The Volokh Conspiracy
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"'We Came Here to Exclude the Negro. Nothing Short of This Will Answer.'"
From Justice Jackson's opinion, joined by Justice Sotomayor, dissenting from the denial of certiorari today in Harness v. Watson:
The President of the 1890 Mississippi Constitutional Convention said it plain: "Let us tell the truth if it bursts the bottom of the Universe … We came here to exclude the negro. Nothing short of this will answer." To further that agenda, the Convention placed nine crimes in §241 of the State's Constitution as bases for disenfranchisement, believing that more Black people would be convicted of those crimes than White people. See Williams v. Mississippi (1898) (acknowledging that purpose, but expressing "no concern" regarding the Conventioneers' objective); Ratliff v. Beale (Miss. 1896) (similar); 47 F. 4th (CA5 2022) (per curiam) (en banc) (case below) (recognizing §241's discriminatory aim).
Eight of those crimes have remained in §241 since 1890, without interruption. Thus, the Convention's avowed goals continue to be realized via its chosen mechanism: Today (just as in the Convention's aftermath), thousands of Black Mississippians cannot vote due to §241's operation. Petitioners brought this legal action to challenge §241's continued use of the eight crimes as bases for felon disenfranchisement.
The Court of Appeals for the Fifth Circuit properly recognized that, under this Court's settled precedent, the mere passage of time cannot insulate from constitutional challenge a law that was invidious at its inception. That court could not escape acknowledging the similarities between this case and Hunter v. Underwood (1985) (Rehnquist, J., for the Court), in which this Court unanimously invalidated an Alabama constitutional provision passed in 1901 because its "enactment was motivated by a desire to discriminate against blacks on account of race" and it "continue[d] to th[at] day to have that effect." But en route to affirming the District Court's grant of summary judgment against petitioners, the Fifth Circuit proceeded to make two egregious analytical errors that ought to be corrected.
First, it seized upon the idea that §241 had somehow been "reenacted" in full when the citizens of Mississippi twice amended parts of that provision years later. To be sure, later amendments changed bases for disenfranchisement other than the eight at issue here: In 1950, burglary was removed from the list of disenfranchising crimes via the State's amendment processes, and, in 1968, murder and rape were added via the same processes. But, for federal constitutional purposes, the State never enacted any "new" version of the original eight grounds for disenfranchisement. In 1950, voters could have either removed burglary from §241 or left §241 unchanged. So, too, in 1968—voters could have added murder and rape or left §241 unchanged. No other change to the original list of crimes was ever on offer. Therefore, the same discriminatory list of crimes that the 1890 Constitution's ratifiers "ma[d]e into law by authoritative act" operates to disenfranchise Mississippians who commit those crimes today. Black's Law Dictionary 666 (11th ed. 2019) (defining "enact").
Accordingly, the Fifth Circuit was wrong to believe that the amendments rendered the 1890 Convention's discriminatory purpose irrelevant and to reject petitioners' claim on the ground that they could show no discriminatory purpose. Quite to the contrary, here, just as in Hunter, the "remaining crimes" from §241's pernicious origin still work the very harm the 1890 Convention intended—denying Black Mississippians the vote.
Second, the Fifth Circuit's alternative holding—that even if §241 is tainted by discriminatory purpose, petitioners have no viable claim because the disenfranchisement provision would have been adopted anyway—was equally misguided. Under our well-established precedents, in order to defeat a challenge to a state law that was motivated by discriminatory purpose, the State bears the burden of showing that "the law would have been enacted without" that purpose. Here, the Fifth Circuit assumed for argument's sake that petitioners had shown discriminatory purpose, but concluded that the State had discharged its burden because certain legislators and a state task force considered recommending changes to §241's list of crimes in the 1980s. And the Fifth Circuit held that the State's burden was satisfied even though that consideration never yielded an actual change to §241.
This alternative holding was infused with the faulty "reenactment" rationale, insofar as the Fifth Circuit assumed, arguendo, "discriminatory intent arising from the 1968 amendment." Moreover, and even more fundamentally, the Fifth Circuit misread (or misunderstood) this Court's holdings about the nature of the necessary inquiry. The burden is not to demonstrate a theoretical possibility that any legislature could have adopted the enactment at issue absent discrimination. Rather, courts must assess whether the discriminatory actor (here, the 1890 Convention) "would have" enacted the provision sans the discriminatory intent that was its actual motivation. Hunter; see also Arlington Heights v. Metropolitan Housing Development Corp. (1977) (State's "burden" is to "establis[h] that the same decision would have resulted" (emphasis added)). And that question cannot possibly be answered by looking to the unconsummated considerations of legislative actors a near century after the enactment.
In sum, I would have granted this petition to correct the Fifth Circuit's clear and constitutionally momentous errors, and the Court could have done so in a straightforward and narrow (but significant) manner. All that is needed to resolve this dispute is (1) the indisputable fact that §241's disenfranchisement provisions were adopted for an illicit discriminatory purpose, and (2) the (unusually undeniable) understanding that, far from being subsequently "reenacted," §241 has persisted, without change—doing the harmful work that it was designed to do—ever since its initial invidious inception.
* * *
The other day, this Court declared that the "'Constitution deals with substance, not shadows,' and the [constitutional] prohibition against racial discrimination is 'levelled at the thing, not the name.'" Students for Fair Admissions v. President and Fellows of Harvard College (2023). There are no shadows in §241, only the most toxic of substances.
Thus, the majority's decision not to take up this matter is doubly unfortunate. We were asked to address this problem 125 years ago in Williams, and declined to do so. And this Court blinks again today. So, at the same time that the Court undertakes to slay other giants, Mississippians can only hope that they will not have to wait another century for a judicial knight-errant. Constitutional wrongs do not right themselves. With its failure to take action, the Court has missed yet another opportunity to learn from its mistakes.
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So, Justice Jackson agrees with the President of the 1890 Mississippi Constitutional Convention that certain felonies can serve as proxies for race? Imagine, for example, an Italian American saying it was anti-Italian for the government to disenfranchise those who were involved with organized crime.
There is no Mafia!!!!!!!! Tony Soprano was in the "Waste Management Business"
That doesn't follow at all. If the President of the 1890 Mississippi Constitutional Convention believed that certain felonies were proxies for race, it doesn't matter if he was objectively correct or not. His subjective belief made it a racist enactment.
If I refuse to hire someone whom I believe to be Italian because I hate Italians, but I am mistaken and he's actually Greek, my mistake as to the facts does not change that my act was racist and legally actionable.
Your hypothetical applies to you actively harming a single individual, and has absolutely nothing to do with the case before the Court.
A racist pig thought black people were more likely to commit 10 crimes, and so made those crimes things that cost you the vote.
If he's wrong, then those restrictions aren't racist.
Since that time, people who are presumptively non-racist have removed 2 of the crimes, and added others.
What Jackson is saying is equivalent to this: Nazis passed a law against abusing animals, therefore it's Nazi to have that law, and it should be repealed / you're a Nazi for opposing animal abuse
Greg, like the peace of God, your comment passes all understanding.
And by that you mean Greg's obviously correct, yeah?
More generally framed, even if there was an ulterior purpose/agenda behind the passing of a certain law, it doesn't follow that the law continues to further that ulterior agenda (if ever it did), or that it doesn't otherwise contain merits that warrants its being preserved.
Consider the following. Imagine that the state legislature declared that all of the relevant laws were illegitimate because they were passed in 1890 with this insidious alternative agenda. So the legislature strikes them from the books. The next day, the legislature reconvenes and passes a statute contain all the same laws as before, using the identical language in each clause, but now the legislators each explicitly state for the record that he/she has no ulterior agenda (eg racial animosity) driving this new legislation, that it can and should apply to all people equally, and empirical evidence is put into the record showing that the previous laws, in the last few decades, weren't applied with any disproportionate impact.
What would be the point of such an exercise if the state is going to, and legally can, end up with identical results/laws anyway?
Also, are Italians and Greek members of different 'races'? Is that a category mistake, or does it instead show the problem with using an essentialist, anachronistic notion of 'whiteness'?
No, I mean that when a law's authors go out of their way to tell us that it is racially motivated there should be a strong (albeit not irrebuttable) presumption that it's probably unconstitutional, and the fact that there have been a couple of cosmetic changes to it over the years is irrelevant.
I also think felon disenfranchisement is unconstitutional on the independent ground that there is no rational nexus between being a felon and being able to cast an intelligent vote. We should not deprive people who've done their time of fundamental rights for the rest of their lives. So I oppose felon disenfranchisement for the same reason I oppose a lifetime ban on gun ownership by felons. And when the Supreme Court tells us that lifetime bans on gun ownership by felons are unconstitutional, I would hope they would take the next logical step of applying that to felon disenfranchisement as well.
Given that the 14th amendment expressly carves out protection for felon disenfranchisement, I find it hard to accept an argument that it's "unconstitutional."
‘No, I mean that when a law’s authors go out of their way to tell us that it is racially motivated there should be a strong (albeit not irrebuttable) presumption that it’s probably unconstitutional, and the fact that there have been a couple of cosmetic changes to it over the years is irrelevant’.
This isn’t a credible response to what Greg or I said. Further, your dislike of a policy isn’t the same thing as saying that a given law is unconstitutional or not. This point seems very difficult for many Americans to grasp. You want to change your constitution? Then try to get it amended.
Unless you believe that a law that was unconstitutional at its inception can morph into a constitutional law over time, then I don’t see the rationale for your hypo about simply repealing and re-enacting. What reasons exist for having such a law today that didn't exist 100 years ago? Does anyone seriously believe that any new reasons wouldn't simply be pretextual?
And it’s not that I, personally, dislike the policy; it’s that I can’t square it with either substantive due process or equal protection. You don’t lose fundamental rights like free speech or the right to a jury trial simply because you have a felony conviction; why should the fundamental right to vote be any different?
‘Does anyone seriously believe that any new reasons wouldn’t simply be pretextual?’.
Yes, most legal scholars think, and most scholars since the 19th century have thought, that the purposes underpinning laws can change over time. To deny that that’s even possible is just to beg the question.
Note, too, that your own latest gripe about the loss of the right to vote as such isn’t, and needn’t be tethered to any racial considerations. Its being stripped can also be rationalized as a form of deterrent and punishment for breaking the law. The question can easily be flipped: why shouldn’t people risk losing the franchise for breaking the law? Why not other rights as well? Ancient Greece and elsewhere had ostracism as a punishment for certain forms of lawbreaking. If you take Socrates’ arguments in The Crito seriously, you also get a fairly sound basis for treating disfranchisement as a legitimate punishment for lawbreaking.
You’ve furthermore no purchase with me when advancing substantive due process nonsense: the doctrine is entirely horseshit and ITSELF unconstitutional. There are good reasons why other, more civilized countries (mine included) consider it to be a debasement of the rule of law, of constitutionalism, and legitimate judicial authority.
Better example -- we shouldn't have Interstate Highways because Hitler invented the concept of limited-access divided highways.
Hitler was racist, but that model of highway isn't.
But what if he's a racist who thinks all Italians are members of the Mafia, and so bans voting by convicted gangsters under the mistaken impression he'll disenfranchise a lot of Italians that way?
But what if, a century later, organized crime becomes Russian rather than Italian?
Krychek,
So, I just want to make sure your position is clear here.
Let's say a law is passed that is racially neutral on its face, as written. But the writers of the law had racially discriminatory motives for passing such a law. The law is amended a couple times over the course of a hundred plus years. And as applied now, the law is also racially neutral, there's no disparate effect.
But because the initial writers of the law had racially discriminatory motives over a hundred year ago, you believe the law is discriminatory and should be overturned? Despite what it actually says, or how it is applied today?
Please correct me if I got anything wrong.
But there is a disparate impact. It impacts blacks far more greatly than it impacts whites. Which is why it was passed in the first place.
But only to the extent that blacks actually ARE committing crimes at a higher rate.
Disparate impact is a totally mindless 'measure' of racism. In a world where different groups actually behave differently, the only way to avoid 'disparate impact' is to implement outright quotas.
Now, I'll admit that a law that exhibits disparate impact could also be a case of outright actual discrimination. Say that the legislature picks some innocuous disparity, and decides to make eating waffles and fried chicken together a felony, or something equally absurd.
But that sort of law is objectionable even if it doesn't exhibit disparate impact! The racist motive is beside the point.
Tip on racial issues from grievance-consumed, autistic right-wing birthers are always a treat.
Ad hominems from people whose own loved ones are going to be Breiviked presently are even more so.
https://www.wsj.com/articles/military-recruiting-crisis-veterans-dont-want-their-children-to-join-510e1a25
Why, after all, would they enlist to fight in foolish global imperialist misadventures when it’s YOU who they really want to kill?
They selected these crimes because blacks commit them at a higher rate and you believe it is racially neutral because blacks do commit those specific crimes at a higher rate. I see.
If the voting provisions from 1890 are invalid, why can’t the court reinstate the suffrage provisions of the Reconstruction constitution (1869)?
“All male inhabitants of this State, except idiots and insane persons, and Indians not taxed, citizens of the United States, or naturalized, twenty-one years old and upwards, who have resided in this State six months, and in the county one month next preceding the day of election at which said inhabitant offers to vote, and who are duly registered, according to the requirements of Section 3 of this Article, and who are not disqualified by reason of any crime, are declared to be qualified electors.”
https://web.archive.org/web/20101008152611/http://mshistory.k12.ms.us/articles/98/index.php?s=extra&id=269
Tweak this a bit to conform to the 19th and 26th amendments to enfranchise women and 18 year olds on the same terms as others, etc.
What crimes disenfranchised you in 1869? Let that be the standard until they can come up with something new, something not discriminatory.
It would break from centuries of established American tradition to prevent idiots from voting.
lol
Did Sowell destroy this Marxist race baiting like did in the Harvard case?
I think you meant Clarence Thomas. (He'd probably appreciate your slip-of-the-tongue. Thomas Sowell is a giant. (As is Clarence Thomas himself, of course.))
How do the restrictions on felon voting compare with other state restrictions?
Has Justice Jackson showed any interest at all in the racist history of gun control laws, say? Of occupational licensing?
Or is she only concerned about the racist origins of laws she doesn't like?
To put it more forcefully, if America is a systemically racist country, if many of its laws are either racist or driven by racial animosity and to perpetuate a racial caste system, and if it’s a white settler colony which imposed white settler colonial laws, then this is true of the American Constitution as well. After all, the Constitution was a compromise amongst the elite white settlers, some at least of whom owned slaves and wanted a constitution which would protect that institution.
Accordingly, the rules that constitute her office of a justice of the US Supreme Court are/were themselves tainted by racism, and so is the Court’s power of judicial review.
In the name of genuine anti-racism, Jackson J should therefore resign from the court and leave the country forever.
🙂
Read the precedent she was discussing maybe.
Turns out another notorious race hustler, Micheal Obama, was rage tweeting about how evil America was yesterday while on a massive yatch off a private island in Greece.
Lunching with Tom Hanks. Life is so rough for the Obama's.
For the Obama's what?
The Volokh Conspiracy . . . Right-wing bigotry by conservative bigots for Republican bigots.
Carry on, clingers. So far as your low-grade bigotry could carry anyone in modern, improving-against-your-wishes America. Until replacement. By your betters.
It is true that "the mere passage of time cannot insulate from constitutional challenge a law that was invidious at its inception." But I'm not yet convinced that all laws which were invidious at inception should be reviewed, as such review might yield surprising results. Be careful little feet where you go!
I found it useful to look at the underlying case, Hunter v. Underwood.
Lazy wiki version:
"The Court identified § 182 as a facially neutral law with racially disproportionate effects, thus requiring an inquiry to discover if the law was passed with a discriminatory purpose."
That's the nut. How do we feel about that 2-step analysis? Not sure I buy it myself.
What if a law mandating fluency in English was intended -- a century ago -- to be anti-immigrant but now is a safety issue (eg air traffic control). Is the past bigotry relevant?