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Probing the Limits of Speech or Debate Clause Privilege for Perry and Pence
The January 6 invistigations have renewed interest in this somewhat obscure constitutional provision and the scope of its protections.
On Thursday, the U.S. Court of Appeals for the D.C. Circuit heard oral argument in a potentially important Speech or Debate Clause case concerning whether the Justice Department can obtain access to the contents of Congressman Scott Perry's cell phone as part of its January 6 investigation. Most of the arguent was public and can be heard here. Judges Katsas and Rao actively probed both sides' arguments so for those interested in these issues it is definitely worth a listen. (Judge Henderson is also on the panel, but asked few questions as she was participating remotely.)
On Friday, district court judge Beryl Howell released a redacted version of her decision rejecting Rep. Perry's Speech or Debate Clause claim was released to the public. (It had previously been under seal.) After conducting in camera review of over 2,000 documents on Rep. Perry's phone, Judge Howell concluded that most were not covered by the Speech or Debate Clause's protection. Wrote Judge Howell:
What is plain is the clause does not shield Rep. Perry's random musings with private individuals touting an expertise in cybersecurity or political discussions with attorneys from a presidential campaign, or with state legislators concerning hearings before them about possible local election fraud or actions they could take to challenge election results in Pennsylvania,
It was hard to get a read on how the D.C. Circuit will weigh Perry's assertion of privilege. While their questions suggested some discomfort with the breadth of the Justice Department's position, which Judge Howell largely adopted, they also seemed resistant to Rep. Perry's equally broad claims pushing in the other direction and accepted that privilege could be waived by communications with those outside of the legislature.
At the same time the courts are considering Rep. Perry's claims, debate is swirling over whether former Vice President Mike Pence can invoke the clause's protections to refuse to testify before a grand jury about his activities on January 6. Pence wants to claim that the he can invoke this privilege because the Vice President serves as President of the Senate, and has a legislative-related role in counting electoral votes. (It also turns out that the Vice President's office is paid for as part of the legislature's budget, not that of the White House.) As noted by Glenn Reynolds (and flagged in Eugene's post below), how to characterize the Vice President's role, and how that affects a Vice President's ability to invoke this privilege in particular circumstances, is a legitimately difficult question.
One reason this is the central question is because Speech or Debate Clause immunity, where it applies, is generally understood to be "absolute." The text reads:
They shall in all Cases, except Treason, Felony and Breach of the Peace, be privileged from Arrest during their Attendance at the Session of their respective Houses, and in going to and returning from the same; and for any Speech or Debate in either House, they shall not be questioned in any other Place.
Courts have interpreted this language, and the admonition that members "shall not be questioned" as a prohibtion on even questioning members of Congress about activities related to core legislative functions. Accordingly, the various cases probing and applying this immunity turn on whether the activities at issue are covered, not on the weight of the interest that would justify disclosure.
For this reason, I think that some of the claims made by Judge Michael Luttig about whether Pence can claim Speech or Debate clause immunity are wrong. In a recent Twitter thread, for instance, Luttig wrote:
If there are privileges and protections enjoyed by a Vice President when he or she serves as the President of the Senate during the Joint Session to count the electoral votes, those privileges and protections would yield to the demands of criminal process as -- if not sooner than -- do the Speech or Debate Clause privileges and protections for Senators and Representatives, and the Executive Privilege for Presidents of the United States.
In his more recent NYT op-ed, "Mike Pence's Dangerous Gambit," (which Josh Blackman discussed here), Luttig also writes:
Even if a vice president has speech or debate clause protections, they will yield to a federal subpoena to appear before the grand jury.
I do not believe these claims are accurate. If the Vice President is covered by the speech or debate clause when participating in the counting of electoral votes, they will not "yield to the demands of criminal process." The privilege includes a testimonial privilege ("shall not be questioned"), and is generally understood as absolute, if it applies. [Again, the key question is whether it applies, not whether it can yield.] Further, it is also not true that Executive Privilege necessarily "yields to the demands of criminal process." As U.S. v. Nixon makes clear, this depends, in part, on the reasons for which Executive Privilege is being invoked, as such reasons must be balanced against the needs of criminal process.
While I accept that the Vice President is, for some purposes, a part of the legislative branch, I am skeptical that his largely ceremonial role in the electoral count act is covered by the Speech or Debate Clause. I further wonder whether any such privilege that Pence could claim has been waived because some of his staff have already testified on these matters. But if Pence is unable to claim privilege here, it is not because the Justice Department is conducting a criminal investigation, but rather because the particular information the Justice Department seeks is not that which the privilege actually covers.
UPDATE: See my follow-up post here.
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Can we transfer the comments from EV's post below or do we need to start all over?
Rather that dwell in the past, let's focus on the future:
Which Volokh Conspirator will be the first to go Full Dilbert (launch a bigoted rant so severe it costs him a job, or perhaps even -- just talking theoretically here, of course -- a spot at this blog)?
In which southern federal court district will that Conspirator sue, seeking "cancel culture" damages (even if he resigns)?
So...repost the same thing all over.
Sorry if I missed this somewhere, but what about the Speaker of the House? He/She is notably not required to be a "member" of Congress, and if he's not, would his immunity likewise be in question...?
An interesting question which I haven't seen being mentioned in any of the posts or comments.
I just re-read Article II and noticed that there is NOTHING about either immunity nor protection for arrest for the PRESIDENT.
So could the President be sued for libel? Or arrested by some hick Sheriff???
A former President of the United States is entitled to absolute immunity from damages liability predicated on his official acts. Nixon v. Fitzgerald, 457 U.S. 731, 749 (1982). Such immunity from damages liability lies for acts within the "outer perimeter" of his official responsibility. Id., at 756.
But that's not constitutional immunity. That's pulled out of judges' nether orifices immunity.
Members of Congress have the real thing. Sadly, the pulled out of orifices immunity is the better sort to have, because judges actually feel obligated to defend their own creations.
To paraphrase the late Donald Rumsfeld, we go to court with the law we have, not the law we wish we had.
Exactly. As a practicing lawyer, I advise clients on what the law is, not on what my a priori political beliefs suggest it should be.
The president has been granted absolute immunity from civil suits for damages. I have not researched whether this follows from the principle of sovereign immunity or whether this immunity was made up by judges to prevent nuisance suits.
[citation needed]
Nas,
Look it up. Don't be so lazy.
I think that Mike Pence can claim some privilege for his own deliberative process to decide if he would or could reject vote certification. But that is limited, and I think he is obligated to accept the subpoena and answer question he feels are not privileged. In rejecting the subpoena, he rejects giving any information.
In Scott Perry's case the rejection seems to be to protect himself from criminal prosecution and that can only be addressed by his invoking of the fifth.
The Special Counsel is reportedly filing a pre-emptive motion to compel Mike Pence's testimony before the grand jury. https://www.theguardian.com/us-news/2023/feb/23/mike-pence-january-6-motion-compel-testimony?amp;amp;amp
Unless and until Pence either appears in response to the subpoena and asserts privileges or moves to quash the subpoena, I have my doubts as to whether the Special Counsel's filing is ripe.
I may be misunderstanding your second paragraph, but according to Judge Powell's decision, both parties agreed that the Speech and Debate Clause has no fraud or crime exception. So for whatever documents are covered by the clause, the protection is absolute.
Concur - "They shall in all Cases, except Treason, Felony and Breach of the Peace, be privileged from Arrest during their Attendance at the Session of their respective Houses, and in going to and returning from the same; and for any Speech or Debate in either House, they shall not be questioned in any other Place. "
Did a Senator and/Representative commit a felony for discussing whether a contemplated action would or would not be a felony. Did Pence or Perry commit a felony when they explored whether Eastman's legal analysis was correct. Did they commit a felony when they started to put into place such actions based on an initial analysis that indicated Eastman's proposal had merit, even though the later abandoned the plan when further legal analysis showed it had no merit? this is a what if / hypothetical question- I am making no representation as to whether either Pence or Perry had engaged in such steps - only questioning if the felony exclusion would apply in such a case.
The privilege from arrest is analytically distinct from the Speech or Debate Clause. No one contemplates arresting Pence, and Perry has not been arrested — his Speech or Debate claim applies to the seizure of his phone pursuant to a search warrant.
Convert the semicolon to a period to get a better idea of how to parse that. Felony is a reason to arrest them while going to or from Congress. It's not, however, a reason to arrest (or question) them for any speech or debate in Congress.
As I commented on Professor Volokh's post, the Speech or Debate Clause — assuming arguendo it applies — is not an impediment to Pence appearing before the grand jury and testifying. In Gravel v. United States, 408 U.S. 606 (1972), SCOTUS considered whether a Senate aide who had been subpoenaed before a grand jury shared the Senator’s constitutional privilege. “Because the claim is that a Member’s aide shares the Member’s constitutional privilege, we consider first whether and to what extent Senator Gravel himself is exempt from process or inquiry by a grand jury investigating the commission of a crime.” Id., at 613.
The Court there opined “The Speech or Debate Clause was designed to assure a co-equal branch of the government wide freedom of speech, debate, and deliberation without intimidation or threats from the Executive Branch. It thus protects Members against prosecutions that directly impinge upon or threaten the legislative process.” Id., at 616. Here Pence attempts to wield the privilege, not as a shield against intimidation or threats from the Executive Branch, but as a sword to block inquiry into exactly such threats as were made against him.
“The courts have extended the [Speech or Debate] privilege to matters beyond pure speech or debate in either House, but ‘only when necessary to prevent indirect impairment of such deliberations.'” Id., at 625, quoting United States v. Doe, 455 F.2d 753, 760 (1st Cir. 1972). The instant subpoena to Pence seeks to inquire into the effort of third party criminal actors to effectuate impairment of a legislative function.
The Gravel Court opined, “The grand jury, therefore, if relevant to its investigation into the possible violations of the criminal law, and absent Fifth Amendment objections, may require from [Sen. Gravel’s aide] Rodberg answers to questions . . . with respect to third-party conduct under valid investigation by the grand jury, as long as the questions do not implicate legislative action of the Senator.” 408 U.S. at 628.
The Court there delineated areas of grand jury questioning which are forbidden under Speech or Debate protections:
408 U.S. at 628-29 (footnote omitted; emphasis added). The exception to category (4) would apply here — prosecutors are inquiring into criminal conduct of third party actors, not the conduct of Pence or his aides.
Do you have a sense of how the court carved this exception out of the text of the Speech and Debate Clause? Preparing for a subcommittee hearing would seem to be a core legislative activity which should be otherwise covered. Is the privilege not as absolute as the OP suggests?
“The Speech or Debate Clause was designed to assure a co-equal branch of the government wide freedom of speech, debate, and deliberation without intimidation or threats from the Executive Branch. It thus protects Members against prosecutions that directly impinge upon or threaten the legislative process.”
When the Court said this, it was interpreting the Speech or Debate Clause. It is not obvious from the text alone that the "legislative process" more broadly is something that is granted protection beyond things that are said by members of Congress themselves as they speak and debate such matters in congressional chambers. Why would the legislative process need protection beyond that? The executive branch can only enforce laws passed by Congress, after all.
Any intimidation or threats of members of Congress for what they say (beyond that which is already protected by the 1st Amendment) should have no teeth unless the courts have been fully captured by the executive. And Congress has all kinds of ways to retaliate unilaterally against the Executive for such behavior as well, including impeachment and removal from office if nothing else works.
To me, this looks like one of those many things that the Court has created out of a desire to defend "separation of powers" and the like from hypothetical threats without considering the real consequences of making these privileges so broad.
That all makes sense, but I would point out that separation of powers is just one justification for the clause. Without it, couldn't any citizen sue a member of Congress for their speech and/or actions while in session? I don't think separation of powers issues is the only consideration here.
Admittedly, the Bill of Rights wasn't part of the Constitution when first drafted and ratified, but all of the court cases looking at the Speech and Debate Clause only had to consider what privileges it gave to members of Congress beyond what the 1st Amendment already protected. I can't think of any basis for a lawsuit that a citizen could use to sue a member of Congress for something they said as part of their legislative duties that wouldn't already be covered by the 1st Amendment.
That's the whole issue, as I see it. The Speech and Debate Clause is mostly redundant with Freedom of Speech as far as protecting members of Congress. The only way it goes further is in not being questioned anywhere else at all. And for that, I think it more appropriate to limit the privilege to things that they actually say in Congress rather than make it overly broad.
They can’t be “questioned” as to what they said, but they can be prosecuted for it, or sued. Just being a textualist here.
Being a "textualist" does not mean applying your own colloquial definitions to words. When a defendant is served with a lawsuit, what must he do to avoid a default judgment? He must file an "answer". Similarly, a criminal charge requires an answer to the charge. "How do you plead?" is a question, is it not? A formal civil or criminal charge is, in and of itself, being questioned for something.
Yours is an interesting point: demurrer occurs prior to the question of plea.
Many (most?) states have followed the federal practice of abolishing demurrers, and at any rate the obligation to demur seems consistent with the substance of F.D. Wolf’s point.
While the Volokh Conspirators remain conspicuously quiet concerning prominent events of the day (those that reflect poorly on culture war casualties, mostly), they seem collectively garrulous regarding this point. Why? Do they possess inside information -- again -- that movement conservatives would prefer to keep concealed?
I said this before, but the thing that drives me nuts about this argument is that if it is true, the Vice President, a totally unimportant office (not worth a bucket of warm spit, as John Nance Garner said), has the strongest privileges in the entire government. Under the Duck Hunting case (wrongly decided) it already holds an executive privilege, and now it would hold a legislative privilege as well. Insane.
It does seem crazy, but might this be caused by the Constitution making the VP president of the Senate, rather than any subsequent interpretation by courts? In terms of the separation of powers, that was a crazy thing for the framers to do. Of course they weren't envisioning a Vice-President chosen by the Presidential candidate and approved by a political party.
It does seem crazy, but might this be caused by the Constitution making the VP president of the Senate, rather than any subsequent interpretation by courts?
The Constitution only protects Speech and Debate within the houses. It is only subsequent interpretation by courts that extends that to anything said or done outside of them. Executive privilege doesn't exist at all in the Constitution, so it is entirely a matter of interpretation by courts.
Other than the speech or debate clause's protection against questioning actual Senators and House members, all of this is judge made. Executive privilege isn't in the constitutional text, and neither is speech and debate clause protection outside the context of questioning members of Congress for a speech or debate.
Now that doesn't make it wrong. I'm a proponent of common law judging. But it does mean this isn't some fault of the framers. If we are giving way too many legal protections for a minor officeholder who should basically hold no privileges at all, that's on the courts.
Right, but you seem to be assuming that the Vice-President is not covered by the Speech and Debate Clause for actions he takes as the President of the Senate, which may be true, I don't know. But the fact that it's even arguable is on the framers.
I think the constitutional text is clear that the Vice President is not a Senator despite being President of the Senate. But if one were to indulge the dumb argument that the speech or debate clause is ambiguous, the fact that the Vice President does not in fact participate in speeches or debates and the fact that granting the Veep a legislative privilege on top of her executive privilege is terrible policy should resolve the matter. This is a very easy case.
In Gravel v. United States (1972), the Supreme Court held that the Speech or Debate Clause applied to a Senator's legislative aide. Obviously, a legislative aide is not a Senator, so clearly the privilege extends at least some point beyond the members of Congress themselves. The Court held the aide had immunity in an act to the extent the Senator would have had immunity if he had done the act himself. The Court used the phrase "alter-ego" of the Senator to describe the aide.
The Constitution says the Vice President is the President of the Senate. A "president" presides. Per the Constitution, in the absence of the Vice President, the President pro tem of the Senate, who is a Senator elected to his position by other Senators, presides over the Senate. Does the President pro tem enjoy the protection of the Clause when he presides over the Senate? Would it not be curious if the Acting President of the Senate enjoyed an immunity the actual President of the Senate did not himself enjoy?
An aide is an agent of a Senator. The Veep is not (and indeed is not a Senator).
The President Pro Tem is a Senator, the Veep is not.
These are easy questions.
You know damned well people will argue since he's in form of legislator, executive privilege would not apply here.
It's my understanding that the warm substance referred to by Garner was not "spit."
It might not have been but nobody knows for sure because it was reported as "spit". The issue of whether the reporters were sanitizing the statement for public consumption is unresolveable.
It depends on what role the VP is serving at the moment, doesn’t it?
When the VP is acting as President of the Senate, he or she has legislative privilege but not executive. When acting as a representative of the president, it’s the other way around. Not both privileges at once, but each according to circumstance.
The Veep does not speak or debate in the Senate, but only casts tie-breaking votes. So no, she doesn't have a speech or debate privilege. If you want to argue she has some other legislative privilege while occupying her ceremonial position, fine, but it's going to be really narrow.
I believe the clause is generally construed to prohibit questioning members of Congress about their votes, as well as their speeches.
Seventeenth century parliamentarians generally referred to "freedom of speech" as encompassing the votes by members of Parliament, not just their statements. Voting is an expressive activity.
Dilan, I pointed this out on Twitter in response to you, but:
1) That's the bowdlerized version of what Garner said.
2) That was not the holding of the 'duck hunting case,' as you call it.
Can he even waive it? It says, "shall not be questioned".
This would seem to be in the context of states and other branches not getting in the way of Congress in session, but even voluntary testimony is subject to arm twisting.
That is a good question. The English antecedent of the Speech and Debate Clause is parliamentary privilege, contained in the English Bill of Rights 1689. a consequence of the Glorious Revolution of 1688, in which Parliament deposed James II and replaced him with William I:
I believe the position there is that the privilege CANNOT be waived by a single member, as the privilege is seen as belonging to the Parliament as a whole, and that to allow a single member to waive it would defeat the purpose of MPs being able to speak freely without fear of consequences.
But, one might note, the slight variations in wording between it and the Speech or Debate clause, which seems to be more directly worded as an individual, rather than a collective privilege:
A minor historical quibble — James II was replaced by his daughter Mary II and her husband William III as co-rulers. William I, better known as William the Conqueror, became King of England after defeating Harold at the Battle of Hastings in 1066. His son became William II.
In addition to being James’ son-in-law, William III was also James’ nephew. His mother also named Mary was James’ older sister. There was a lot of intermarriage among the royal houses of Europe.
Your corrections are noted and appreciated.
F.D. Wolf — The analogy of Congress to Parliament is inapplicable. But your comment points to an abiding deficiency in American constitutionalism which the framers overlooked, and which might wisely be corrected by an amendment.
The analogy is flawed because Parliament is sovereign and Congress is not. In the British system, the government is the sovereign. In the American system, the People are jointly sovereign, and constrain government. There is no legitimate way to analogize government functions within such disparate systems.
The overlooked constitutional deficiency is that the framers omitted to create any structural manifestation of their power to constrain government at pleasure, save elections. As recent political antics have demonstrated, that omission is a practical flaw in the American scheme of government—a flaw serious enough to cast in doubt continuation of American constitutionalism itself.
If a would-be rival to the People for their sovereignty arises from government, and elects to pursue a struggle to delegitimize an election, a contest for sovereignty has already begun. That creates a danger that the considerable powers of government could be hijacked to further the success of the rival.
That points toward a need for a 4th branch of government, fully endowed with sovereign power, but very narrowly constrained in that power’s exercise, to minimize disruption of the present system. It should be a branch with members chosen directly by the People, and endowed by them with only two powers: a power to investigate government, and a power to punish defiance of its investigations.
The power to punish should not extend to loss of life, or to cruel and unusual punishments. It should otherwise be unlimited power, exercised with the full discretion sovereignty implies, and without appeal to the courts. That last is indispensable, or the power will cease to be sovereign, and lapse back to the ineffectuality present means of investigation have suffered, at unacceptable risk to the nation.
Wise use of that 4th branch investigatory power might predictably require vigor enough to force prompt compliance with every inquiry. Whatever punishments the 4th branch applies against defiance should not be subject to the pardon power.
In short, targets of the 4th branch’s investigations must be made to understand they face power which cannot be delayed, evaded or gamed. The sovereign’s needs for information to constrain government must be understood as absolute.
The 4th branch’s jurisdiction should extend only to sworn members of government, and to all candidates for federal office who have formally announced their candidacy. Other citizens, as members of the joint sovereignty, should not be targeted. They should continue instead to be understood as the larger manifestation of the joint power which the 4th branch exercises.
What to do with information which constitute fruits of its investigations should be a matter for the 4th branch’s members to decide at its own discretion, and without interference or appeal. The 4th branch should have power at all times to make any information it discovers public, or to keep it secret, as in their estimate the sovereign needs of the nation to constrain government require. Any actions consequent to that information should then be for the other branches of government to carry out, at their own discretion, after receiving the information from the 4th branch.
The People can then rely on their electoral power to constrain any defiance which might arise from government. They will be empowered to act as they please in accord with information the 4th branch may supply them. That is what continuation of popular sovereignty can now be seen to require.
I would greatly appreciate hearing comments pro or con to this suggestion. To anticipate possible objections, please consider before replying whether what you suggest implies overthrow of joint popular sovereignty as the means by which this nation will govern itself.
I get that many libertarians, who typically oppose popular sovereignty, will object on that basis. For them, I suggest they instead reply with a counter-suggestion, specifying a practical means other than sovereign power to constrain government, and to vindicate rights for citizens.
That sounds nice in theory, but in reality, it will be just as partisan and corrupt as the rest of the government.
What we need is a system where “politician” isn’t a profession but a temporary civic duty, we don’t have unaccountable civil servants in or not in “independent agencies” with lawmaking powers, and federal police and intelligence communities that are immune from transparency and accountability, a court system where the “head of the snake” (the DC Circuit) isn't disgustingly corrupt and 50% of our economy isn’t controlled by one class of people, the Federals, who all live in a gilded age around D.C.
No matter how many times Lathrop says it, "The analogy is flawed because Parliament is sovereign and Congress is not. In the British system, the government is the sovereign. In the American system, the People are jointly sovereign", is not true.
I have to obey whatever Congress, with the consent of the President or a two-thirds majority, says. I don't have to obey ANYTHING that "people", including even a majority of the public, says. Because the government is sovereign and the People are not.
The framers were propagandists who thought saying crap like "the People were sovereign" would fool the marks into agreeing to the Constitution. Unfortunately some people are still easy marks.
Kind of weird that the framers structured the government as a Republic, with unelected Senators, and a President selected by an unelected electoral college if what they were aiming for is a pure democracy, or at least relatively pure democracy.
Your 4th branch of government looks a lot like the House of Representatives, elected every 2 years directly by the people, with the power to impeach, subpoena, and most importantly withhold supply to the government.
You just don't like the results of the current house. But you kind of give away the game when you say this "4th branch" can order facts kept secret from the people. All you are doing there is creating another power structure to thwart the will of the people.
And as for making the *4th branch" immune from court review, well that can hardly end well as Algernon Sidney could tell you. As flawed as our court system may be, no other institution in the entire history of the world has done a better job of protecting individual rights than the US court system. Letting any other branch override that just won't be permitted by the people, even if the fiercest proponent is the mob, and don't confuse the two.
Kazinski, nothing I mentioned proposed to remove from the courts whatever power to defend individual rights they currently enjoy. That would not change at all.
Under the proposed constitutional amendment, what the courts could not do is:
– Empower against the sovereign's newly-created 4th branch an action based on an inapplicable doctrine of separation of powers, which can only be applied to the other three branches.
Note that the proposed 4th branch would be constitutionally powerless to disturb separation of powers anyway. Its constitutional mandate would explicitly limit it to a power to require information and enforce its collection, and would deny it power to do anything else.
Thus, what is asserted is merely a power for the sovereign itself—bypassing untoward government self-interest—to collect directly whatever information it must have legitimately to constrain government. The actual means of government constraint would remain, as before, the sovereign's electoral powers, plus the impeachment powers granted to Congress.
Note also there is nothing partisan in this proposal. No political party would be advantaged by it over any other.
Sorry I misinterpreted this: “The power to punish should not extend to loss of life, or to cruel and unusual punishments. It should otherwise be unlimited power, exercised with the full discretion sovereignty implies, and without appeal to the courts. ”
So being able to fine or imprison people, even if government officials, short of torture and executions, with no recourse to the courts won’t affect individual rights? And they don’t even need a law passed first spelling out what conduct is forbidden?
Excuse me for thinking you are a lunatic, but I do have one suggestion that you might find helpful don't call it something esoteric or confusing like the 4th Branch, call it something catchy like the "Star Chamber".
Kazinski, the forbidden conduct will be spelled out. It will be forbidden to defy a subpoena, or commit perjury during testimony. Courts are empowered to punish that conduct already, under authority granted to them by the sovereign. The sovereign could not have delegated to the courts a power it did not have itself.
As I suppose you can see, your commentary does insist on the objection I anticipated. You do in effect deny that American constitutionalism is founded on popular sovereignty.
I expected replies which would say that. I know that for more than a century school children were taught an ahistorical theory of government, one which omitted from American constitutionalism any notion of sovereignty. Probably that was done for the sake of simplicity of instruction. Possibly it was done at times to spare tender feelings a too-early confrontation with the fiercer aspects of governance.
Nevertheless, it remains unambiguous—in the historical record, and in the nation's founding documents—that the founders made popular sovereignty American constitutionalism's keystone. The structure that keystone held up, the grade-school teachers have not yet knocked down. At worst, the teachers' exertions raised clouds of dust through which the structural principle became hard to discern.
Apparently, you thus grew up without glimpsing that metaphor of structural integrity. Your thinking evokes a contrasting metaphor—reliance on belief in what amounts to a notion of decapitated constitutionalism. It attributed all power to government—the nation's bone, muscle, and sinew—but lopped off the nation's head—the source of agency, organization, and intent. You looked no farther.
That such a notion severed willy-nilly any coherent capacity to achieve constraint of government did not occur to you. Nor did you notice that your reasoning orphaned from the reach of protective power an individual citizen's dream to vindicate his personal rights. It did not occur to you that a Court to which you attributed ultimate power, would someday inevitably betray your reliance, and thus become an ultimately empowered agent to oppress your rights. What you lost track of was the crucial difference between a government which excluded you, and excluded others who shared your interests, and a joint popular sovereignty, which included you, and included others who shared your interests.
In all that you were in plentiful company, and got no clue from like-thinking comrades. See above, for instance, for Dilan Esper's cynical denial, which makes alleged government sovereignty explicit. While unaccountable judges wield power to abolish rights with impunity, Esper's cynicism leaves him without recourse. He has already conceded the judges' power to do it.
After struggling through those confusions, of course it comes as a shock to you now, to be asked to consider renewal of the founders' insistence on a real power of government constraint. Please try to consider that founders who were wise enough to suppose that separation of powers could encourage normatively a thoughtful constraint among officeholders, were not foolish enough to suppose real force would never be needed. You must consider now, as the founders already did long ago, what must be done with real power, while cynical officeholders choose to disregard mere norms.
Separately, on the history question, you apparently have no idea what the Star Chamber was, or what powers it purported to exercise at various times, or how those changed over time, or why the Star Chamber finally became notorious by its mistake to punish arbitrarily religious dissenters, who had not sworn oaths at all, but instead in some cases refused them.
As an aside, I hope it does not exasperate you that I refer to oaths with a presumption that they mean something, and ought to be both honored and enforced.
I can’t say that this is the absolute stupidest government reform I’ve ever heard, but it’s certainly up there.
That said, since your expounding on your rather idiosyncratic heterodox constitutional theories seems to bring you pleasure and there’s no chance of anyone else taking them seriously, please don’t stop.
I am inclined to agree that “they shall not be questioned in any other place” means if it’s covered, he can’t even be called in for questioning, so can’t be hauled in and then made to assert the privelege on a question-by-question basis.
"I am inclined to agree that 'they shall not be questioned in any other place' means if it’s covered, he can’t even be called in for questioning, so can’t be hauled in and then made to assert the privelege [sic] on a question-by-question basis."
Senator Mike Gravel contended that his assistant Leonard S. Rodberg could not be summoned before a grand jury to testify. SCOTUS reasoned that the aide's immunity was comparable to that of the Senator himself. The Court rejected the Senator's contention, opining:
Gravel v. United States, 408 U.S. 606, 622 (1972).
That doesn't make sense, since only a question-by-question basis will reveal whether the questionee is being asked about something covered by the S&D clause in the first place.
Also, I am skeptical that it is covered in Vice President Pence’s case. But it is not so obviously not covered as to make Vice President Pence’s position frivolous. There may be good political or patriotic reasons why Vice President Pence should want to testify, and Judge Luttig’s reprobation of him for not doing so may be justifiable as political commentary. But these are not the same things as legal reasons he should be required to. His legal position may not prevail but it is not so absurd as Judge Luttig makes out.
Well once again we have the very recent Lindsey Graham case which held that Graham could be questioned in another place for communications that were not far different in character than Pence and Perry are being subpoenaed for.
However the Supreme Court in an unsigned decision, without any dissent, made clear, that while Graham could be questioned there were severe limitations in what the questions could be, and as soon as Graham felt the questions impinged in his speech and debate immunity he didn’t have to answer until he had a chance to dispute that specific question:
The lower courts assumed that the informal investigative fact-finding that Senator Graham assertedly engaged in constitutes legislative activity protected by the Speech orDebate Clause U. S. Const. Art. I, §6, cl. 1, and they held that Senator Graham may not be questioned about such activities. The lower courts also made clear that Senator Graham may return to the District Court should disputes arise regarding the application of the Speech or Debate Clause immunity to specific questions . Accordingly, a stay or injunction is not necessary to safeguard the Senator’s Speech or Debate Clause immunity.”
While they didn’t say anything about Pence I think they will extend that ruling to Pence as President of the Senate too. It’s not too big of a stretch to say the President of the Senate qualifies as a Senator, after all if the the VP casts the deciding vote on a bill does anybody question whether “the Senate” really acted? And if the “informal investigative fact finding” of a Senator is protected, how could a the President of the Senate, who may have to cast a vote, and rule on questions, not also be protected?
"It’s not too big of a stretch to say the President of the Senate qualifies as a Senator, after all if the the VP casts the deciding vote on a bill does anybody question whether “the Senate” really acted?"
Yes, it is. He's the Vice President - which is specifically NOT a Senator.
Words have meanings. They don't change just because it's politically convenient.
Well as a pretty strict textualist I'm inclined to agree with you, I might even go further and exclude "informal investigative fact finding", because it's not a speech or debate.
However the weight of all the precedents disagrees with both of us.
Let's though consider a hypothetical: The VP is in Maryland and is called telling him that there is vote coming up in a matter of hours that is potentially tied in the Senate, the governor of Maryland desperately wants the vote to fail and tells the State police to stop the VP's motorcade and arrest the VP for an unpaid ticket.
Is the VP immune from arrest based on the "privileged from Arrest during their Attendance at the Session of their respective Houses", or is he in the same boat as any other citizen?
I think any court in any venue is going to say a VP going to cast a vote in the Senate is privileged from arrest the same as any Senator.
There are any number of reasons why a state couldn’t do that.
The privilege extended to senators doesn’t seem like one of them.
They could do it to you or I, but its a hypothetical.
The question is whether Mike Pence has constitutional protection against arrest when the senate is in session, I think its a slam dunk the courts would find that he did. They might even find that he was protected against arrest when the Senate was not in session, but the grounds would likely be different.
In general, people are prevented from instrumental arrests ordered by the governor.
So this is solving a hypothetical problem that is already solved.
I don't believe so, no.
I would hold that anything the actual President could be arrested for (say for instance, shooting someone dead on 5th Ave. in cold blood) is something for which the VP could also face arrest.
And yes, I absolutely believe that the President could be arrested for such an action prior to impeachment.
Can you point to anything in the constitution that says the president or vice president can not be arrested for a misdemeanor?
Nope, but I believe there's likely a reasonable legal argument why they cannot be.
I'd probably find such an argument far more appealing than the "DOJ policy" of sitting Presidents being immune from indictment for anything.
The Seventeenth Amendment says that “ The Senate of the United States shall be composed of two Senators from each State, elected by the people thereof”.
Which state elected Pence to be a senator?
I didn't realize you were such a textualist.
Really? Could you point to a single time when I’ve advocated a non-textualist approach to constitutional or statutory interpretation?
Why are RepooplicKKKunts such whiny little bitches?? Maybe try to win elections and then you won’t have to whine about losing so much??
I wonder if the DOJ is going to subpoena the phone records of all those FBI agents that were seen pushing citizens into the building?
Spellcheck, or at least have someone else read the post: