The Volokh Conspiracy
Mostly law professors | Sometimes contrarian | Often libertarian | Always independent
S. Ct. Denies Review of Eighth Circuit En Banc Case Upholding Arkansas "Anti-BDS" Statute
The statute required no-boycott-of-Israel terms in Arkansas government contracts; the Eighth Circuit had held that the law doesn't violate the First Amendment.
This isn't a judgment on the merits by the Supreme Court, and doesn't set a nationwide precedent; the result may end up being different in other circuits, and the Court might yet revisit the question in the future, especially if some other circuit does disagree with the Eighth. (A similar case is now pending in the Fifth Circuit.) Still, this is practically something of a victory for the anti-BDS forces; I quote below my post from last year on the Eighth Circuit case:
[* * *]
From [the] Eighth Circuit en banc opinion in Arkansas Times LP v. Waldrip, written by Judge Jonathan Kobes (I think it's basically correct, for reasons given by Profs. Michael Dorf and Andrew Koppelman and me in our amicus brief in the case, and see Prof. Dorf's follow-up post):
Arkansas Act 710 prohibits state entities from contracting with private companies unless the contract includes a certification that the company "is not currently engaged in, and agrees for the duration of the contract not to engage in, a boycott of Israel." The statute defines "boycott of Israel" as "engaging in refusals to deal, terminating business activities, or other actions that are intended to limit commercial relations with Israel, or persons or entities doing business in Israel or in Israeli-controlled territories, in a discriminatory manner." The Act exempts contracts if a company provides goods or services for at least 20% less than the lowest certifying business, or if the contract has a total potential value of less than $1,000.
The court held that boycotts, in the sense of refusals to engage in commercial dealings, generally aren't protected by the First Amendment, and therefore imposing a no-boycott requirement as a contractual provision isn't unconstitutional, either:
The government imposes an unconstitutional condition when it requires someone to give up a constitutional right in exchange for a government benefit. This includes making government benefits contingent on endorsing a particular message or agreeing not to engage in protected speech.
The basic dispute in this case is whether "boycotting Israel" only covers unexpressive commercial conduct, or whether it also prohibits protected expressive conduct. Arkansas Times points us to N.A.A.C.P. v. Claiborne Hardware Co. (1982), which held that expressive conduct accompanying a boycott is protected by the First Amendment. The State, on the other hand, argues that Rumsfeld v. Forum for Academic & Institutional Rights, Inc. (FAIR) (2006) controls. There, the Supreme Court held that First Amendment protection does not extend to non-expressive conduct intended to convey a political message.
Claiborne involved a boycott of white business owners organized by the N.A.A.C.P. The participants refused to purchase anything from white-owned businesses and encouraged support for the boycott with speeches, marches, and picketing. But some participants took it further, committing acts of violence against those who opposed the boycott. White business owners sued to recover physical and economic losses caused by the boycott and enjoin future boycotts. So the question before the Court was whether the activities in support of the boycott, both peaceful and violent, were protected.
The Court first noted that the boycott "took many forms," including speeches, picketing, marches, and pamphleteering. It then held that the boycott "clearly involved constitutionally protected activity" and that "[e]ach of these elements of the boycott is a form of speech or conduct that is ordinarily entitled to protection under the First and Fourteenth Amendments." The Court held that the violence and threats that accompanied the boycott were "beyond the pale of constitutional protection." So Claiborne instructs us to examine the elements of a boycott to determine which activities are constitutionally protected.
FAIR, on the other hand, dealt with a different issue—whether the First Amendment protects non-expressive conduct. In FAIR, several law schools banned military recruiters on campus in protest of the military's "don't ask, don't tell" policy. Congress then passed the Solomon Amendment, which conditioned some federal funding on allowing military recruiters on campus. The law schools sued, arguing that this limited their speech by prohibiting expressive conduct—i.e., banning military recruitment on campus. The Court disagreed, holding that the law schools' refusal to allow military recruiters did not implicate the First Amendment because such a refusal was "not inherently expressive." The Court made clear that the question wasn't whether someone intended to express an idea, but whether a neutral observer would understand that they're expressing an idea. In that case, an observer would have no way of knowing the law school was expressing disapproval of the military without accompanying explanatory speech. An observer could assume that the law school's interview rooms were full, or that the recruiters preferred to interview off-campus. But the Court made clear that only the schools' non-expressive conduct was unprotected. The law schools were still free to express their disapproval of "don't ask, don't tell" in other ways, such as posting signs and organizing student protests.
Arkansas Times argues that Act 710 runs afoul of Claiborne, which it suggests held that boycotts are protected under the First Amendment. But the Court stopped short of declaring that a "boycott" itself—that is, the refusal to purchase from a business¾is protected by the First Amendment. Instead, it acknowledged that "States have broad power to regulate economic activity," but held that this power does not allow for a prohibition on "peaceful political activity such as that found in the boycott in this case." Contrary to Arkansas Times's argument, Claiborne only discussed protecting expressive activities accompanying a boycott, rather than the purchasing decisions at the heart of a boycott….
So this case turns on what Act 710 bans: protected boycott-related activity, or non-expressive commercial decisions? … Act 710 prohibits public entities from contracting with companies unless they certify that they won't boycott Israel. It defines "boycott of Israel" as (1) "engaging in refusals to deal"; (2) "terminating business activities"; or (3) taking "other actions that are intended to limit commercial relations with Israel, or persons or entities doing business in Israel or in Israeli-controlled territories," "in a discriminatory manner."
The third category is in dispute. Arkansas Times argues that the catch-all "other actions" language includes constitutionally protected activity that is intended to limit commercial relations with Israel. This interpretation implicates protected speech, such as picketing outside a business that has commercial relations with Israel. The State, on the other hand, argues that the statute only prohibits non-expressive commercial decisions, which are not protected under the First Amendment.
Under Arkansas's canons of statutory interpretation [constitutional avoidance, following legislative intent, and ejusdem generis], we think the Arkansas Supreme Court would read Act 710 as prohibiting purely commercial, non-expressive conduct. It does not ban Arkansas Times from publicly criticizing Israel, or even protesting the statute itself. It only prohibits economic decisions that discriminate against Israel. Because those commercial decisions are invisible to observers unless explained, they are not inherently expressive and do not implicate the First Amendment….
And the court rejected the argument that the mere requirement that contractors certify compliance with the law is unconstitutional "compelled speech":
[T]he certification requirement here is markedly different from other compelled speech cases. Although it requires contractors to agree to a contract provision they would otherwise not include, it does not require them to publicly endorse or disseminate a message. Instead, the certification targets the noncommunicative aspect of the contractors' conduct—unexpressive commercial choices. The "speech" aspect— signing the certification—is incidental to the regulation of conduct. See FAIR ("There is nothing in this case approaching a Government-mandated pledge or motto that the school must endorse. The compelled speech to which the law schools point is plainly incidental to the Solomon Amendment's regulation of conduct.").
We are not aware of any cases where a court has held that a certification requirement concerning unprotected, nondiscriminatory conduct is unconstitutionally compelled speech. A factual disclosure of this kind, aimed at verifying compliance with unexpressive conduct-based regulations, is not the kind of compelled speech prohibited by the First Amendment.
Judge Jane Kelly filed a solo dissent; she would have interpreted the "other actions" provision to include constitutionally protected speech, and concluded that this makes the statute unconstitutional. (She didn't opine on whether the statute was constitutional under the majority's narrower interpretation.) For more on the statutory construction dispute, see here.
Editor's Note: We invite comments and request that they be civil and on-topic. We do not moderate or assume any responsibility for comments, which are owned by the readers who post them. Comments do not represent the views of Reason.com or Reason Foundation. We reserve the right to delete any comment for any reason at any time. Comments may only be edited within 5 minutes of posting. Report abuses.
Please
to post comments
If no one has standing to challenge Biden's illegal student loan vote buying, no one should have standing to challenge this either.
Any company that wants to boycott Israel and also wants to do business with the State of Arkansas would have standing to challenge this.
On the merits, I think this is the right decision, even though I would have voted against this legislation were I a member of the Arkansas legislature. In point of fact, governments use their power to promote and discourage desired outcomes in the market all the time. Philosophically, how is this different from a policy that the state won’t do business with companies that practice employment discrimination against minorities?
You can always find a distinction, but I think it's just as compelling to say that someone whose loan wasn't forgiven is being harmed, violating equal protection.
I think forgiving a loan is essentially giving them a gift. If the government gives a gift to someone, is it then required to give the same gift to everyone else?
Isn't that how kindergarten Christmas cards worked?
Why not?
Because the nature of a gift is that merit has nothing to do with it, nor does it create an entitlement in someone else. If the government for some reason decided to give me Yellowstone National Park for my birthday, I don't think that would create any obligation for it to give a comparable gift to anyone else. It's their property and they can do with it as they wish. And in fact, Congress occasionally has voted gifts to people, usually in appreciation for some service they performed.
In this case, for policy reasons, the administration decided that there were public policy reasons for giving some people the gift of forgiving their loan. Disagree with those policy reasons if you like, but what is the basis for claiming entitlement by anyone else?
Okay, so the government commissions a study that shows that cash gifts to whites and Asians get used to invest in new businesses, while cash to blacks get invested in shiny rims and fake nails. Based on that, the government gives a $10,000 gift to whites and Asians, but nothing to blacks.
Okay? No Equal Protection violation?
I very much doubt that a study would actually show that, but suppose it did. With race-based classifications, the government has to show that there is no method other than racial classifications that will accomplish the goal. Which I doubt it would be able to do.
If I'm not mistaken, one of the objections to the Brandon Bribes is that forgiveness would be considered taxable income while letting the loan run under its terms (with a large chunk forgiven pursuant to the loan itself) would not be.
People pay loans with money they have and that has, in most cases, already been taxed. Not paying loans does not create new taxable income or create an income stream. Moreover, a person can deduct interest payments on student loans. Partially forgiven loans create less interest to deduct and completely forgiven loans generate no interest at all. If anything, forgiving the loan possibly nudges a person’s tax liability up a scoche.
In general, forgiven commercial loans are considered taxable income. This student debt relief plan specifically states it won't be counted as taxable at the federal level. You may be taxed at a state level depending on where you reside.
No; that makes no sense. Someone whose loan wasn't forgiven is in the exact same position as he would have been if the loan program hadn't been enacted. Enjoining the forgiveness program would not grant him any relief.
Equal Protection. Someone who paid it off early is being treated differently from someone who didn't.
That's at least as compelling an argument for EP relief as you leftists use when it favors blacks.
Who is "you leftists"?
That aside, those who paid it off early are not similarly situated to those who had their loans forgiven. On the day of loan forgiveness, they didn't owe anything, so there was nothing to forgive.
"Someone who paid it off early" is not a protected class. Every single thing in the tax code distinguishes between different people in the U.S. There's a child tax deduction but not a pet tax deduction. That does not mean that pet owners have standing to sue to invalidate the child tax deduction
So what's a protected class? Someone who you leftists think is special?
Who is "you leftists"?
This white, male, right-wing blog attracts a remarkable concentration of racists (and gay-bashers, and antisemites, and Islamophobes, and misogynists, and immigrant-haters, and other bigots) among its commenting audience. The blog's operators seem to target and appease these bigots, along with other disaffected misfits and antisocial conservative culture war casualties. Why do they do this?
The case I cited below, Crosby v. National Foreign Trade Council, allowed a lawsuit by a business group that was affected by a similar law. The member companies weren't suing because they took offense at the law and its wasteful spending. They lost business due to the law.
I don't see any mention of National Foreign Trade Council v. Natsios (1st Cir. 1999). A Massachusetts law punishing companies that do business with Burma was found to impermissibly interfere with foreign affairs and foreign commerce. The Supreme Court affirmed on the narrower ground that the law was preempted by a federal law imposing sanctions on Burma. Crosby v. National Foreign Trade Council, 530 U.S. 363 (2000). The First Circuit opinion should have persuasive value on the foreign policy question. At least, it should be distinguished to avoid creating the appearance of a circuit split.
I don't know about Burma, but back about 15 years ago, Massachusetts had a law which required anyone contracting with the Commonwealth to not be doing business with the British in Northern Ireland.
I don't know the citation, all I know is that I was looking into being a contractor at the time, and amongst all the papers I had to sign was one stating that I wasn't selling stuff to the British. (I didn't read it too carefully because I wasn't selling anything to the British nor had any desires to, but it might have been restricted to police and military supplies.)
Being Massachusetts, I was not surprised to see this -- but always did wonder about its Constitutionality.
That's what happens when you let drunken Pope followers make laws.
What does that have to do with Reiketa followers?
Quoting from https://www.wgbh.org/news/local-news/2019/12/02/northern-irelands-troubles-still-resonate-in-mass-state-contracts
But Massachusetts law hasn’t changed, and the standard state contract still includes the Northern Ireland provisions.
The official language looks like this: “If the Contractor employs ten or more employees in an office or other facility located in Northern Ireland the Contractor certifies that it does not discriminate in employment, compensation, or the terms, conditions and privileges of employment on account of religious or political belief; and it promotes religious tolerance within the work place, and the eradication of any manifestations of religious and other illegal discrimination; and the Contractor is not engaged in the manufacture, distribution or sale of firearms, munitions, including rubber or plastic bullets, tear gas, armored vehicles or military aircraft for use or deployment in any activity in Northern Ireland.”
John F. Carr: The plaintiffs in Arkansas Times v. Waldrip brought a First Amendment argument, but not a Foreign Commerce Clause or a Supremacy Clause argument of the sort that the First Circuit found persuasive as to the Massachusetts Burma boycott law. It's thus unsurprising that the Eighth Circuit didn't discuss the First Circuit case.
"...The Act exempts contracts if a company provides goods or services for at least 20% less than the lowest certifying business, or if the contract has a total potential value of less than $1,000...."
I think I must be misunderstanding this. To me; this sounds like it says, "We forbid working with companies who want to discriminate against Israel. BUT...if you want to buy your way out of this provision, then it's fine. Just make sure you underbid other companies by 20% or more, and you can be as anti-Israel as you want...all fine by us."
If I'm actually misreading this clause; can someone explain to me what exactly this provision IS saying?
To be cynically fair and balanced, maybe they are looking out for the poor taxpayer, and anticipate that companies would otherwise jack up their prices if the law required absolutely rejecting lower but bigoted bids.
I don't really think politicians have that kind of foresight.
"We don't wanna kick in the nuts teeni little businesses whose boycotts wouldn't mean jack squat anyway."
I think you have it right.
They object to BDS, but they're not fanatical about it, it's more of a tie breaker.
It’s exempting sole-source vendors, which you really have to unless you want to live with the dire consequences.
It’s what it sounds like — there is only one vendor who can provide the goods and/or services that you need and hence you either buy it from them or don’t get it.
In general, no one is going to be able to afford to underbid everyone else by 20% — and on sealed bids, you’d have to first know what they are going to bid — and still make money. Yes, a well-funded bunch of anti-Semites could do it to make a point, but then they’d have to be REALLY well funded to subsidize the losses incurred, and that would likely prompt investigations of an other sort.
Ed, doesn't the language exactly NOT include single-source vendors? I mean; the exception specifically requires you to underbid by 20%. So, single-source can't qualify, by definition. No other business is submitting a bid, therefore you have no one's bid to, well, underbid.
And a lot of the other bids in the other exception category (ie, for less than $1K) might well be single-source. But then, those would qualify anyway, due to the low amount of the contract.
I think you're understanding it correctly: a less cynical construction would be something like, "We feel it's important to not discriminate against Israel, but if a company can truly provide services to the government in a dramatically more efficient manner than its competitors, our obligation to the taxpayers takes priority."
I read it the same way. The question is who will be the first to try.
It has not been uncommon to apply the overbreadth doctrine to strike doen laws that might conceivably be interpreted to violate First Amendment free speech, even when that interpretation is not only disavowed by the state involved but implausible.
In this case, the 8th Circuit majority chose a narrower construction of the overbreadth doctrine. Their construction involves a materially different standard. The operating question is not whether a (paranoid) would-be speaker might be chilled by the statute’s text, an analysis involving looking omly at the text and the mindset of the would-be speaker, but the very different question of whether the state Supreme Court would interpret the statute to cover fhe prohibited activity, an analysis involving looking at the (very different) precedents and mindset of the state Supreme Court.
I think this narrower interpretation of overbeadth is the better one. The standard should be whether the plaintiff might actually be prosecuted under the statute, not whether the plaintiff might have some conceivably plausible reason to fear prosecution.
However, there is a danger in having two different standards floating around without clarification as to which should be applied, especially when both standards are given the same name. There is always a temptation for judges to apply the broader standard to statutes they happen not to like, and the narrower one to statutes they support.
How would the plaintiff (or anyone) be prosecuted?
The company would bid on a project, refuse to sign the certificate, and then would be denied - but they certainly wouldn't be prosecuted.
Might get prosecuted if you fraudulently signed the certificate.
Arkansas Act 710 doesn’t address fraudulent certification.
If anything, it’s a law specifically directed towards the AR govt agencies and not private companies.
Note paras 25-1-503 and 504 are addressed to public entities, i.e., AR agencies.
https://www.arkleg.state.ar.us/Acts/Document?type=pdf&act=710&ddBienniumSession=2017%2F2017R
In Massachusetts, in theory, it would be enforced by the State Auditor who would ask the contracting entity (e.g. department) for documentation that the contractee is in compliance with this law.
The auditor could rule that the contractee is an ineligible bidder and that means that they can't bid on ANY state, municipal, university, agency, or authority RFP.
As an aside, there is a minimum level that you have to put out to bid (RFPs) and an even lower level where you don't even need to list the prices of three vendors. That may be where the $1000 comes in -- state law there may exempt all purchases under that from the procurement laws, and hence they have to exempt this as well as there would be no means of ensuring compliance.
Because the “other actions” referred to in the 3rd prong might conceivably include protected speech. If one follows the broader interpretation of overbreadth that the dissent applied – whether a paranoid potential speaker reading the text alone might conceivably interpret the text as applying to speech – then the dissent is right. The broader standard doesn’t consider whether anyone would actually be prosecuted or not, it doesn’t regard it as relevant. The broader standard asks only whether a potential speaker who reads the text might become afraid of being prosecuted.
Signing the certificate, then boycotting anyway is fraud.
Signing the certificate, not boycotting, but stating you wish you could, is not.
Because it's Arkansas law, the court followed Arkansas' principles of construction for interpreting the statute.
Different principles could apply to other states' laws or to federal law.
They could have certified the question if there was a lot of confusion, but apparently didn't think there was.
My bro back in the day got suckered into buying $1000 worth of pots and pans, driven by a tupperware-like party in a neighboring dorm room.
The U had a policy against sales from dorm rooms, and so the sale was invalid. He had no pans, and had coughed up $200 already. This was $1000 not long after the “One…million…dollars!” era, btw.
Anyway, a different instance went to the SC, where the pots company said the sale and speech were “inextricably intertwined”, and therefore the sale must be permitted. (As an aside, the speech was “financial responsibility” and minding your money, the exact opposite of what the company was trying to do in parting ignorant students with their cash.)
The SC said that was nonsense, there was nothing inextricably intertwined with that.
25 years later, BDS attempts the same sleight of hand.
"The U had a policy against sales from dorm rooms, and so the sale was invalid. He had no pans, and had coughed up $200 already"
The U ought to have helped him get his money back.
Iirc we considered it a lesson in money management, the kind the panware party supposedly was doing.
He did get 2 pans out of it, given in exchange for the $200 at the party. I had the feeling it was about the level of a $150 Kmart set for the entire set.
It was a university where kids still living in dorms had the ability to buy $1000 worth of pots and pans. The school probably didn’t have the resources that the kid and his folks had.
It’s crazy to see how much power the Jews have over this country.
If organizations don't want to support Palestinian genocide and ritual baby sacrifices, they should be free to do so.
Maybe it's because they are right?
Arkansas is 96% Christian -- there are twice as many Muslims than Jews in that state -- there are so few Jews that they are counted along with the Wicca/Pagans, Hindus, and Buddhists for the 1% that is "other."
What you wrote is not only bigoted but wrong -- "the Jews" aren't running Arkansas -- it's part of the Bible Belt and Christians are way more supportive of Israel than a lot of American Jews...
And as to genocide -- Israel possesses technologies that Hitler lacked 80 years ago. If Israel truly wanted to exterminate the "Palestinians", it could do it in a week -- even without using nukes. (Look at the carnage in the Ukraine, and then imagine it in a smaller and confined space.)
It's crazy how such a small minority is so over represented in the levers of power.
They can curse Jesus 3x a day and the New Testament is filled with stories of trying to convert the Jews yet millions of Christians are convinced they are somehow special and are God's Chosen.
It's Satanic inversion.
It's amazing how a half-century of "genocide" has somehow resulted in the continuous growth of the Palestinian population.
That's mostly just fading, disaffected right-wingers huddling together for warmth against the advance of progress and the mainstream.
BCD, I'm sorry, but you're a moron.
Let's set aside "Palestinian genocide and ritual baby sacrifices" (???).
If want nothing to do with Israel or Israelis, you are "free to do so"!
However, the State of Arkansas is free to refuse to do business with you. Sounds fair to me.
The "speech" aspect— signing the certification—is incidental to the regulation of conduct.
Yeah. Unless the certification required is from a company claiming a religious exemption from generally applicable law. Then a requirement to sign isn't incidental, it's tyranny.
If a state can refuse to transact with a company that doesn’t want to do business with Israel, could it refuse to transact with a company that does business with Israel, or with a company profiting from business interests in the occupied territories, or with a company that (or person who) doesn’t want to do business with a customer who wishes to purchase mifepristone or birth control pills?
The answer is yes to all of these questions. A conservative state’s concern about the treatment of human fetuses is no less valid a concern than California’s concern about the treatment of pigs.
While Congress could use its power to regulate interstate commerce to override these sorts of state laws when they regulate private individuals, the Constitution’s limits on the power of the federal government to directly regulate states means that Congress likely couldn’t order a state to transact business with an entity it doesn’t want to transact with, unless enforcing a distinct constitutional prohibition on states like racial discrimination.
.