The Volokh Conspiracy
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From Prof. Michael McConnell (Stanford) on the Congress and Presidential Election
Prof. McConnell noted this, and I'm delighted to be able to pass it along:
In the course of researching an unrelated matter, I stumbled on this speech by Charles Pinckney—a prominent delegate to the Constitutional Convention, from South Carolina. The speech was delivered in 1800 in Pinckney's capacity as United State Senator. It shows remarkable prescience, seeming to anticipate the arguments made by John Eastman and others that Vice President Pence and the Congress should refuse to recognize (or at least delay recognition of) the electoral college votes from states where Trump forces claimed the official election results were based on fraud. I have bolded the most striking parts of Pinckney's speech:
Knowing that it was the intention of the Constitution to make the President completely independent of the Federal Legislature, I well remember it was the object, as it is at present not only the spirit but the letter of that instrument, to give to Congress no interference in, or control over the election of a President. It is made their duty to count over the votes in a convention of both Houses, and for the President of the Senate to declare who has the majority of the votes of the Electors so transmitted. It never was intended, nor could it have been safe, in the Constitution, to have given to Congress thus assembled in convention, the right to object to any vote, or even to question whether they were constitutionally or properly given.
This right of determining on the manner in which the Electors shall vote; the inquiry into the qualifications, and the guards necessary to prevent disqualified or improper men voting, and to insure the votes being legally given, rests and is exclusively vested in the State Legislatures. If it is necessary to have guards against improper elections of Electors, and to institute tribunals to inquire into their qualifications, with the State Legislatures, and with them alone, rests the power to institute them, and they must exercise it.
To give to Congress, even when assembled in convention, a right to reject or admit the votes of States, would have been so gross and dangerous an absurdity, as the framers of the Constitution never could have been guilty of. How could they expect, that in deciding on the election of a President, particularly where such election was strongly contested, that party spirit would not prevail, and govern every decision? Did they not know how easy it was to raise objections against the votes of particular elections, and that in determining upon these, it was more than probable, the members would recollect their sides, their favorite candidate, and sometimes their own interests? Or must they not have supposed, that, in putting the ultimate and final decision of the Electors in Congress, who were to decide irrevocably and without appeal, they would render the President their creature, and prevent his assuming and exercising that independence in the performance of his duties upon which the safety and honor of the Government must forever rest?
Annals of Congress, Sixth Congress, at 130, and reprinted in III Farrand, App. A., CCLXXXVIII (March 28, 1800) (paragraphing altered).
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Congress could easily turn the presidential election into a true national election by punishing a state that uses Winner-Take-All (WTA) allocation instead of Proportional Allocation (PA) as the 14th Amendment permits and then using Weighted Counting (WC) when the Vice-President counts the electoral vote.
A national presidential election system would only require a minor change to 3 U.S. Code § 15 - Counting electoral votes in Congress.
A state legislature can decide how to appoint the electors any way it wants. It can appoint the electors itself, there is no obligation to have a popular election or for ordinary citizens to have any say in the matter. The President in our system of government represents the states, not the people. It’s only a matter of custom that states have generally held popular elections to appoint the electors. They can always decide not to. And if they do, of course Congress has to count their votes. Counting the electoral votes is a purely ministerial matter.
It should be pointed out that if you are right, then if Republicans control Congress, states that choose not to appoint Republican electors could be equally punished by a very similar minor change to the same statute, thus guaranteeing that only a Republican will be elected President.
And it would be every bit as legitimate.
State legislatures have no control over elections. Unelected Democrat civil servants and Democrat judges decide it all. Even the outcomes.
If the state legislature chose the electors themselves, wouldn't it trigger the provision of section 2 of the 14th Amendment providing that "when the right to vote at any election for the choice of electors for President and Vice-President of the United States . . . is denied to any of the male inhabitants of such State, being twenty-one years of age, and citizens of the United States, or in any way abridged, except for participation in rebellion, or other crime, the basis of representation therein shall be reduced in the proportion which the number of such male citizens shall bear to the whole number of male citizens twenty-one years of age in such State"?
Only if they'd actually held a popular vote election before doing that. I explain below.
You aren’t catching what Pickney was saying, are you? The system was explicitly intended to be such that Congress couldn’t do what you suggest.
I understand exactly what Pickney is saying.
14th Amendment Section 2 qualifies Pickney while nothing in the Constitution specifies how Congress counts the electors although we can infer the counting rule should be applied uniformly to each state.
"nothing in the Constitution specifies how Congress counts the electors"
Right, and the Constitution doesn't specify that it's written in English, rather than some obscure language that uses identical words, but where they mean different things, either.
It just assumes that people understand what "counting" means.
I'm sure that the Framers understood the possible range of counting methods even if an undereducated modern American does not.
US lawyers of the Founder generation were almost certainly familiar with Stewart Kyd’s A Treatise on the Law of Corporations, Volume 1 and Volume 2, which discusses weighted counting. The Framers of the Constitution certainly knew and understood weighted counting of votes. Yet they never forbade weighted counting of Electors or required counting logic that amounted to one-Elector one vote. The Constitution is not averse to weighted counting. The infamous 3/5 Clause expressly refers to weighted counting.
"The Framers of the Constitution certainly knew and understood weighted counting of votes."
To the point of actually knowing and understanding how to explicitly state that it was to be done, if they so intended.
If weighted counted were not to be allowed, such an explicit disallowance could have been provided in the Constitution along with the explicit weighted counting of residents.
The founding generation tolerated a certain disproportionate weighting of states in selection of the president, but now the less densely populated whiter less educated states have such disproportionate weight in choosing a president (and in Congress) that there almost seems to be a violation of the Title of Nobility clause.
It's hard to reconcile Winner-Take-All for electors and the disproportionate weight of smaller less populous states in the electoral college with one-man-one-vote doctrine as it's expressed in the following decisions.
1. Baker v. Carr, 369 U.S. 186 (1962),
2. Reynolds v. Sims, 377 U.S. 533 (1964), and
3. Wesberry v. Sanders, 376 U.S. 1 (1964).
The Senate is somewhat out of whack. The electoral college system is way out of whack. I am suggesting a patch on the system, which seems no more inconsistent with Original intent than popular voting is.
The House is popularly elected by district.
The Senate is popularly elected by state.
The president could be popularly by nation without a Constitutional amendment.
"even if an undereducated modern American does not."
Are you admitting that you don't understand?
Where are you getting that Section 2 of the 14th Amendment says that? All it says is that if the right of certain citizens (males, 21+ years old) to vote is denied or abridged (except for participation in rebellion or other crime), then congressional representation shall be reduced proportionally. It doesn't give Congress the ability to do anything, let alone punishing states that use winner-take-all.
For anyone following along, Section 2 says, "Representatives shall be apportioned among the several States according to their respective numbers, counting the whole number of persons in each State, excluding Indians not taxed. But when the right to vote at any election for the choice of electors for President and Vice President of the United States, Representatives in Congress, the Executive and Judicial officers of a State, or the members of the Legislature thereof, is denied to any of the male inhabitants of such State, being twenty-one years of age, and citizens of the United States, or in any way abridged, except for participation in rebellion, or other crime, the basis of representation therein shall be reduced in the proportion which the number of such male citizens shall bear to the whole number of male citizens twenty-one years of age in such State."
Okay, but then if the role of Congress is strict mechanical vote counting, what to do with the case that actually happened where several states each sent multiple competing electoral college ballots?
That is not what happened.
Okay, I may have been mistaken that it was several states, but looking it back up, at least one state sent two separate electoral college ballots to Congress in 1876.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/1876_United_States_presidential_election#Electoral_disputes_and_Compromise_of_1877
That seems like an interesting case that would be tricky to deal with. That's probably part of the reason the Electoral Count Reform Act specifies that the correct slate of electors would be the one signed by the governor, which would avoid such ambiguity.
The speech explicitly supports one of Eastman’s back-up theories: that the state legislatures have the power to question the validity of the electors and (by implication) to select new ones.
And in all candor this is a more defensible position. State legislatures can always appoint the electors themselves. So if they decide instead to have a popular ballot, letting them have the last say in its validity is a far more defensible proposition.
Much of the objection seemed to come from the idea that custom has somehow changed the constitution’s text, and seemed premised on the idea that citizens have some sort of right to have a say in the selection of the president that state legislatures were somehow interfering with, as if the matter wasn’t solely the legislatures’ to decide in the first place.
ReaderY, what do you do about the Constitution's first 3 words? Pretend they aren't there? Pretend they don't count? Pretend their obvious connection to the declaration of joint popular sovereignty contained in the Declaration of Independence just happened by meaningless accident? Pretend that somehow between 1776 and 1789 (or is it 1800?) actual sovereignty devolved from the People to state governments?
You have to make some allowance to note that sovereignty for government itself clearly was not the founders' original intent—and then explain evidence apparently to the contrary in some other way. Note also, historians consider it wise to discount ostensible post-hoc explanations of events when they come years after the fact, even when they come from participants, .
We know that state legislators chose electors for decades; we know that some language in the Constitution seems to empower that, and other language seems to contradict it; we know that there was a faction among American politicians who resented the new Constitution, because they thought it conferred too much power on a national government; we know Madison and other influential founders opposed that group, and complained their motive was a jealous longing to continue disproportionate power they had grown accustomed to under the Articles of Confederation; and we know the practice to have state legislatures choose electors died out. An explanation to encompass all that knowledge will probably be better founded than one which simply takes a side and dismisses the rest.
Let me ask this question. For the last 230 years, Supreme Court justices have not been directly elected by the people. They have been nominated by the President and confirmed by the Senate, each of which has over the years ignored polls about what the public wants.
In your view, doesn’t this practice contradict the first 3 words of the Constitution? Don’t the first 3 words supercede it?
So let me ask a second question. What makes the President any different from the Supreme Court? What makes the logic of your argument any different? If “we the people” means only the people can select who governs them, shouldn’t that extend equally to every branch of the Federal government, including the Supreme Court?
ReaderY — The People decreed the President gets elected to a specified term of office. The People decreed a Supreme Court, and justices appointed and ratified who serve during good behavior. That is the only answer that exists to your question.
To me, that fact reinforces a need to deal with ambiguity of practice with an eye to interpretations which leave each contrasting set of practices to a scope which conforms as best it can with its own inherent purpose. That requires that each purpose in practice interfere as little as possible with the other.
But strikingly, the purpose of sovereignty is vast, and intended to be all-powerful. The purpose of election administration is tiny by comparison, and readily constrained within a scope which leaves sovereignty untouched.
Ultimately, elections are exercises of the defining power of sovereignty—the constitutive power, the power to make a government at pleasure. That is a power which by its nature cannot be compromised without abolishing it completely.
The election regulation and administration power can readily be compromised, and only beneficial effects to American constitutionalism result. Interpret election administration and regulation to be a service which government provides at the behest of its sovereign. The aim is to optimize the sovereign's power to choose a government at pleasure. In that role, the government (or people who are members of government) are not empowered to perform any tasks with potential to foreseeably influence an election outcome.
Yes, they decreed that the president gets elected by a college of electors. They also conspicuously declined to decree that the electors must themselves be chosen by election, instead expressly reserving the decision as to manner of selection to the respective state legislatures.
By what right do you purport to second-guess the choice made by the sovereign people acting at their pleasure?
Noscitur — Your interpretation of the meaning of, "manner," necessarily excludes the notion of joint popular sovereignty as relevant context. Include a premise that joint popular sovereignty is inviolable, and, "manner," cannot mean what you say it means.
To keep the People sovereign, the government's scope as to the, "manner," of holding elections must contract to exclusively administrative support for election processes. It cannot include a government empowered to tailor procedures designed to rival the joint popular sovereign's power to select government members at pleasure.
"and other language seems to contradict it; "
There isn't any other language which contradicts it.
The 14th amendment language which some people suppose does, says, "But when the right to vote at any election for the choice of electors for President and Vice-President of the United States, Representatives in Congress, the Executive and Judicial officers of a State, or the members of the Legislature thereof, is denied to any of the male inhabitants of such State, being twenty-one years of age, and citizens of the United States, or in any way abridged, except for participation in rebellion, or other crime, the basis of representation therein shall be reduced in the proportion which the number of such male citizens shall bear to the whole number of male citizens twenty-one years of age in such State.
Now, you COULD read this so as to claim that not having an election for Presidential electors was abridging that right to vote. But then you'd run into a little problem: "and Judicial officers of a State"; States aren't constitutionally required to have an elected judiciary! Why isn't the failure to hold judicial elections equally an abridgement?
The most natural reading is that you can only abridge the right to vote for an office if you're selecting it by a vote in the first place. Otherwise you really have to explain why the same language doesn't apply in the case of judicial (non) elections.
Bellmore — If you suppose there is ANY legitimate way for members of government, including judicial officers, to do ANYTHING which uses government power to predictably affect the outcome of an election, you are not talking about American constitutionalism.
I'm talking legally legitimate, you're talking, I don't know, maybe morally legitimate?
We didn't ratify the principles behind the Constitution. We ratified the Constitution itself. Warts, omissions, and all.
The problem with claiming principle trumps text, is that the text is written down clearly, the principle not so much, and so it becomes easy to declare some high minded principle that becomes an excuse to blow away the actual text.
One can always argue that the real puripose of the constitution is to create a great country, and that requires having great people in office, not wussy losers. So given a choice between the great leaders the quality people know the people want and the stinking losers the wussy bean-counting accounting types poring over machines say the people want, it’s pretty obvious the constitution intended the quality people, and not the wussy bean counters, to declare the outcome of elections. How could it have intended anything else? After all, when the constitution says “the people” everybody knows it means the real people, real Americas, enlightened people, and not some endarkened foreign transplants from barbarous lands who can’t even speak English. All the quality people lnow that that’s what the constitution means.
It’s just as good an argument as Stephen Lathrop’s is. If he gets to commune with the penumbras and emanations and say that what the constitution really means isn’t what it says, it’s what it REALLY means, so do the America Firsters. Whose vision of what the constitution REALLY means prevails is just a question of who happens to be in power at the moment.
If we’re going to have a living constitution that leaves mere written text behind in the dustbin of history, it can be made to live in any direction those in power want it to live.
ReaderY — No. The Constitution never says anywhere that the government is sovereign. It says in its first 3 words that the People are. Thereafter, it demands oaths of loyalty to the Constitution, which cannot be anything but fealty to popular sovereignty, given that the Constitution announces itself as the People's decree, establishing, empowering, and limiting government.
Context added by the Declaration of Independence cannot be ignored. It includes this:
That to secure these rights, Governments are instituted among Men, deriving their just powers from the consent of the governed, --That whenever any Form of Government becomes destructive of these ends, it is the Right of the People to alter or to abolish it, and to institute new Government, laying its foundation on such principles and organizing its powers in such form, as to them shall seem most likely to effect their Safety and Happiness.
Is it your view that the Constitution overturns that? If not, you have no choice but to accept the notion of unlimited sovereign power held by the People jointly. That text says in so many words that the People get to choose at pleasure, without limitation, every principle and power of government. It also says that if the People decide later they want something different, they can have that.
Finally, you also misunderstand, "those in power," taking it as equivalent to, "those in government." That is the mistake that the notion of joint popular sovereignty corrected.
So you are saying Jan. 6th was justified?
I don't think he is. That is because one subset of the people can't legitimately overthrow the will of all of the people as expressed through elections.
Kazinski — I concede that January 6 —and Trumpism more generally, and especially the refusal to concede the lost election —turned those events into a contest of sovereignty. Trump and his followers, especially including allies in congress, commenced a contest with the American People to determine which contestant would be sovereign.
Contests of sovereignty generally involve little else than pure power. On that basis it appears the Trumpists are losing presently, and may be on the verge of defeat.
JasonT20's comment is also pertinent. Popular sovereignty has altered the theoretical contested-sovereignty dynamic, at least with regard to insurrections. Popular sovereignty always raises the question why a popular faction strong enough to claim sovereignty by force has any need to do so. Why not just avail yourself of the power popular sovereignty puts uncontested into any such faction's hands?
Oh boy are you gonna be pissed when you find out what the Democrats at the FBI have been doing.
What Democrats at the FBI?
"other language seems to contradict it"
What "other language"? Specifically.
Did anyone else notice how the Democrats were trying to criminalize having legal theories and interpretations they didn't like?
The legal theory that it’s OK to assassinate the president if you don’t like his performance may be just a legal theory by itself. But when recipients of the memo, following its instructions, climb over the White House fence with guns and maps of the President’s likely locations, it’s no longer just a theory.
Same when people assault Congress.
Triers of fact are entitled to use the existence of the memo, together with facts about its author’s collaborations with the hit squad in its advanced preparations, as evidence of a joint enterprise.
I mean, Mein Kampf was just a theory, right? You can’t fault a man for merely writing a book.
Was writing Mein Kampf a criminal act?
If by "fault," you mean "punish with criminal sanctions," then actually, no you can't, unless the book it falls within one of the handful of recognized limitations on freedom of the press.
Strange but I cant seem to find your analogies very analogous.
Nothing in the legal theory being advanced by John Eastman or people like him involved assaulting Congress.
I keep pointing that out. The protest on the Mall was intended to politically intimidate members of Congress, in a "The next election isn't going to be very fun if you do the wrong thing!" sense. That's perfectly legitimate to do in a democracy.
Breaking into the Capitol building, OTOH, was almost perfectly calculated to put an end to Trump's election challenge, make it politically radioactive. It made no sense whatsoever as a part of Trump's plans.
Nor did it make any sense as a coup; It was laughably inadequate to that end, and Trump was the last guy who could actually get away with a coup, having no institutional support. If he'd tried a genuine coup, the SS would have arrested him themselves!
The idea that he planned that break in, (As the Jan 6th committee just accused him of, in a criminal referral to the DOJ.) is laughable.
Because as we all know, it's unthinkable that Trump would try to do something that wasn't a good idea in the long run.
If you applied that filter to every government policy, what % do you think would come out on the good idea side?
Of course it does. It was Trump's plan: use the attack to either force the vote to go the way he wanted, or to stop the process entirely.
He had the undying support of the entire GOP. Even after the attack, in the wake of the shock of the fact that Trump tried to have them killed, virtually the entire GOP congressional delegation stood by him.
The Fourteenth Amendment seems to eliminate the power a state legislature to select electors.
May seems so to you.
But for everyone else, please give a detailed analysis with citations.
You have to put this in context. The Election of 1800 is sometimes called "the Revolution of 1800" -- it was when the Federalist Party died and there was later serious talk of secession, i.e. the Hartford Convention of 1814-15. Etc....
Look, the democrats have been winning elections by cheating fair and square for decades. It's not their fault the GOP has more of a tendency to play by the rules. They are the stupid party, ya know.
Since there is no penalty or repercussions for cheating, why would anyone play by the rules? For the courts have repeatedly ruled that once an election has been "certified", the issue is moot and it matters not if the winning party cheated.
As a matter of fact, I'm not sure why we have election laws, rules, and regulations. There is no penalty for failing to abide by those laws or rules, so there really is no reason to have them on the books.
CindyF — Yeah. Election laws, rules, and regulations can empower government officials to effect election outcomes they prefer. Why wouldn't the nation's joint popular sovereign support them in that effort?
Every single court that has ever looked at the issue, including dozens of Trump-appointed judges, has found no evidence to support this claim.
Moreover, in a large numbet of these cases Trump lawyers declined to present fraud claims to the court, even though they were holding press conferences about them to the public. They presented only claims that election officials made relatively minor deviations from state law. They didn’t present fraud claims because they knew courts could punish them for lying.
To be clear, some of the lawyers not directly working for Trump — the Kraken team — did present fraud claims. And those claims were resoundingly rejected (contrary to MAGA propaganda) on the merits. (And some of those lawyers were punished for lying!)
What did the juries rule?
Why do you think that juries could rule anything in lawsuits seeking injunctive relief?
Well, all those Trump-appointed judges who rejected Trump's claims were secret Democrats, yanno.
BCD has a poster of Judge Cannon on the ceiling over his bed.
"democrats have been winning elections by cheating fair and square for decades"
Centuries. Albany Regency and Tammany Hall.
The USA was originally organized more like the EU: Each state was its own independently self-governed entity, but they united to form a common government (it's right there in the name) for their mutual benefit. Over time much of that independence has been lost, and largely forgotten. But that's why we have the electoral college, and why the federal government doesn't [yet?] control everything that the states do.
Yes, the USA was originally organized more like that… in the Articles. The Constitution rejected that notion.
It didn't entirely reject that notion. It just tweaked it a bit.
A Constitution that "rejected that notion" or even came close to it would not have had a snowball's chance in hell of being adopted at the time.
And then we had a Civil War because it turns out that notion was not viable.
The Constitution rejected that notion and was universally adopted, after the last holdout state, Rhode Island, realized it was better than the alternative.
Where the alternative was a naval blockade, sure.
There was no threat of a naval blockade.
Well, we already knew you were historically ignorant.
"An Act to Restrict Trade with Rhode Island, May 18, 1790. (Records of the U.S. Senate, National Archives)"
How did you suppose it was going to be enforced, moral suasion?
Not with a naval blockade, you loon!
We don't allow U.S. trade with Cuba today; do you think we have a naval blockade of the island?
But did Pickney have superhero cards with his image in them for sale? Any of them with lasers shooting out of his eyes? No? Then why should we listen to him rather than our modern expert?
A draft dodger with a trading card of himself in military uniform. I'd find that insulting if it wasn't for the photoshopped body with impossible abs and no spare tractor tire around his middle. It's funny, embarrassing, humiliating, infuriating, and validating all at the same time. Also, tacky. Very, very tacky.
This argument seems to work against the Electoral Count Act, too.
Well, sure. For instance, the Elector Count Act presumes to dictate which state officer certifies election results. But under the above understanding, there's no authority for Congress to do that.
"Electoral Count Act"
Don't see how it can bind a future congress in any event. Its really just a rule of proceedings, like the filibuster
Charles Pinckney was . . . not a prominent delegate at the convention. He was the youngest delegate and minimally influential. But later in 1818, he released what he said was his "original plan"-- a plan uncannily similar to the actual constitution. But it's well-accepted that this document was a fraud meant to aggrandize himself as "a prominent delegate at the convention." That McConnell doesn't know this, and that Prof Volokh passes it along without comment, is interesting. Conservatives have long relied on the fraudster--the Supreme Court's (C.J. Roberts) done it once and might do it again in Moore v. Harper; Pinckney is a main "authority" for the so-called independent state legislature claim.
"If it is necessary to have guards against improper elections of Electors, and to institute tribunals to inquire into their qualifications, with the State Legislatures, and with them alone, rests the power to institute them, and they must exercise it."
Seems relevent to State Legislature case.
State Legislatures are creatures of state Constitutions, so any "power" they have can be only what the state Constitutions permit, and state courts have to say what that is.
Mark Lee — And equally relevant to state legislatures themselves. And so on. Somebody already put that in Latin.
What was he responding to? Did someone in 1800 argue, like Eastman in 2022, than Congress (or the Vice President) could reject electoral votes?
The senate was considering a bill that would have empowered Congress to appoint a "Grand Committee" that would decide any election disputes: Sen. Pinckney was arguing that this arrangement was unconstitutional. (Without much success, apparently: immediately after his speech, the bill passed 16-12.)
I agree that Congress’ setting the day the electors are appointed constrains them.
But if the timing were worked out, I think they’d be within their rights to for example have an advisory popular election - have a popular vote, and then decide whether to follow it or not. I think they could also make themselves the election canvassers, which for the reasons Senator Pinckney pointed out, might amount to the same thing.
Sure, they could do either. They haven't yet, though.
The NPV compact does come close to what you're describing, in that it makes the popular vote in a state non-binding.
I think we're in complete agreement on that.
Thank you. No changing the rules after the election if things don't go your way.
So if a GOP governor sends the state police into mainly black areas and seizes and destroys ballots resulting in a GOP win, the Democrat controlled legislature is just helpless, has to certify the GOP electors?
Well, technically that's not "fraud", and only fraud matters, remember.
It’s telling that you think this is some kind of “gotcha.”
Because, no, no right-thinking Democrat would say, “Oh, we’re going to just assume who the rightful winner is and give them the electoral votes.” They would say, well, what happens under the law? Let’s see what the arguments actually are, either way. If the law doesn’t provide for a particular outcome, it might ultimately be best to just re-run the election, for the state as a whole.
Republicans are the ones in favor of tossing votes based on flimsy premises and assuming that someone else won. Democrats want to count the actual, legal votes.
Courts uber alles i guess.
Maricopa County Elections Commission had a large heat map of Republican voters up on the wall of their offices. 60% of the machines in those areas ahd election day failures. Do you think that's just a coincidence?
"Democrats want to count the actual, legal votes."
Sure, tattletale. Dems are angels.
"GOP Assembly winner could be ousted over Brooklyn residency
In an election in which Republicans underperformed nationally, Lester Chang was a success story
By MAYSOON KHAN - Associated Press/Report for America Dec 7, 2022 Updated Dec 7, 2022"
lol you didn't even know either of those facts
How would you reason from them? Throw in the fact that Republicans vote 3 to 1 on election day and there was no similar heat map of Democrat voters.
Just a reminder that Maricopa County elections are jointly administered by the County Recorder (a Republican) and the Board of Supervisors (four out of five of whom are Republicans).
But yeah, they totally hired a bunch of people to administer the elections who were out to get Republicans. That definitely makes sense.
Imagibe if you will that there was an election commission with a heat map of black voters and a failure rate like Maricopa County but in heavy black areas and the election was managed by people who formed the STOP Blacks from Voting PAC.
Where would we be?
The equivalent Democrat and Independent maps were literally right next to the Republican ones: they just got cropped out in the photo you saw.
https://apnews.com/article/fact-check-maricopa-county-map-447390498107
Which does raise the question of which is more pathetic: the fact that they thought a lie this lazy might actually work, or the fact that they were apparently right.
Of course they did. They had to make sure which machines to keep running.
Apply the principles of disparate impact to this event. What can you conclude?
Bob, this story you've referenced proves SimonP's point. There was a redistricting. Chang ran for the seat and won. No one is disputing that. The dispute is whether he was a legal resident of the county for 12 months prior as is required by the state constitution. The Democrats are claiming he was a resident of Manhattan for part of that time and didn't meet the requirements for the seat. So the Dems are asking for someone to investigate and see what the law says and move forward from there.
Chang claims that he's been living in his mother's house, which is in the county, for at least 12 months. That should be simple enough to prove. If he wasn't a legal resident for the full 12 months, he didn't qualify to run and shouldn't be allowed to hold the seat. If he was, it's his seat and the Dems can get over themselves.
Were all of the people in charge black in your scenario? That would probably be an interesting fact as part of that discussion.
But also it helps to actually display some slight skepticism to your right wing media bubble instead of just regurgitating whatever you hear. Looks like there were both Republican and Democratic heat maps (with pics to prove it): https://apnews.com/article/fact-check-maricopa-county-map-447390498107