when copying data is a seizure. If you're no longer tied to what data is protected under the search rules, what else is there to trigger enough of a Fourth Amendment interest?
The Colorado Supreme Court doesn't offer much in the way of an answer. First, it notes that some courts have said you can possess data:
And several courts have recognized, albeit in different contexts, that individuals can have possessory interests in intangible or digital property.
Sure, in the abstract, that's right. You can have a possessory right in data. But why would that mean Google search terms are possessed, when you have given up possession by sending the query to Google? The cases the court cites don't shed any light on that:
E.g., Ruckelshaus v. Monsanto Co., 467 U.S. 986, 1003 (1984) (holding that, at least for the purposes of the Takings Clause, individuals have property rights in intangible property, such as trade secrets); Integrated Direct Mktg., LLC v. May, 495 S.W.3d 73, 76 (Ark. 2016) (holding that electronic data can be converted if a person impedes on the property rights of the owner).
What does that have to do with why you would have a possessory right in records you have handed over to Google? The last part of the analysis adds:
Indeed, Google's licensing agreement makes clear that it does not own its users' content. Instead, users own their Google content, which, according to testimony from a Google policy specialist, includes their search histories.
I suppose this is an improvement, in that at least it's about Google records specifically, rather than as data in an abstract sense. But why does the licensing agreement, or terms of service, matter? As I argue here, terms of service don't effect Fourth Amendment rights. Why would a licensing agreement magically create a property right in data, such that copying the data is a Fourth Amendment seizure that requires a warrant?
If the Colorado Supreme Court's approach is right, then I would think there is a super-easy way for an Internet company to impose a universal warrant requirement on any effort to get any data from the company. Just slip this line into the terms of service:
By using this service, you gain a property right in all data held by the company.
By adding this line, would any effort from the government to get any record— even just subscriber identity, or a list of someone else's IP addresses—be a seizure of the data you own because the data would need to be copied in the course of turning it over? If not, I'm not sure why not. But that can't be right, it seems to me.
There's a lot more in the Seymour opinion that's of interest, but that seizure holding strikes me as really far-reaching. I realize that many of our readers are Fourth Amendment maximalists, and will cheer on any ruling that adds new kinds of protection. But it seems to me that the court's seizure analysis leaves a lot to be desired.
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You can't just *say* they have a property right. They have to actually have some right to that property. Which means, among other things, that the police could *also* get a property right to the data just by using the service. And of course the police don't need a warrant to get data that they themselves have a property right in.
Is this fundamentally different from the government buying the trail of digital data you leave behind every day? Many data sets we would like to be private are commercially available. Web browsing history is valuable for marketing. This particular information from Google may not be commercially available because Google would rather sell services based on the data than sell the data.
Is there any record of how often the DOJ demands records from lesser search engines? DuckDuckGo says your data won't be sold, but I have assumed the NSA at least has fibers into their data centers.
"If so, how broad can the search be?"
Just a guess:
but upon probable cause, supported by Oath or affirmation, and particularly describing the place to be searched, and the persons or things to be seized.
Adverb
particularly (not comparable)
1. (focus) Especially, extremely.
The apéritifs were particularly stimulating.
2. (degree) To a great extent.
3. Specifically, uniquely or individually.
4. In detail; with regard to particulars.
5. (dated) In a particular manner; fussily.
"can it get a warrant to compel Google to hand over IP addresses or account that entered that search? If so, how broad can the search be? And is a warrant needed at all?"
This question seems utterly misbegotten. How the HELL can the police not need a warrant to compel somebody to hand over evidence? As I understand the history of it, at the time the Bill of Rights were adopted, the police needed a warrant to lay claim to ANY power an ordinary citizen wouldn't have had. They WERE just ordinary citizens, hired to do what anybody else was entitled to do, only full time!
It's warped that we ever departed from that understanding.
Unsurprisingly, you understand it wrong.
I'm guessing you seriously do NOT understand that the institution of "police" was a very different thing at that time.
How the U.S. Got Its Police Force
"Policing in Colonial America had been very informal, based on a for-profit, privately funded system that employed people part-time. Towns also commonly relied on a “night watch” in which volunteers signed up for a certain day and time, mostly to look out for fellow colonists engaging in prostitution or gambling. (Boston started one in 1636, New York followed in 1658 and Philadelphia created one in 1700.) But that system wasn’t very efficient because the watchmen often slept and drank while on duty, and there were people who were put on watch duty as a form of punishment."
"The first publicly funded, organized police force with officers on duty full-time was created in Boston in 1838."
Fourth Amendment: Historical Background
At the time of the founding 'police', regular citizens working to enforce the law, had vastly less in the way of privileges than today. If they entered a home without a warrant, for instance, they could be treated as burglars. The homeowner was within his rights to repel them with force, if they didn't present a warrant! The warrant was what provided you with notice that you had to admit them.
Even the right of police to search without a warrant somebody they were arresting didn't get judicial endorsement until the 1900's!
Seriously, the right to be secure against unreasonable searches has been in decline in America for at least a century. It was REALLY robust at the time the Bill of Rights was adopted.
You once again guess incorrectly.
It is perhaps worth emphasizing that the lack of widespread professional law enforcement does not imply that “at the time the Bill of Rights were adopted, the police needed a warrant to lay claim to ANY power an ordinary citizen wouldn’t have had.” It is also perhaps worth noting that your own link agrees that there were valid warrantless searches at the time the fourth amendment was ratified.
Very limited valid warrantless searches. Like you're walking by a house, and hear somebody screaming, "Help, he's killing me!". Or you're actually chasing down a perpetrator and he cuts across the corner of somebody's property, and you get to follow him.
The sort of thing a private citizen could respond to, not remotely of the scale we see today with things like "third party doctrine" and "qualified immunity".
What do you think qualified immunity has to do with any of this?
It's further evidence of the judiciary misreading laws in favor of police power?
.
You’ve never heard of a grand jury subpoena?
I favor a pretty strong Fourth Amendment, but it seems to me that some form of exigent circumstances requirement is both sensible and required by Fourth Amendment text (which doesn't actually say you need a warrant for every search, but instead says when you do need a warrant it has to be supported by probable cause). Indeed, it was probably more important to have an exigent circumstances requirement when the 4th Amendment was adopted and incorporated, because nearly instantaneously obtaining a warrant was an impossibility.
So no, I don't think the Fourth Amendment means that the government can never get evidence from you without a warrant. I think it is a prohibition on unreasonable searches and seizures. I tend to think the definition of "unreasonable" has to broaden as technology makes government dragnets easier to do (and I think SCOTUS went in that direction in Carpenter). But it's not as broad as you are saying.
Pretty much. Though I think it is an unfortunate twist of language that so much has been allowed by ruling it "not a 4th amendment search" rather than per se reasonable.
What if they take notes?
Here's a simpler test: Can I do this same thing to a cop or judge or politician? Say I think some cop is dallying with my wife while I'm at work. Or I want to see if he visits a donut shop too often.
Can I do to him what they claim they can do to me, and I don't need a warrant either?
All this quibbling is what gives the other 1% of lawyers their bad reputation.
So: I uploaded an ebook to Kindle publishing. I gave over my data! Despite that, I retain the (intellectual) property interest in my book. No one can copy or distribute it without my authorization. I get 70% of the sales as royalties.
That is the essence of (electronic) book distribution. While Zon has the files on their servers, handing over data electronically does not *at all* negate my property interest. I have already had to issue takedown notices for pirated copies, in fact. There is a service agreement between me and Zon that details who owns what rights. I retain the copyright, Zon is the distributor for which they take a 30% royalty share.
So… if someone copies my data file without authorization, they are stealing my property.
I think that the Colorado court opinion fits perfectly well within the context of electronic intellectual property: If Google/Amazon says I own the data, I own the data, period*. No one can seize (copy, steal) my electronic data file without my permission.**
Could a company impose a universal warrant requirement? Maybe. But if they create a property interest in “all data held by the company” someone is going to demand payment and/or access to “all” the data. If its my data, i can copy it from Google, right? Google’s data is worth millions! Heck yeah!!
…So they wont do that, because they know their data is valuable. As is mine.
* That said, I am skeptical that these searches are unique enough to obtain intellectual property protection. Eight people cant all have rights to the identical house address search. Or maybe they can, but how do I exclude anyone else for searching for the house? It seems to me, Colorado SC treating electronic data as property is correct, but the searches dont have enough sticks to in their bundle to be truly property.
** I also think machine-reading my book for the purposes of training AI constitutes unauthorized distribution, make of that what you will.
But the information isn’t the identical house address search. It’s that that particular house address search took place at a given time from a particular address.
By analogy, the police don't want to know that people have ordered War and Peace on their kindles. They want to know that Bob ordered War and Peace on his Kindle, at 8:03AM on August 5th, 2022.
Prof. Kerr's work deserves a better venue. He is smart enough to recognize this.
Your statements are in conflict.
You seem confused.
Does 'plain error' ever happen at the state supreme court level?
Plane errors happen at all sorts of levels.
I’m not sure I understand your question. Are you asking whether state supreme courts ever find that the trial court committed plain error? In states that use that standard, of course.
I am not necessarily a "Fourth amendment maximalist," however I do have some tentative thoughts...
First, I think the idea that search and seizure are "coextensive" is not a persuasive reading of the text. That is, the 4th Amendment seems to forbid both unreasonable searches, even if the search doesn't involves a seizure (for example, a wiretap) and unreasonable seizures, even if it doesn't involve a search (for example, taking property without searching it).
The third-party doctrine is an extension of Katz v. United States, insofar as it is based on the idea that you do not have a reasonable expectation of privacy in information transmitted to third parties. However, Katz is considered an expansion of the traditional "property rights" intrusion tests rather than a replacement of them.
In United States v. Jones, 565 U.S. 400 (2012), which cites Orin Kerr by the way (just a fun observation), the Supreme Court held that if the government violates the traditional test, there is no need to consider the Katz test. That is, Katz is seen as EXPANDING and not CONTRACTING the traditional property-based protection of the Fourth Amendment.
The third-party doctrine is based on Katz, not traditional property based protections. (See United States v. Miller, 425 U.S. 435 (1976) and Smith v. Maryland, 442 U.S. 735 (1979).) The assertion that police can go through a persons records held by Google is based on the idea that such a search does not violate the Katz test.
But it might change everything if that data is considered your property. Because then, we are no longer thinking about Katz, we are thinking about traditional Fourth Amendment doctrines. And, of course, one of the most important property rights is the "right to exclude." If the data held by Google is your property, then you have a "right to exclude" other people (including the government) from accessing it. We no longer even need to think about Katz or the third-party doctrine at this point. It just isn't relevant because this is an seizure from the perspective of property rights.
Orin asks a few questions:
1) "Why would a licensing agreement magically create a property right in data."
and
2) Wouldn't this be a "a super-easy way for an Internet company to impose a universal warrant requirement"?
Well, forget about it being just a "licensing agreement" it is also an agreement that creates a property interest. And creating property interests is what agreements do all the time. That isn't something strange or "magical" except insofar as the idea of property itself is strange and magical. If I buy a wallet at the store, an exchange that may take minutes will create a property interest in a wallet and that government can't search that wallet without a warrant from the moment I buy it (absent an exception).
I think the Supreme Court of Colorado got this right. Why? Because the third-party doctrine is all about Katz. And Katz EXPANDED but did not shrink Fourth Amendment protections. The third-party doctrine is an application of Katz; as such, it function to limit this expansion rather than limit traditional property-based conceptions of the Fourth Amendment. Yes, property rights can be easily created by agreements... and such agreement can create an interest that trigger Fourth Amendment interests very quickly. If one signs a lease to rent an apartment, in the moments before you signed the lease, you didn't have a Fourth Amendment interest in the apartment but in the moments after you signed, you acquired such an interest. If you move your stuff in a few moments later, it is going to require a warrant before the police can go through it. I don't think the point that it only takes a few moments to create a property interest changes anything.
Anyway, I am not the expert on the Fourth Amendment that Orin Kerr is. I have never been cited by the Supreme Court. But that is the way I see it. I tentatively agree with the Supreme Court of Colorado.
"If I buy a wallet at the store, an exchange that may take minutes will create a property interest in a wallet and that government can’t search that wallet without a warrant from the moment I buy it (absent an exception)."
And prior to that moment, it's the store's wallet, STILL property, and properly should require a warrant to search, the only difference being who gets served a warrant. That's my problem with 3rd party doctrine. There ARE no 'third parties', only different 1st parties!
Compulsion should always require a warrant.
Compulsion should always require a warrant.
Yes. Absolutely. That seems like a very clear bright line.
So if the police officer sees someone commit a murder right in front of them, they can’t do a thing except apply for a warrant?
The question is whether, if you, NOT a police officer, saw somebody commit a murder right in front of you, would YOU not be able to do anything?
The warrant lets the cop do things an ordinary citizen couldn't do in the same circumstances, no more.
Sorry, I was referencing the claim you made that Commenter_XY was endorsing—the claim that "Compulsion should always require a warrant."
Now it seems you're saying that youra actual position is, "Compulsion should always require a warrant, except for sometimes when it's okay if it doesn't"?
Again, you’ve never heard of a grand jury subpoena?
Maybe Katz needs to be revisited, David Welker. The world was a very different place 56 years ago when it was decided. I think the proposition, The third-party doctrine is an extension of Katz v. United States, insofar as it is based on the idea that you do not have a reasonable expectation of privacy in information transmitted to third parties., is a proposition that needs explication and clarification. Especially in light of the vast purchasing and seizure of private data (of all kinds) by government agencies.
That idea has a severe problem: When you transmit information to another person, or company, the two of you are 1st and 2nd parties; It's no different than if you're corresponding with somebody: You might not have any expectation of privacy against the other party to the correspondence, that doesn't mean you don't against third parties, and the police are the third party here, not the phone company or other service provider.
The IP addresses should not be stored in the first place, that is the issue. If I take pictures of everybody that comes to my house then of course I allow all the subsidiary uses. Why does Google get a pass?
Isn't the Internet based on the DARPA netword and thus a public utility.
Under the Patriot act, the government can serve a company with a secret subpoena for data, or demand its retention, and at the same time legally command the company to not disclose that fact, even lie if asked.
So, why does Google even retain the IP addresses? Because the government has a gun to their head. They're just not allowed to tell you there's a gun to their head. Or what they're giving the government.
Because we're a police state that's still bothering to hold elections as long as the results don't get too inconvenient.
It must be one hell of an experience to know so many things that aren't true.
I received a warning from ChatGPT for this question.
Should a smoker have the right slowly to commit suicide by smoking?
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The search & seizure can easily be separated in cases like this
Police to Google: have there been any searches for 123 Main St in the past two weeks?
Google: yep, from eight different IP addresses
Police: okay, here's a warrant for those addresses
"Google's licensing agreement makes clear that it does not own its users' content. Instead, users own their Google content, which, according to testimony from a Google policy specialist, includes their search histories."
Then what gymnastics are involved in Google selling information derived from users' content---including search histories---to third parties?
Do you think that when you sign up for a Google account you don't authorize them to use the data?
I wonder how this differs in an investigation where law enforcement have a description of the Subject wearing a unique t-shirt, e.g., slanted red/white stripes, which only the local Walmart sells.
So they go there and ask for sales records of personnel who purchased that item.
With the date/time of the purchase, cameras inside and the parking lot, and maybe personal data from a credit card, they could get a list of purchasers and then narrow that as in the incident above.
So what's the difference between asking about a Google search or a sale of a unique shirt?
Well, one difference that comes to mind is that, presumably, you mean that they already have evidence that someone wearing that shirt committed the crime, whereas here it's a pure fishing expedition: it's merely a possibility that the perpetrator googled the address.
If the decision was based on the Colorado Constitution, e.g. interpreted the 4th Amendment in light of what the Colorado Constitution requires, does it have any relevance outside Colorado state courts?
All of this seems to stem from a fundamental ignorance of what electronic digital data and data communications actually are, and how computing systems work. What is recorded on Google’s servers about your virtual interaction with them is no more your (the user) property than are the servers themselves. It is simply a recording of details of those servers’ interaction with you. Think of it this way:
You set up a stand on a busy street corner offering the service of giving directions to lost pedestrians. Any time someone stops to ask you for directions they give you their name and tell you where it is they’re trying to get to. You have a log book in which you write down their name and the location they’re inquiring about and then give them directions to that location. (Just assume for the sake of the analogy that everyone is honest and provides their actual names.)
Who owns the log book and its contents?