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More from Pa. S. Ct. Justice David Wecht on Unenumerated Rights
From his opinion yesterday in Bert Co. v. Turk (and see here how he applies this to the particular issue involved in that case, which is federal constitutional limits on state punitive damages awards); the opinion cites our own Randy Barnett many times:
[I.] The United States Constitution protects unenumerated rights. The infirmity of the Supreme Court's precedent that governs the disposition of today's case, however, reinforces widely held doubts that the Due Process Clause—in its "substantive" guises—was ever the proper constitutional anchor for the identification of these rights. Two provisions of the United States Constitution stand out as far likelier guarantees of Americans' unenumerated rights: the Ninth Amendment and the Privileges or Immunities Clause of the Fourteenth Amendment. Both of these fundamental mandates provide straightforward and textual paths to the recognition and protection of unenumerated rights. Oddly and maddeningly, both provisions have languished in obscurity within the pages of the Supreme Court's jurisprudence, while the Court has opted instead to venture further and further down the oxymoronic path of "substantive due process."
If protection from "excessive" punitive damage awards in state courts is properly a matter of federal constitutional concern (and that is a very big "if"), the Supreme Court should provide an intellectually rigorous and disciplined justification for this protection as an unenumerated right grounded either in the Privileges or Immunities Clause or in the Ninth Amendment. Substantive due process is an inappropriate tool for federal oversight of state court punitive damage awards….
[A.] Due Process of Law
The Fourteenth Amendment's Due Process Clause is expressed in simple terms: no state shall "deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law." The natural reading of this provision (indeed, the only textual one) suggests that the protected rights, i.e., life, liberty, and property, may indeed be deprived so long as the state provides the requisite "due process of law." This is an expressly procedural protection. It is a guarantee that the government must follow a fair process before the deprivation of any of the important rights identified. This species of due process has come to be known by a facially redundant moniker: "procedural due process." It is from this core guarantee that we derive, for instance, the familiar requirements of notice and a meaningful opportunity to be heard, and the intuitive principle that legal controversies must be decided by a neutral adjudicator. The demand for, and entitlement to, procedural fairness is a robust protection against arbitrary government action, and it stands as a pillar of our rule of law. Whatever the extent and dimensions of the process that may be due under the circumstances of a particular case, it is this constitutional promise that provides the baseline assurance that Americans' rights will be safeguarded by fundamentally fair procedures.
Over time, this concern with procedural fairness evolved, developing into a view that certain governmental actions are intolerable regardless of the process employed. The precise moment at which "substantive due process" crystallized as a distinct doctrine is a matter of some debate. There is little dispute, however, that, by the time of Mugler v. Kansas in 1887, the Supreme Court had embraced the notion that "due process of law" includes substantive limitations upon the sort of laws that may be enforced, independent of considerations of the laws' procedural fairness.
Any discussion of "substantive due process" must clear the initial hurdle of its paradoxical framing. The linguistic tension on the face of the doctrine has always been obvious. As constitutional scholar John Hart Ely famously commented, the phrase is inherently contradictory, "sort of like 'green pastel redness.' " Judge Richard Posner has referred to the doctrine as a "ubiquitous oxymoron." Justice Antonin Scalia used the same word. And Professor Akhil Amar has written that, because "the very phrase 'substantive due process' teeters on self-contradiction, it does not give us a sound starting point, or a directional push to proper legal analysis." Inasmuch as my more pedestrian imagination has always found the phrase perplexing, I take comfort in the knowledge that such giants of jurisprudence as these share my befuddlement.
Although questions of "substance" and "procedure" may at least arguably overlap at the margins, my understanding is that "due process of law" is, and traditionally was understood as, predominantly a guarantee of procedural fairness. As its substantive iterations have burgeoned into an immense body of precedent, the Due Process Clause has been forced to bear ever greater weight through the Supreme Court's uncritical application of the doctrine to vastly different areas of law. It is astounding that, for instance, protection from a certain (or, as it happens, an uncertain) threshold of punitive damages is guaranteed by the same constitutional provision that, throughout its history, has been held to mandate that judges be neutral, to prohibit legislation regulating the weight of loaves of bread, and to secure the fundamental rights to marry or to rear one's children. My primary difficulty with the doctrine is not the various approaches that the Court has taken to understanding unenumerated rights themselves, but rather the fact that it has never made sense to discover these rights within the ambit of due process when there are other plainly more intelligible constitutional sources.
Of course, not all of the Supreme Court's substantive due process cases are created equal. The substantive strand of due process jurisprudence rose to prominence in the notorious "Lochner era," as the Court began to strike down laws intended to spur economic or social reform, ostensibly based upon those laws' perceived intrusion upon substantive rights like the "freedom of contract." …
Not all of the due process jurisprudence that flowed from the Lochner era shared its most reviled attributes, and much of that jurisprudence has survived. Beyond the seemingly mercurial overriding of legislative judgments on ordinary economic matters, the Court also began to recognize certain personally held rights that it deemed fundamental, even though they are not enumerated in the Constitution. Having essentially foresworn the Privileges or Immunities Clause, and having persisted in neglecting the Ninth Amendment, the Supreme Court turned instead to the Due Process Clause. In Meyer v. Nebraska and Pierce v. Society of the Sisters of the Holy Names of Jesus and Mary, for instance, the Supreme Court struck down laws prohibiting, respectively, teaching foreign languages in schools and sending children to private religious schools. These laws offended, as the Court saw it, the due process interest of "the liberty of parents and guardians to direct the upbringing and education of children under their control." …
In the realm of unenumerated fundamental rights—the last stop on our brief tour of due process—how the law is written is of less consequence, and questions of procedure are eclipsed by substantive focus upon the importance of the right itself. Since the latter part of the twentieth century, the Supreme Court has recognized several of these deeply personal rights. The rights at issue lie at the heart of personal autonomy, private decision-making, and human dignity, and are deemed fundamental to individual liberty, although not specifically listed in the Constitution. The conceptual anchor that the Court chose to use for these unenumerated rights was a strand of constitutional theory that either sounded directly in due process or was derived from an implied right of privacy, which, in time, came to be understood as a component of the "liberty" protected by the Due Process Clause. Subsequent decisions in this realm grew to recognize numerous rights that the government was seen as having limited authority to restrict, such as the right to marry, the right to use contraceptives, the right to consensual sexual activity, the right to raise one's children as one wishes, the right to refuse medical care, and the right to decide whether to terminate a pregnancy.
My difficulty with the Court's due process precedent has nothing to do with the recognition of these fundamental rights. In general, I find these cases persuasive in establishing that such interests fall into the category of "none of the government's damn business," and are sufficiently fundamental to the "realm of personal liberty" to warrant constitutional protection. The problem is the stubborn insistence on cramming these natural rights into the ramshackle dwelling of "substantive due process." None of the Supreme Court's precedents meaningfully reconciled the "substance" and the "process," or even acknowledged that "substantive due process" reflects a contradiction in terms and a clash of conflicting principles.
I am unable to comprehend how the quintessentially procedural right to "due process of law" manages to house all of the "substantive" guarantees attributed to it, alongside its intuitive "procedural" protections, coupled with a protection from arbitrary, irrational, or vague laws, all while separately serving as the Court's chosen vehicle for the Fourteenth Amendment's incorporation of (most of) the Bill of Rights against the States. More to the point here, as I discuss below in Part II, because the Court's current explication of the federal constitutional oversight of punitive damages blends attributes of these various categories of due process, I struggle to make sense of it within the broader framework. The problem may be that the breadth of this jurisprudence has stretched the Due Process Clause well beyond what its text can plausibly support.
That said, the Supreme Court's attitude toward the requirements of "due process of law" clearly is not immutable. I suspect that due process has continued to wear its substantive hat for this long primarily out of fidelity to precedent and regard for public reliance upon that precedent. But the hat is threadbare. Stare decisis notwithstanding, the Court has never shied away from periodic alterations to the doctrine, from reconceptions of the nature of unenumerated rights, to the seismic shift represented by the demise of the Lochner era, to Dobbs. None of the Supreme Court's pronouncements were (or are) received at Mount Sinai on stone tablets. The Supreme Court recently has demonstrated its willingness to reconsider longstanding precedent in the realm of substantive due process. As the Court says, "stare decisis is not a straitjacket."
For the sake of the future of American civil rights, the time has come for advocates to develop and advance arguments—even in the alternative—that substantive, yet unenumerated, protections emanate not from the Due Process Clause, but rather from what was always their proper home in the Ninth Amendment, the Privileges or Immunities Clause, or both.
[B.] The Ninth Amendment
The most obvious constitutional source for the recognition of unenumerated rights is the provision that expressly refers to their existence. Its language is straightforward. Immediately following the specific enumeration of particular rights in the first eight Amendments to the Constitution, the Ninth provides:
["]The enumeration in the Constitution, of certain rights, shall not be construed to deny or disparage others retained by the people.["]
Thumbing through the pages of the United States Reporter, however, one could be forgiven for failing to notice that the Ninth Amendment even exists. Effectively ignored by the Supreme Court for generations, the Ninth Amendment has long served more as fodder for scholars than as any meaningful mandate.
Although the meaning of this provision has engendered debate, the reason for its existence is well-documented. At the nation's founding, the "Anti-Federalists" advocated for the inclusion of a Bill of Rights within the Constitution, along the lines of the Declarations of Rights found in numerous state constitutions, such as Pennsylvania's. Opponents of this idea, the "Federalists," feared that no document could comprehensively list all fundamental rights, and that enumerating some might imply that the federal government possessed the power to infringe others not so enumerated. After all, the belief in the existence of fundamental rights as a matter of natural law independent of any governing charter was a fixture of the American polity from its founding moment, celebrated by the Declaration of Independence's stirring recognition of the "self-evident" truth that "all men are created equal, that they are endowed by their Creator with certain unalienable Rights."
James Madison—the principal drafter of the Constitution—proposed a solution to the stalemate. The Ninth Amendment unambiguously rejects the notion that the Bill of Rights represents the beginning and the end of fundamental rights. It simply makes clear that the first eight Amendments are not an exclusive list. They were just the rights, in Madison's words, that were "singled out."
Since its ratification, the Ninth Amendment has played effectively no role in constitutional adjudication….
[C.] The Privileges or Immunities Clause
Whereas the Ninth Amendment jurisprudence is a virtual tabula rasa, the Privileges or Immunities Clause precedent is more closely akin to a sawed-off tree branch….
On its face, the Privileges or Immunities Clause appears to be rather significant, especially coupled with the understanding that "privileges" and "immunities" were merely synonyms for "rights." However, shortly after the Fourteenth Amendment's ratification, in the Slaughter-House Cases, the Supreme Court rendered the Clause an essentially dead letter….
In recent decades, Justice Clarence Thomas has developed a compelling historical argument for a broader reading of the Privileges or Immunities Clause, noting that Slaughter-House "sapped the Clause of any meaning," and opining that the case was a cause of much "disarray" in Fourteenth Amendment jurisprudence. Concurring in McDonald, Justice Thomas conducted a detailed analysis of the historical background and original meaning of the Privileges or Immunities Clause, concluding that the "evidence overwhelmingly demonstrates that the privileges and immunities of such citizens included individual rights enumerated in the Constitution," and that "the Clause establishes a minimum baseline of federal rights." …
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You can't do things through the P/I clause because conservatives will try to use that to deny rights to non-citizens, which will then require we come back and use the equal protection clause to accomplish what you do in one fell swoop with due process.
In any event, it's always seemed to me the Excessive Fines Clause is the right place for any limits of punitive damages, but SCOTUS, in its infinite wisdom, did not agree.
What insidious plans do these moustache-twirling conservatives have against non-citizens, and how are such evil and oppressive ideas reconcilable with U. S. obligations under treaties and the Law of Nations?
Which "non-citizens" are you referring to?
Illegal aliens, permanent resident aliens or visa holders?
Does it make a difference and if so, how?
I bet he was talking about non-citizen nationals, like people born in American Samoa (to non-citizen parents).
I doubt it
Why not deny the rights of non-citizens? That's WHY the due process clause applies to "people", and the P&I clause only to "Citizens": Non-citizens aren't SUPPOSED to have P&I!
To be clear, this means non-citizens are still entitled to procedural rights, such as the right to a jury trial. They're just not entitled to substantive rights, such as to keep and bear arms, or to vote.
That distinction doesn't work in addition to being immoral.
The 4th Amendment, a procedural protection, says "people" too.
It's immoral to distinguish between citizens and non-citizens? Tell us more!
The International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights, to which America is a party, says in Art. 17 that “No one shall be subjected to arbitrary or unlawful interference with his privacy, family, home or correspondence.” There's other stuff like that.
The Treaty of Friendship, Commerce and Navigation with South Korea says "The dwellings, offices, warehouses, factories and other premises of nationals and companies of either Party located within the territories of the other Party shall not be subject to molestation or to entry without just cause." (There's also a just-compensation clause).
And so on.
There is a certain, um, school of thought (for lack of a better term) which, while wanting the courts to enforce certain selected non-enumerated rights, really does not want the courts to recognize Natural Rights and Natural Law generally, as such recognition might complicate certain political/governmental agendas.
The comment on P/I reminds me a bit of §1983 and how it gave birth to qualified immunity which currently is nearly an inversion of what the section was enacted to accomplish. All through a chain of cases twisting and bending away and purely of the Court's own doing.
The Excessive Fines Clause is an enumerated right. It covers any limitation on excessive punitive damages that the Constitution may impose.
So threre is absolutely no basis for considering the question of unnemurated rights in answering the question.
And it seems rediculous – absurd – to interpret enumerated rights so extremely narrowly that they never apply to anything important, and then turn around and have an expansive concept of unemurated rights so that they apply to essentially everything. If the enumerated Excessive Fines Clause imposes no limits on punitive damages, yet punitive damages are limited by an alleged unenumerated right, then why in the world did the Framers bother wasting good ink on totally meaningless and irrelevant constitutional text that never provides answers to any actual question?
Agreed, it does seem rather strange to discuss excessive punitive damages as an "uninumerated" right, when it's very clearly enumerated.
The text of the Eighth Amendment states:
> Excessive bail shall not be required, nor excessive fines imposed, nor cruel and unusual punishments inflicted.
That seems pretty clearly directed at criminal cases, not civil cases. It'd be hard to imagine how the first clause (the Excessive Bail Clause) or the third clause (the Cruel and Unusual Punishments Clause) could possibly apply to civil cases, so there's plenty of textual basis to read the second clause (the Excessive Fines Clause) not to apply to civil cases.
And even if these types of federal constitutional protections should extend to cases where a government is the civil plaintiff (like administrative or regulatory cases brought under laws in which only a specific government entity may be the plaintiff), it's a stretch to extend that principle out to civil disputes between two private parties, in state court under state law.
This opinion would have someone like Kurt Lash rolling his eyes until they were facing the back of his skull. See his book on the ninth amendment, or a snapshot of his views in this podcast: https://constitutioncenter.org/news-debate/podcasts/the-slaughterhouse-cases-at-150
Eh, I don't care much for the "debate" over substantive due process.
That said, I do agree with the majority opinion that the Supreme Court's rulings on punitive damages are just a bunch of argle bargle.
Not everything has to implicate the Constitution. States are more than capable of deciding on their own punitive damages regimes.
The notion that the state can take off its "criminal" hat and put on its "civil" hat to do things that are expressly prohibited on the criminal side has always left me a bit cold. There are situations where giving criminal defendants extra protection over civil defendants makes some sense (like we just saw with Trump's refusal to testify in his E. Jean Carroll case), but not where the distinctions are essentially meaningless, as is the case with criminal fines, civil forfeitures and punitive damages.
It's part of the legal regime. Given that, IIRC, the availability of punitive damages is almost nil in a contract action (in most states ...), we're basically looking at tort actions.
As a personal matter, and given that I tend to the defense side, I think that punitive damages should be severely restricted in most cases. But, again, that's a matter of state law. Let the state legislature make the rules about punitive damages. Follow those rules. If the rules end up being unfair, change the rules.
Litigant are afforded due process by going through the trial. To try to tack on some independent constitutional right to be free of punitive damages under some made-up rules that are indecipherable (but seem to amount to 10:1, except when they don't) is stupid.
The argle bargle from the Supreme Court is just lipstick on a pig.
Even in compensatory damages situations, I have to assume that constitutional due process could eventually be implicated. If A sues B for a simple $50,000 breach of contract claim, and the jury comes back with a $5,000,000 verdict for A, because B is also a world-class jerk, the judge cant say, "Well, the jury has spoken," and if he does, there has to be some backstop.
This just never comes up, because the vast majorities of judges and juries are not, in fact, deranged.
Again, though, we are talking about federal rights!
This may shock a lot of people who read this forum who think everything is a constitutional case that belongs in federal court ... but states... states have laws! States have courts that apply laws!
If a jury returns a $5,000,000 verdict over a $50,000 contract dispute, you ask the trial court to do something about it. And if that doesn't work, you go through the STATE appellate process.
Just because something wrong happens, somewhere, doesn't mean that there is an independent right in the constitution to "make it all better."
This is something that we often forget.
I don't think we actually disagree here. That is why I said "[Federal] due process could eventually be implicated."
As you note, there are multiple state level backstops. Because juries rarely return insane verdicts, and when they do trial judges usually fix the insanity. To the extent they do not, there are usually a couple of levels of appellate courts to address the issues. Only if all of that fails, would the Federal courts get involved.
But there is absolutely no need for them. Instead, they are constitutionalizing something that has traditionally been left for the states to practice.
Remember- this isn't about "due process" which already applies. This is saying that there is another constitutional concern- that there is a substantive due process (or other unenumerated right) to be free of "bad results that you don't like," after a full and fair trial, subject to state law, and a full state appellate process.
And, just to make this clear- you wouldn't be asking for some SCOTUS-created argle bargle that you have a substantive due process right with unclear standards to be free from meanie juries.
Instead, you'd go through the state process, which would likely include a lot of state contract law about what was proven at trial and allowable as contractual damages in that case.
On the other hand, Federal courts have been micromanaging death penalty cases under the 8th and 14th Amendments for 60+ years. If you think the SCT's punitive damages holdings are argle bargle, they are positively crystalline in comparison to the DP cases. I'll give you full punitives if you can reconcile the notions that a jury in a capital case must decide the penalty separately, and consider all relevant mitigating evidence, with the notion that the application of the DP not be arbitrary.
I've long been on point with saying that the best way to get rid of the death penalty would be to allow states to just go ahead and do it.
What we have now- where people think we have the death penalty, but really we have this terrible system where it's a theoretical option in almost all cases but usually is just people hanging out on death row for sometimes decades, is about the worst of all worlds.
But yeah- you have a bunch of judges tinkering with crazy standards and you get bad results.
PS- Again, this isn't about me getting full punitives. As was correctly noted in 1996- most states had already started reforming their laws regarding punitive damages. If anything, the dumb jurisprudence in that area just made things worse. Because why bother instituting state reforms when there is a constitutional backstop.
Stupid stupid stupid.
And as an aside, that's not a great way to be. "Hey, courts do this stupid thing. I want to equivocate on it by making another stupid demand instead of actually understanding why the one thing being discussed is stupid." It's whataboutism, and it doesn't lead to productive conversations.
> as is the case with criminal fines, civil forfeitures and punitive damages.
I think punitive damages is a pretty different category from criminal fines or civil forfeiture (at least the flavor of civil forfeiture that involves a showing of a crime having been committed). Ordinary tort suits by private plaintiffs against private defendants are a very different type of case from one in which the government brings a criminal case against a person.
Unless you're ready to say that punitive damages need to always be tried by a jury, involve proof beyond a reasonable doubt, give defendants a right to counsel, speedy trial, etc., and otherwise totally transform trial procedure for common law tort claims into something completely different from what the Eighth Amendment's drafters understood was the norm for actions at law.
Smart judge. This interpretation seems right to me.
So, suppose I were still practicing law and a case come into my office in which a party was relying on an "unenumerated right". Where would I go to find out if that "unenumerated right" was actually a right?
In practice you have to ask whether a majority of the nine old farts on the Court at the relevant time think it's REALLY REALLY REALLY IMPORTANT, in which case it's a right. Marry the person you love who happens to be of a different race? Yes, indeed! Marry a person who happens to be of the same sex? Yes indeed! Marry a group of people of various sexes and races and raise the resulting children as a community? Well, gee, where's that right in the Constitution? Wait for a Mormon President?
It's not a perfect solution but turn this around. The Constitution does not endow rights. It is a delegation of limited power from the People. Where anything is not explicitly delegated, if the Government purports to exercise the power and a citizen claims it's an infringement of their rights, the burden is hence on the government to show that it has the power and the citizen does not have the right, not on the citizen to show that they do have the right.
Try that argument out in court. Let us know how it goes. 🙂
Sadly yes. It's always possible that one or two judges would go along, but though the argument is sound, the courts in general do not believe in fiat justitia ruat caelum.
Glad Justice Thomas conducted a detailed analysis of the historical background and original meaning of the Privileges or Immunities Clause.
Now Justice Thomas was discussing 2A, but what unenumerated rights are in that baseline he alludes to? That is what I would love to know.
It’s no mystery what happened to the Privileges and Immunities clause. That phrasing was a direct reference to Taney’s list of privileges and immunities in the Dredd Scott decision. Taney listed a bunch of enumerated rights (like the right to keep and bear arms) and a bunch of unenumerated rights (like the right to travel), and concluded that since citizens get these rights, it would be ridiculous to let blacks be citizens. The 14th Amendment said that blacks born in the USA were citizens, and black citizens had those privileges and immunities.
But when you analyze it that way, it says blacks have the right to keep and bear arms. So prejudiced 19th century courts freaked and pretended they couldn’t understand the clause, and would ignore it. Then 20th century courts gradually brought back the rights, but only under the Due Process clause – which they interpreted to mean that they could pick and choose which rights to protect. And so it wasn’t until the 21st century that the Supreme Court finally decided that the states as well as federal agencies have to respect the 2nd Amendment, but only to a certain extent.