The Volokh Conspiracy
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The Vote-by-Tweet Memes Prosecution Can Go Forward, Court Rules
Here's the opening of what I wrote about the case in Tablet Magazine two years ago [UPDATE: just to be clear, it's just the opening; I go into a lot more detail in the article itself]:
In 2016, a Florida man named Douglass Mackey (using the online alias "Ricky Vaughn") allegedly conspired to distribute a meme aimed at deceiving pro-Hillary voters.
Four years later, Mackey is now being prosecuted (as to this and as to other memes) for violating 18 U.S.C. § 241, a federal law that punishes conspiracies "to injure, oppress, threaten, or intimidate any person … in the free exercise or enjoyment of any right or privilege secured to him by the Constitution"—namely, the right to vote. Lying to voters in a way that keeps them from voting, the theory goes, is a crime.
Is this sort of prosecution constitutional? After all, people often lie in political campaigns. Candidates do it, activists do it, political operatives do it. Can election lies simply be outlawed?
Surprisingly, the Supreme Court has never resolved the question. It hasn't resolved the big-picture question: When can the government punish lies? It hasn't resolved the medium-size question: Can the government punish lies in election campaigns? And it hasn't resolved the particular question: Can the government punish lies about the mechanisms of voting, and in particular about how to vote?
And here's the order from Judge Nicholas Garaufis (E.D.N.Y.) yesterday:
ORDER: Defendant Mackey's 43 motion to dismiss the Indictment is DENIED. Defendant Mackey argues that the Indictment should be dismissed because (1) venue is not proper in the Eastern District of New York, (2) Defendant Mackey did not have fair notice that his alleged conduct would criminally violate 18 U.S.C. § 241, and (3) 18 U.S.C. § 241 is unconstitutional as applied pursuant to the First Amendment.
This court finds first that a reasonable jury could hold, under any one of several theories, that it was reasonably foreseeable that Tweets from a Manhattan-based Twitter personality with thousands of followers would reach or pass through a judicial district as large as the Eastern District of New York, and that venue was therefore properly laid in the district.
Next, the court holds that the statutory and decisional law, and in particular the DOJ's long history of using 18 U.S.C. § 241 to prosecute conspiracies against the free exercise of the right to vote, constituted fair warning under the controlling standard from United States v. Lanier . 520 U.S. 259, 267 (1997). ("When broad constitutional requirements have been 'made specific' by the text or settled interpretations, willful violators certainly are in no position to say that they had no adequate advance notice that they would be visited with punishment").
Finally, 18 U.S.C. § 241 as applied in the Indictment does not, as a matter of law, violate the First Amendment because although the case involves false utterances, it is at its core, about conspiracy and injury, not speech. To the extent that the case does implicate the First Amendment, it is constitutional under the standard for false utterances set forth by the Supreme Court in United States v. Alvarez . 132 S. Ct. 2537 (2012). Although Defendant Mackey contends that the false utterances are protected as satirical speech, that is an issue of fact for the jury. Therefore, Defendant Mackey's 43 motion to dismiss the Indictment is DENIED. The court will supplement this order with a Memorandum & Order in the coming days to further explain its reasoning.
I look forward to reading the judge's full analysis when it's released.
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Is this sort of prosecution constitutional? After all, people often lie in political campaigns. Candidates do it, activists do it, political operatives do it. Can election lies simply be outlawed?
You surely understand that the lie at issue here is fundamentally different from the usual election lies. The lies here are about the mechanics of voting, while the usual lies are about what one plans to do in office (free ice cream for all!) or what one’s opponent has done (he tortures little puppies!) or plans to do (he will make torturing little puppies mandatory!) The defendant here was not trying to persuade someone to vote for Clinton, but to defraud them from their vote by a fake voting mechanism online.
"defraud" them? Come on.
What else would you call it? I plan to vote for Candidate X, and go to the voting booth to do so. Some crook posts I can vote for Candidate X by posting something on Twitter. A total scam. But certainly a lot more convenient. So I go for it. That’s defrauding me of my vote.
It's not defrauding you of anything. You still had the right to vote, and that you got confused by something, well that's (a) not even close to contemplated by the statute and (b) protected by the First Amendment.
At the end of the day, you are cool with punishing people for pure speech. Under your rationale, you could pass a statute that says that it's a crime tell people that a diet high in fried chicken is good for them on the theory that it dupes them into thinking that they should go to KFC every day.
Someone lying to confuse you into doing something you otherwise wouldn’t have done is kind of the definition of fraud.
“Not even close to contemplated by the statute.”
Really? You realize this was the KKK act, right?
“If two or more persons conspire to injure, oppress, threaten, or intimidate any person in any State, Territory, Commonwealth, Possession, or District in the free exercise or enjoyment of any right or privilege secured to him by the Constitution or laws of the United States, or because of his having so exercised the same”
Conspire to injure actually seems to fit this situation rather well
They still have the unfettered right to vote.
They can conspire without actually successfully injuring the right
"injure any person"
Is "injure" the only verb in the statute?
I still have the unfettered right to sell Tesla stock. But if the company lies about its performance and I hold while Tesla burns, that's called fraud.
Libertarians are usually pretty big advocates for anti-fraud laws.
Let’s ask a question. Is there anything that would be fraud under this definition? If Bernie Maddoff tells you to invest a million dollars with him because it’s a safe investment withdrawable at any time, he hasn’t deprived you of the right to the million dollars. You’ve merely voluntarily chosen to give it to him.
Fraud always involves persuading a person to do something in a manner involving deceipt, not forcing them. They always have the right to do something other than what they were persuaded to do. So if mere deceiptful persuasion can’t be a crime, fraud can’t be a crime.
“Drive your car off that cliff and a giant eagle will catch it and carry you to the bank where you will find your account +$10,000,000.00.”
I’m fine with jail for these sacks of shit.
Knowing, deliberate lies that kill or injure. Same but cause financial loss, take the money and scoot.
Why should loss of a vote not count?
Um, that's literally what fraud is: lying to something to get them to do something, even though they had the right not to do it. Confusing them is the sine qua non of fraud.
I reiterate: that's what fraud is. It's pure speech, but unprotected.
This case is obviously a parody, but in another case there might be a deliberate attempt to fool people so they do not vote.
However, does the statute prohibit this? It certainly is not injuring, threatening, or intimidating. Is it oppressing? I don't think so.
If the legislature wants to criminalize this action it seems it needs to amend the law.
I took those tweets to be nothing more than political satire, that anyone dumb enough to vote for Hillary was dumb enough to vote by tweet. It was also commentary on the Democratic fear of showing an ID to vote.
Fraud? Anyone dumb enough to take that seriously really did deserve to waste their vote on a tweet.
All Americans have a right to have their vote counted, full stop. Get out of here with the “they deserved it” crap.
Concur with ABCetc - "Fraud? Anyone dumb enough to take that seriously really did deserve to waste their vote on a tweet."
concur - all americans deserve to have their vote counted. Though somehow faciliating fraudulent voting is of no concern to a particular political party.
No comment on the important first part of that comment? The one that sets the stage for the second part?
By the 1st part, you mean “I took those tweets to be nothing more than political satire?”
Per the final paragraph of the Judge’s opinion, that is exactly such a matter of determining fact, that he is allowing to go to a jury. It is not a question of whether satire gets 1st Amendment protection (it does), but the specific-circumstances-laden question of whether it is satire, or simple untruthful fraud.
Since that depends of a full understanding of the full circumstances (something neither of us possesses), I’m fine with leaving it to a jury.
Consider carefully whether "dumb enough to buy it" is really the standard you want.
And anyone dumb enough to break a federal law for the sake of some lame satire deserves this, presumably
Not only do I understand that, but I discuss it in detail in the rest of my article (as I signal at the end of the quoted excerpt: "Surprisingly, the Supreme Court has never resolved the question. It hasn't resolved the big-picture question: When can the government punish lies? It hasn't resolved the medium-size question: Can the government punish lies in election campaigns? And it hasn't resolved the particular question: Can the government punish lies about the mechanisms of voting, and in particular about how to vote?").
Leaving aside the question of whether the government can punish lies about how to vote, can the government punish lies if it does not have a statute that explicitly punishes such lies?
How is lying to someone about voting mechanisms oppressing, injuring, intimidating, or threatening them?
The judge is full of it. Just full of it. First of all, this is pure speech--it's not shouting fire in crowded theater (i.e., where people may have limited ability to judge for themselves what the true situation is)--so the judge is all wet. People have plenty of time to sort out the lie from truth.
My uncle is a colonel in the Nigerian Air Force. We have $ 10 Million in a bank, but we can't get it out. BUt if you wire $ 20,000 to the account I give you, then we can get it out, and I will give you $ 1 MIllion for your trouble.
Free speech?
Yes, unless you take the money.
So trying to defraud someone is free speech, but taking the money takes it out.
Really, you are so far off. Neither are protected by the First Amendment. The only difference is one is attempted fraud, and the other is fraud. (And, of course, in a civil case, the victim has no damages in an attempted fraud case.)
Apparently, you didn’t get my post. The very thing you wrote is protected speech. It only is a crime when you take the money or attempt to do so. This speech is (a) not specifically targeted in the sense that the Nigerian scam is sent via email etc., not memed, (b) doesn’t meet the statute, (c) isn’t an attempt to defraud under any normal definition of fraud and (d) covered by 1A because it doesn’t fall under any exclusions. (There’s also a huge Due Process problem.)
a) Is a meaningless distinction, there were plenty of crypto scams on Twitter, it doesn't save the perpetrators from being charged.
b) Of course there's different statues violated in the Nigerian scam vs the Election, but the article literally spells out the statute violated, 18 U.S.C. § 241.
c) It's literally an attempt to defraud the person of their vote, to make them think they cast a vote when in fact they did not.
d) Lying with the intent to defraud someone is not protected speech.
Digression to highlight that damages issue. There's a really interesting discussion about whether one can sue for damages in civil court for blackmail. If you pay, its a quid pro quo accepted. If you don't, there's no damages (assuming the subject matter of the blackmail was not illegally obtained).
So according to you, attempted fraud is protected by the 1A? Only completed fraud counts as a crime?
The ad is plainly aimed to deceiving people who would vote for Hillary. I don’t see it as satire or parody. In my view, he plainly wanted to prevent Hillary votes. The ruling seems right to me.
So what?
It is only plain to those who want it to be seen as plain.
I took it as satire and political commentary. I also knew there would be some idjuts taking it seriously, just as there were idjuts taking Tide Pod challenges.
Where is a sign of satire or commentary? It looks like a pretty clear attempt to trick people into throwing away their votes.
If he only showed it off to fellow MAGA folks maybe that claim could be made. But I suspect there's evidence that he masqueraded as a Clinton supporter and tried to distribute it in those circles.
I mean defendant describes the political memes as “psyops” … to me that’s not exactly co-extensive with “satire”
Unless it's part of the satire.
Where do you two get your understanding of satire?
Good grief buddy. Learn some English! You said "plainly" without any modifiers, implying "plain to all", and I said not plain to me, that it was plain as satire to me, and that I understood that meant not plain to all.
And you think the rebuttal is to say that I am wrong about what I saw in it? Plainly you have some larnin' to do.
Nobody's that stupid. It was obvious satire.
But even if a few people are that stupid, that's not the legal standard. No reasonable person could plausibly believe that the above was a legitimate change to voting procedures.
r/confidentlyincorrect would like you to visit.
"People have plenty of time to sort out the lie from truth."
So, you're lobbying for The Right of the Con? (hmmm...that strikes a chord from somewhere).
Think I'll listen to a judge and jury versus either Random Internet Guy or the conman in question.
This is actually a really close case. It strikes me as the sort of dirty tricks we've heard about in elections for years (flyers that say "cast your vote Wednesday", etc.). I've always had a very low opinion of such stuff even though the political world has always kind of laughed at it.
The problem is that I'm not sure there's a First Amendment exception that necessarily covers it. There isn't a general exception for false statements, as we saw in the Alvarez Stolen Valor case. There is an exception for fraud, but is this really fraud? It's not depriving the victim of any money or property- it's fooling the victim into not voting.
It's possible that the correct result here is "hold your nose and hold it constitutionally protected".
By "really close case," are you referring to a constitutional question to be decided before a court of law, or one that may or may not be sufficient to survive the defendant's motion to dismiss the indictment?
I don't mind the court's decision that the constitutional question "...is an issue of fact for the jury."
I do. If this IS constitutionally protected, it shouldn't go to a jury. And whether this falls within a constitutional exception is a mater of law based on whether the fraud exception to the First Amendment covers speech intended to falsely induce someone not to vote.
Now if it does, the jury can then decide if this defendant actually violated the statute. But the constitutional issue is a court issue.
OK, I see I badly misstated what I was trying to get at. To clarify, it goes to this, from the final paragraph of the Judge's order:
...so it's not that he's leaving a constitutional question to the jury—he's already addressed it in acknowledging actual satire is due 1st Amendment protection—but leaving to the jury the act of determining the fact of whether the communication in question is such satire, or simple untruthful fraud. I don't think that conflicts with what you said.
I believe Dilan is assuming it's not satire and nonetheless has concluded it is protected speech that does not fall under any existing exception.
Eugene argued "Narrow and clearly defined statutes that prohibit lies about the mechanics of how to vote are likely constitutional." I agree because it strikes me as fraud.
On the other hand, Eugene makes a good point that Mackey is being prosecuted under a statute that is not narrow, and if I recall correctly, a statute can be facially invalidated in First Amendment cases even if there are permissible applications (which Eugene thinks this one likely is).
Not only that, I am not even sure about Prof. Volokh's statement. What First Amendment exception do they fall under? There's no general rule that false statements are unprotected (see Alvarez), and it's not incitement (it doesn't lead to an imminent lawless action under Brandenburg). Maybe SCOTUS makes up a new exception for this, or broadens the fraud exception, but... maybe not.
I certainly see how they COULD make an exception but I tend to agree here, at least on the constitutional issue this doesn’t fall squarely into an existing exception that I can think of.
“Vote by texting “Hilary” 55541 on Nov. 8! Skip the lines!”
Vs.
“John McCain had an out of wedlock black child”
Intuitively there is a difference here, but how to draw the line. Something about “time, place and manner” of voting?
Right. And that's a big reason why SCOTUS doesn't create new First Amendment exceptions. (Indeed, it would be really good for a law professor to do an op-ed about this as it relates to hate speech-- creating a hate speech exception, as a lot of academics and activists would like, would just create enormous line drawing problems.)
Again, I don't leave out the possibility that SCOTUS decides to do so or to broaden the fraud exception. That's why I said this is a close case. But it's very possible and perhaps even likely that this is held to be protected speech, especially in the context of a broad statute.
I find it plausible (within a lower court's purview) that the existing fraud exception covers a narrowly-worded statute (or not, Eugene's point about this being unsettled is well taken). The controlling opinion in Alvarez noted, "Fraud statutes, for example, typically require proof of a misrepresentation that is material, upon which the victim relied, and which caused actual injury." It's possible a person not voting is an "actual injury."
It's possible. But that may be overreading what SCOTUS is saying. They are saying WHY a fraud exception exists, not the definition of fraud. The definition of fraud requires the giving up of something of value, usually pecuniary. E.g., being emotionally distressed by a misrepresentation does not make something fraud, even though emotional distress is an injury.
So you would actually need to expand the definition of fraud, and in a way SCOTUS might not be comfortable doing.
> "upon which the victim relied".
Doesn't that mean they have to produce an actual victim that texted when they thought they were voting?
A law that purely applies to speech can be struck down as facially overbroad if some of that speech is protected. But a law that applies to conduct will not generally be struck down just because it can apply to protected speech. That's an as applied challenge.
OK. But, Eugene nonetheless said about this case:
Is the First Amendment analysis limited to this specific application of the Tweet in question? Or does it cover (because of the breadth of the indictment) Eugene's hypothetical application? Or, is this case where overbreadth or vagueness puts the facially at risk?
Maybe the vote is a third vital loss besides money or property. Well, fourth, including life or limb.
Maybe.
If venue would be proper in any judicial district in any state, as in this case, the defendant ought to be allowed to request transfer to a convenient forum. (Aspirational statement here, not legal statement.)
Is there any precedent on shoehorning a failed joke into one of the categories "injure, oppress, threaten, or intimidate"? The gullible voters have not been oppressed, threatened, or intimidated so it would have to be "injure".
Failed? The complaint alleges they got nearly 5k texts to the dummy number
5k texts to the number ?
Are that people (of voting age) that do know how to cast a ballot?
How many people texted multiple times thinking they could vote multiple times.
The point is that it is hard to make the credible claim that someone could be defrauded.
But is someone being defrauded a requirement?
I merely offered the 5k number from the complaint as a possible counterpoint to the idea that the “joke” “failed”
No, it's either a failed joke or a successful fraud. Your data suggests the latter.
Perhaps. There are lots of times on the internet where something is intended to be a parody or sarcasm, yet is taken literally by some people.
The internet presents a confluence of two theories:
(1) the Law of Large Numbers; and
(2) there are lots of really stupid people out there.
So the fact that 5,000 people were fooled does not necessarily mean this was not intended as a parody.
I bet you more people have been scammed by the Nigerian scam than by this.
So I think the judge got this right -- it's a question of fact for the jury.
Wot, no-one coming here to defend such prosecutions as part of restoring America's faith in the voting system?
When is a dirty political trick illegal? That's not an easy question to answer. This particular meme certainly qualifies as a dirty political trick, that’s for sure. If you were a low-information voter with zero voting experience and rather gullible, you might have fallen for this. But anyone who has voted before certainly would know it’s a crock or a joke.
Compared to mis-informing voters and suppressing the truth about the Biden laptop, this is of course mere child’s play.
So I would say that if convicted, the author of this dirty trick should receive exactly the same punishment as the 49 signers of the memo who falsely claimed that the Biden laptop had “all the earmarks of Russian disinformation”.
Hmmm. Seems closer to an Ohio voter intimidation case resolved a couple months ago. Search on:
Jacob Wohl and Jack Burkman plead guilty to robocall voter suppression fraud.
That one didn't receive much attention at partisan right-wing blogs.
Nobody suppressed any truth about any alleged Biden laptop.
That you refer to it as alleged indicates that it clearly worked on you.
Hint: It's not in dispute. Even the Bidens have not disputed it was his laptop.
If this were an obvious parody, then the defendant would have a motion to dismiss. Let's say the ad showed Clinton in a black pointy hat, and said "Go to Twitter and type in #VoteForTheWitch." That I think would clearly be protected.
Here, the defendant is entitled to argue to the jury that he intended it as a parody, not to fool people into wasting their votes. Whether they buy it remains to be seen.
The only fig leaf for the prosecution is the BS idea that lies have no First Amendment value---but what does that actually mean? Can the state criminalize every lie then? Um no. And what of the "chilling effect"?
I perceive no chance this rloquitur is a lawyer. Or law student. Or paralegal. Or legal assistant. . Could be a messenger. Likely never attended a legitimate college or university.
“…the BS idea that lies have no First Amendment value.”
Correct, of course, completely BS. As is, of course, your implication that such an idea is found anywhere in this particular judicial opinion.
This is speech. Implicates 1A. So when the judge says, this isn't speech but conduct, he's all wet.
…OK, ‘the judge is wrong‘ is an opinion you have every right to argue, as all of us constantly do here.
That is, however, is completely different from your original accusation that the prosecution is relying on a belief of the judge that “…lies have no First Amendment value.“—something nowhere found or implied in anything the judge wrote. Again:
I agree with the most recent order; however, I thin there's going to be difficulty in proving injury. Are there actually people willing to be identified as stupid enough to have taken action believing the parody to be fact: the "I Hashtaged for Hillary" victims can't be anonymous.
Is there a requirement for actual injury in the statute?
Maybe not, but without evidence of any victims, "It was an obvious parody" would be a much stronger defense.
Yes quite true
Dumb question probably, but one that seems fundamental to the case to this non-lawyer...
I didn't think there was a Constitutional right to vote (just a right to not be denied the vote for specific reasons). If there isn't a general right to vote, how can the accused have violated peoples' Constitutional rights?
Whether or not the defendant violated someone’s right isn’t the issue really— this person is accused of violating 18 usc 241
"Republicans vote on Tuesday, Democrats on Wednesday" has been a common joke for as long as I can remember. They are prosecuting a joke because Saint Hillary got beat and they are sad.
So Trump's DOJ was sad that Hillary got beat?
Quite a few were vocally sad about it. The FBI hardly covered itself in glory with its behavior under Trump.
Edgelords got bit.
Question. Let’s say the defendant defends the case as parody. Is that judged subjectively (I intended it as parody, even if I did not do such a great job on it and some dopes took me seriously) or objectively (how would the average person react)? Or maybe both?
I’ll take a stab here. Isn’t the answer both?
As to the statutory charge: it has a mens rea element so defendant’s mental state would be relevant.
As to the constitutional challenge, the question is whether the speech fits into the fraud exception, which strikes me as an objective inquiry.
"to injure, oppress, threaten, or intimidate any person … in the free exercise or enjoyment of any right or privilege secured to him by the Constitution"
It does not seem to me that tricking someone into not voting with no threat, intimidation, or physical attack would meet the plain language of the statute.
This would include handing out fake fliers supposedly from the local government telling them election day changed - deliberate attempts to fool people, not parodies.
What am I missing?