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The Supreme Court's Options in the Harvard and UNC Affirmative Action Cases
The conservative majority on the Court is highly likely to rule against the two schools' use of racial preferences in admissions. But there are several different ways it could do so, which have different implications for future cases.
Earlier today, the Supreme Court heard oral arguments in cases challenging Harvard's and the University of North Carolina's use of racial preferences in admissions. The plaintiffs contend that Harvard and UNC's admissions policies violate Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, and that UNC - as a state institution - is also in violation of the Equal Protection Clause of the Fourteenth Amendment (which restricts discrimination by the government, but not that by private parties). Harvard and UNC argue that their policies promote educationally valuable "diversity," a purpose for which previous Supreme Court rulings Grutter v. Bollinger (2003) and Fisher v. University of Texas II (2016) allow at least some use of racial preferences.
In this post, I go over the major options before the justices. The conservative majority on the Court is highly likely to rule against Harvard and UNC. But there are a number of different ways it could do so, which have divergent implications for future cases. In my view, the best option is for the Court to simply rule that "diversity" is not a "compelling state interest" justifying the use of racial discrimination by government under the Fourteenth Amendment, and that such discrimination also violates Title VI. But that's far from the only option available to the justices.
The simplest way for the Court to decide these cases would be to reaffirm Grutter and Fisher II and uphold lower court rulings concluding that Harvard's and UNC's policies are legal. I'm not going to spend much time on this possibility, because it is highly unlikely to happen. It obviously goes against the inclinations of the conservative majority on the Court. And if that majority did want to maintain the status quo, they probably would not have decided to hear these cases in the first place. Not surprisingly, today's oral arguments revealed that all six conservative justices are highly skeptical of the universities' position.
The other relatively simple option is more likely. The Court could hold that educational diversity is not a legitimate justification for the use of racial preferences. One can make a plausible case that the text and original meaning of the Fourteenth Amendment permits the use of racial preferences for purposes of compensatory justice - offsetting a long history of discrimination against minority groups, particularly African-Americans. But there is no such historical or textual rationale for "diversity" preferences. That's especially the case when the racial categories are used to decide which groups get preferences and which do not are sweeping and arbitrary, often amounting to little more than crude racial and ethnic stereotyping. As my co-blogger David Bernstein points out in an amicus brief he filed in the case:
Harvard and UNC cannot justify grouping people whose national origins represent
roughly 60% of the world's population together as "Asian," despite vast differences within this category in appearance, language, and culture. Nor can they explain why white Europeans from Spain, people of indigenous Mexican descent, people of Afro-Cuban descent, and South and Central Americans who may be any combination of European, African, and indigenous by descent are grouped together as "Hispanic."
The "white" category is equally crude and arbitrary, lumping together such diverse groups as Arabs, Italians, and Russians. I cover some other flaws of the diversity rationale here and here. Among other things, if taken seriously, it creates a nearly limitless rationale for discrimination in favor of a vast array of different groups. And if educational diversity is an important enough interest to justify racial discrimination, why not a wide variety of other government interests? For example, why can't the state's interest in promoting public safety and reducing crime justify the use of racial profiling by law enforcement? These interests seem at least as worthy as diversity.
The arbitrary nature of the categories used by the schools came up in today's oral argument. For example, Justice Alito asked why a student from Afghanistan should be lumped in the "Asian" category along with Chinese and Japanese applicants, and whether such dubious choices make the classifications used by universities "arbitrary and, therefore, unconstitutional." Ironically, as David Bernstein notes, Afghan applicants are usually classified as "white," rather than Asian. But grouping them with Italians and Germans seems no less arbitrary than conflating them with Chinese and Japanese.
During oral argument, a number of the conservative justices seemed very open to overruling Grutter completely. But it's not clear whether this position commands a majority.
The Court might instead prefer to rule against Harvard and UNC without barring the diversity rationale for preferences completely. In this scenario, it would continue to hold that diversity is a "compelling state interest" capable of justifying the use of racial classifications in admissions. But the majority would also rule that the crude categories used by Harvard and UNC aren't enough to pass the other requirement the "strict scrutiny" test the Court has long imposed on racial preferences: such policies must also be "narrowly tailored" to the achievement of the compelling interest that justifies them.
In Grutter and Fisher II, the Court claimed to apply strict scrutiny, but actually gave university officials great deference in determining what kind of diversity would create educational benefits, and what kinds of racial preferences were needed to achieve it. In the Harvard and UNC cases, the Court could take a much less forgiving approach, and require universities to clearly specify what benefits of diversity they are seeking, and provide strong evidence that racially preferences really do achieve those benefits in a way that cannot be matched by race-neutral policies.
For fans of stare decisis, this approach would have the virtue of avoiding the need to overrule any prior Supreme Court precedents. The Court would tighten up the strict scrutiny already required by Grutter and Fisher II, but would leave much of the holdings of those two decisions untouched.
In today's oral arguments, several conservative justices asked how long diversity preferences should last, how we can measure the claimed educational benefits of diversity, and whether admissions policies could be more precisely tailored to the achievement of those benefits. Those questions might indicate an interest in tightening up judicial review of diversity preferences, without banning them completely.
If the Court adopts the tightened strict scrutiny approach, it would likely lead to extensive future litigation, as universities try to restructure their racial preference policies to conform to the new, tighter rules (or at least pretend to do so). It would also still leave in place the anomaly under which diversity qualifies as a compelling enough interest to justify racial preferences, but many other comparably worthy government interests do not.
In addition to deciding whether to ban the diversity rationale or merely subject its use to tighter scrutiny, the Court will also need to determine whether it wants to rule against the universities based on Title VI alone, or also (in the case of UNC) under the Equal Protection Clause. The text of Title VI seems to categorically ban all racial and ethnic preferences in education programs receiving federal funding (as do the vast majority of universities, including Harvard):
No person in the United States shall, on the ground of race, color, or national origin, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity receiving Federal financial assistance.
Notice there is no exception here for racial and ethnic preferences adopted for purposes of promoting diversity, or indeed for any other reason. If the justices base their decision on Title VI alone, they could easily strike down both the Harvard and UNC programs, and spare themselves the much more complex task of analyzing the meaning of the Fourteenth Amendment.
But the Court has long interpreted Title VI to allow racial preferences in education, in situations where its interpretation of the 14th Amendment would permit them. And the justices have a strong presumption against reversing their own statutory precedents - much stronger than that against reversing constitutional decisions. That makes a decision based on Title VI alone, less likely. But the justices could decide that earlier decisions' misinterpretation of Title VI is so egregious that it warrants reversal. Few if any major statutory precedents so obviously go against the clear meaning of the text.
During oral argument in the UNC case, Justice Neil Gorsuch seemed very interested in the possibility of issuing a ruling based on Title VI. He noted that "Justice Stevens made a powerful argument in Bakke [the 1978 case where the Court first addressed the use of racial preferences for diversity purposes] that whatever the Fourteenth Amendment permits or does not permit, Title VI's language is plain and clear….. and Title VI does not permit discrimination on the basis of race." Whether any of the other justices choose to pursue this option remains to be seen.
Should the Court rule against Harvard and UNC based solely on Title VI, without reaching the constitutional issue, Congress would (at least for now) be free to amend Title VI to allow diversity-based preferences. But any such legislation would be hard to pass, given the extreme unpopularity of racial preferences in higher education, which are opposed by over 70% of the public, including large majorities of both Democrats (62%) and Republicans (87%), blacks (59%), whites (79%), Hispanics (68%), and other groups.
The extreme unpopularity of racial preferences might incline wavering justices towards a broad ruling against them. To the extent that Chief Justice John Roberts and others might be concerned about the Court's diminished popularity, a strong ruling against Harvard and UNC could actually give the institution a boost. At the very least, public opinion on this issue suggests there is no reputational downside to ruling for the plaintiffs.
I should, however, emphasize that the unpopularity of racial preferences does not by itself tell us much about whether they are good policy, much less whether they violate the law. As the author of a book on political ignorance, I'm well aware that majority public opinion is often badly wrong. Thus, the fact that most of the public happens to agree with me on this issue certainly doesn't prove that my view is right.
Some commentators, most notably Yale Law School Prof. Justin Driver, have suggested that the Court could - at least temporarily - save affirmative action by relying on Justice Sandra Day O'Connor's statement in her majority opinion in Grutter, that "[w]e expect that 25 years from now, the use of racial preferences will no longer be necessary." There are still six years left until the expiration of this seeming deadline. But I am highly skeptical of the idea that the Court will or should use this statement to temporarily preserve racial preferences. Among other things, the 25 year standard is, at most, a maximum, not a minimum. It doesn't guarantee that racial preferences will remain legal until 2028; it merely suggests that they should no longer be after that point.
O'Connor's 25 year rule was often mentioned in today's arguments. But I see no indication that any of the conservative justices are inclined to conclude that racial preferences should be preserved for another six years on that basis.
Finally, the justices will have to consider the questions raised by Harvard's apparent policy of specially disfavoring Asian-American applicants, even relative to whites. Several justices raised this issue in the Harvard oral argument, including Alito, Gorsuch, and Chief Justice Roberts.
If the Court rules that racial preferences are categorically forbidden, then that ruling will dispose of Harvard's anti-Asian policies, as well. But if some diversity-based preferences are held to be legal, then the Court might have to adopt some sort of rule for dealing with situations where an institution deliberately tries to reduce the presence of some minority group in the student body, for fear that otherwise there would be too many of them. In my view, the justices would do well to make clear that, even if some diversity-promoting preferences are permissible, they cannot justify targeted anti-Asian discrimination, any more than it would justify targeting blacks, Jews, or any other specific minority group.
Anti-Asian discrimination in the name of promoting diversity is a significant issue in both elite college admissions, and at some selective public high schools, as well. The practice is reminiscent of early-20th century discrimination against Jews at some of the same institutions.
Even if the Court categorically bans diversity-based racial preferences, universities might still try to pursue them surreptitiously, for example by using facially neutral admissions criteria that correlate with race. Such practices may well result in future litigation. But rulings against Harvard and UNC could nonetheless curb racial preferences, even if they don't completely eliminate them. Surreptitious preferences that must remain hidden, lest they attract lawsuits, are at least harder to implement and maintain than open ones. It's hard to keep a secret in a large bureaucracy, like the admissions offices of major universities.
Overall, it seems highly likely that the Court will rule against Harvard and UNC in the cases argued today. But there are multiple different approaches the justices can take in the reasoning of their decisions.
UPDATE: I have made minor changes to this post.
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“For fans of stare decisis”
Who are these fans?
Anyway, a huge numbers of precedents overruled other precedents.
https://constitution.congress.gov/resources/decisions-overruled
So in order to respect its precedents, the Supreme Court shouldn’t respect its precedents.
...especially when those precedents were wrongly decided.
Interpreting Title VII to permit racial preferences was egregiously wrong.
As for the diversity rationale for racial preferences, consider this.
Punishing mass shooters is surely a compelling state interest.
To ensure an accused mass shooter would be convicted and sentenced to death, Doug Evans practiced racial preferences with regard to peremptory juror strikes.
The Supreme Court ruled that unconstitutional.
https://www.supremecourt.gov/opinions/18pdf/17-9572_k536.pdf
If punishing mass shooters can not justify racial preferences, why would diversity in colleges?
Batson was wrongly decided, and so was that case. Peremptory traditionally meant "for any or no reason." It should have remained that way.
From what I've read, Justice Kagan certainly seems to be a fan of stare decisis.
Also lots of legislators, at least when it's upholding a prior decision they liked.
Anyone who understands or has to utilize the legal system. Ignorant talking heads and blowhard Internet commenters may blather otherwise, but that's an example of dunning-krugerism. Stare decisis cannot be 100% ironclad, but it is very important. The rule of law requires predictability.
The rule of law requires predictability.
Just so. And the most important factor in achieving predictability is rigid and unapologetic adherence to the text.
For predictability also requires prediction in advance of any precedent having been established by a court judgement, and to predict with confidence one must trust the courts to apply what is known up front - the text.
Thus while precedent has its place, in helping to provide predictability in cases where the text is not clear, to the extent that text and precedent are at odds, it is precedent that must give way.
Like I said: dunning Kruger.
In psychology, this is technically known as biting your own ass 🙂
Where did you get your Masters in Psychology ?
Ah yes. I'm reminded of a certain commenter who was absolutely, 100% convinced that Pfizer still manufactured Advil today. Without understanding that Pfizer had sold off their generics unit a couple years ago.
I mean, I showed you proof you were wrong, but you do you.
Want to talk about worker's comp law, since you're an expert in that, too?
The funny thing is that most people citing to the Dunning-Kruger effect are in fact demonstrating their own ignorance.
Dunning-Kruger has been discredited as a statistical artifact - Dunning and Kruger essentially auto-correlated their results.
Well before d-k was discredited, folks w/ a tendency to use the concept to belittle others were already demonstrating a variation of the effect.
The rule of law requires predictability.
Clearly not. Plessy v Ferguson is not much an example of the ruin of the rule of law.
The problem is in that "requires". Predictability is a good thing. Nothing is required, in the sense that it gets in the path of ideology. Nothing.
Hey, you convinced me. But I’m not the one who has to be persuaded.
You have to persuade the Supreme Court to reinstate all its old precedents – you know, that extensive list I showed you of all the cases where the Court overruled itself.
I know David Nieporent’s comment was four whole sentences long, but you really ought to try reading all of them.
He said stare decisis cannot be ironclad, but that it's very important for predictability.
The Margrave complained that non-ironclad stare decisis is somewhat wanting in the matter of predictability.
Which is the point. A rule that you can rely on......sometimes.....is not really helping you with the rule of law. It's helping you with affording the judges a bucketful of discretion, which is an entirely different idea.
The Court’s overruled constitutional precedents could have made up a bulky constitutional-law casebook. A casebook full of cases which are no longer operative.
You can’t dismiss that by tossing off some silly phrase like “cannot be 100% effective.” You’ll have to acknowledge that the Supreme Court is not on your side – that despite its protestations, the Court is not seriously committed to stare decisis.
So if you’re going to say that the Court shouldn’t indiscriminately overrule precedents, that’s excellent – but don’t pretend the Court itself agrees with you.
This is very silly - no, the fact that the Supreme Court sometimes overturns it's old precedents is not proof it actually hates precedents and never relies on them.
Has anyone ever excluded the middle so hard before?
“sometimes”
lol, if by sometimes you mean a whole lot. For example, lots of key precents which you probably like (exclusionary rule, unconstitutionality of Jim Crow, legal counsel for poor criminal defendants, even gay marriage) were achieved by overruling earlier precedents.
“hates precedents and never relies on them”
No, the question was predictability. If they *never* adhered to precedent that would at least be predictable. Try again.
Your definition of a whole lot seems to ignore things like time. Yes, there were precedents like a century ago that were overruled to get our current rights regime. That doesn't make such overturning cases particularly common.
Again, you are excluding the middle. It's not 'overturn no precedents ever' or 'precedent doesn't matter.'
If they *never* adhered to precedent that would at least be predictable. Try again.
So here you switch from an 'is' argument to an 'ought' argument right in the middle of your post. And are an ass about it as well.
Pick a lane, and then Try again.
It's not just decisions from 100 years ago. If they stopped overruling precedent a century in the past, then the precedents they set later could be relied on (though that's a more modest position than you started out with). But of course there are plenty of more recent overrulings.
The advantage of straw men is they don't fight back, so you don't have to worry about anyone defending the positions you rebut, like the Supreme Court “hates precedents and never relies on them."
Are you making an 'is' argument or an 'ought' argument?
I'm arguing that you *ought* to have more awareness of the facts.
If that's an 'is' argument, then you absolutely have an excluded middle issue.
Once again: it’s not ‘overturn no precedents ever’ or ‘precedent doesn’t matter.’
Have you *read* any of these cases overturning precedent you list? Most of them absolutely think hard about overturning pasat precedent, treating precedent as persuasive authority. Some even go so far as to say that previous precedent requires convincing evidence of a change in the underlying facts or fundamental legal understanding. Some talk about if a precedent is fresh, it's more vulnerable to reconsideration. Lots of interesting ideas, all well between the false choice you have set out.
Planned Parenthood v. Casey walks through this at great length, and pretty clearly lays out the modern view of equities and approaches as a general matter - I recommend checking it out!
I give up - I even gave you a link.
Casey was overruled.
Dicta is not nothing.
Casey's thinking on stare shows another way to think about it than the false binary you set up.
Like, have you even read Brown? You don't seem like you have!
You think you’re scoring points in your favor by citing Casey and Brown?
They sound like examples *I’d* give, if I weren’t already a bit tired out by your straw-manning.
You're confusing the ought (what the Justices say they *should* be doing) with the is (what the Justices actually do).
Casey and Brown both talked about the logic behind their overturning past precedent.
You seem to think that's a waste of time; either you never overturn precedent or you shouldn't bother thinking about it and just do it.
You seem to think blindly looking at a list of final decisions and not looking at the opinions is how to do the law.
It is not.
"You seem to think [straw man position omitted]"
No.
The Court itself does agree with me. They rarely overrule precedents, and certainly do not do so indiscriminately.
As I said, you could make a constitutional law casebook out of those supposedly rare overruled cases.
(Philip Kurland made a similar remark about the Warren Court, though it certainly applies to the court since then)
Added up over 200 years.
You're bad at law *and* statistics.
Is the Court's behavior with its precedents predictable, or not?
Recall that this was the issue under discussion. Supposedly, the Court overrules its precedents so rarely that the law is predictable.
David Nieporent 1 hour ago
The Court itself does agree with me. They rarely overrule precedents, and certainly do not do so indiscriminately.
So in the ranking of “rarely” factors, see if you agree:
1. The court rarely rules against the ideologically determined outcome.
2. The court rarely rules against the clear meaning of a statute.
3. The court rarely overrules precedent.
4. The court rarely rules against the clear meaning of the constitution.
That leaves a slice of cases to be determined by precedent, a slice which is categorically more deterministic than the constitution itself.
You make it sound as if precedent is required for stupid lawyers who cannot read the text of the Constitution or the law itself. Or stupid lawyers wrote those laws so as to give room for future lawyers to work around that law.
But consider this: most of Europe is based on Roman/Civil law where precedent holds no weight in legal decisions. How do those who practice law do anything without having that precedent? Hmmm, I wonder.
That's not a fair comparison because most of Europe follows an entirely different legal model. To oversimplify:
- In the British/American model, anything not explicitly forbidden is permitted. Common law and precedent became the tools used to resolve ambiguities and edge cases.
- In the European model (often named after the Napoleanic Code but you are correct that it has older origins), anything not explicitly permitted is forbidden. Ambiguities and edge cases are resolved through discretionary prosecution - which leads to a whole host of moral hazards and opportunities for corruption.
You make it sound as if you don't understand the actual, everyday practice of law.
If a client comes to me and asks, "Am I allowed to do X?" I need to know how a court will rule if that question comes before it. I can go "read the text of … the law itself," but that will tell me only how I would interpret it. If the answer is, "Each judge will read the law for him/herself and then decide what s/he thinks it means," that provides no useful information to my client. If the answer is, "The courts have ruled such-and-such in the past, and they are required to do so in the future absent exceedingly persuasive justification to the contrary," that does provide useful information to my client.
“how a court will rule”
A lower court, certainly. They tend to be more faithful to Supreme Court precedent than the Supreme Court is.
How do you ask some 18 year old kid who had nothing to do with anything to bear this burden. It's wrong, wrong, wrong. I happen to live in a school district that has a significant Asian population (Indians, Chinese and Koreans, generally). They, along with Russian immigrants, seem to be overrepresented in terms of academic achievement. Are their achievements less deserving of admission to a selective school merely because others of the same category are overrepresented? Those kids busted their butts--let them enjoy the fruits of their labor without a discount.
Finally, there's the "what if they go too far?" problem--that would be illegal, and illegal racial discrimination is supposed to be ugly, no matter whose ox is gored. And what of decisionmakers who used to be part of MEChA? Or who espoused crackpot theories like Kristen Clarke or who yap about white privilege?
Sonia Sotomayor once linked the quality of decisions with race/ethnicity. She has no business saying anything, and she joined the awful dissent that said that the polity could not override the AA policies of a school. She shouldn't be saying a word about anyone's credentials.
Oh in that Michigan Prop 2 case? That was hilariously stupid.
Sonia Sotomayor once linked the quality of decisions with race/ethnicity.
Sotomayor's opinion is exactly as valuable as Gorsuch's. The value follows from her status as a Supreme Court Justice. Her vote counts the same.
Yes, from a power standpoint. But she's still a maroon.
She didn’t join it: she wrote it.
I've always been a bit puzzled about how the government can have a compelling interest in doing something the Constitution simply says that it shall not do. And, if it had such an interest, why it would even matter, legally speaking.
It's as though the courts have found an invisible "unless there's a good reason" clause in every command of the Constitution, and are only interested in the merits of the reason, not whether the Constitution's commands are being violated.
Because optics, unfortunately, matter.
It’s as though the courts have found an invisible “unless there’s a good reason” clause in every command of the Constitution, and are only interested in the merits of the reason, not whether the Constitution’s commands are being violated.
Close.
The Supreme Court rules by ideology, "good reason" and "ideology" being synonymous.
Whatever they do I can guarantee that at least one opinion, probably the majority one, will have a Dunning-School level bad paragraph on the history of Reconstruction.
Racism is cool as long as it is for leftist favored voters....
"All animals are equal, but some animals are more equal than others."
I'm a Harvard graduate, and I have family with UNC connections, but I also have some Asians ("real" Asians, Chinese, Korean, not Afghans) in my extended family. But none of that matters. When universities discriminated against Jews, that was wrong. When many, many educational and other institutions discriminated against "coloreds", that was wrong. That's not what America is about. Yes, Harvard and other institutions can legitimately consider other characteristics than academic performance in making admission decisions, but that consideration needs to be blind to race, ethnicity, and national origin, and from everything I've read, that's not what happens now.
Nobody cares.
And yet it’s a SCOTUS consideration.
“Nobody cares” is a fairly simple statement. You seem to not understand what it means.
I meant Eric Von Gleason III recounting his ed-jew-ma-cation and Pedigree
Yes, Harvard and other institutions can legitimately consider other characteristics than academic performance in making admission decisions, but that consideration needs to be blind to race, ethnicity, and national origin, and from everything I’ve read, that’s not what happens now.
You are of course correct.
The law of the land, today, says they can do that.
Ultimately, the law of the land is controlled by ideology, ideology in flux. If you think the status quo is wrong, you have to make the case that change is required, and people have to vote your way.
Administrators like “good” discrimination as it makes them feel morally superior. Dem politicians like it as it delivers pork to a reliable voting constituency. Both of them like it so they can paint opposition as nothing more than toothless KKK bigots.
Ah, C'mon (Man!) Robert KKK Bird had great teeth.
If diversity is so important, I'd let the policy stand as long as Administrators can show that they really are committed to diversity. The court should send this back down for further fact finding.
Critical interest - can the universities show that this is a critical interest? Do they have data to show the need and benefit for diversity, at a level of detail greater than Asian. Is this about skin color only, or also about economics, religion ...? Do they have data and plans to diversify there?
Strict scrutiny - Everyone asks about whether there is anything else they could be doing to achieve the same result. How about asking if there is anything they are doing that makes the problem worse? What percentage of Legacy and kids of high donors and faculty admitted are white? Oops, need to stop those programs first. What about the faculty, if diversity is so important have they implemented procedures to diversify the faculty and administration? One republican in the political science department might show that your commitment to diversity isn't as strong as you are telling people.
We'll see Harvard's true level of commitment if implementing diversity requires them to reject 90% of the legacy applicants.
I like how 'Hispanics' are heavily compensated under affirmative action despite the vast majority having arrived well into the era where the US started to give out social justice freebies and nobody can point to any systematic largescale historical discrimination against them especially compared to Asians.
They're literally admitting its all about equal outcomes not equal opportunity.
Yeah, that ship sailed a while back. Equity is the new hotness.
And misusing a word. That's really not what equity means. I have equity in my house!
Hispanics are too broad a group to be used for anything. Comparing, for example, Cubans and Argentinians with Mexicans and Guatemalans is like comparing apples and sheet rock.
I find it extremely unfair Hispanics were allotted Mexican food while the English were stuck with pub fare.
Of course Ales over Mexican Lagers provided some compensation.
But the Court has has long interpreted Title VI to allow racial preferences in education, in situations where its interpretation of the 14th Amendment would permit them.
This, IMO, is the weak link in the affirmative action jurisprudence. The legislative history of the Civil Rights Act makes clear that Congress did not permit AA. Glad to see Gorsuch, at least gets the point.
We’re doing legislative history now?
The plain language indicates that any form of discrimination is illegal. I would be happy to stop there. But you have Supreme Court precedent to deal with, so for that, legislative history could be relevant.
I know this is really crazy, but how about not be judging Peoples by the color of their skin but by the content of their character?
Just thought that up myself, you know, like Sleepy Joe did on that Law School paper (University of Delaware?!?!?!?!? maybe "Reverend" Arthur Sandusky has something......)
Frank "I have a Scheme??? hmm doesn't sound right"
Notice there is no exception here for racial and ethnic preferences adopted for purposes of promoting diversity, or indeed for any other reason.
...
But the Court has has long interpreted Title VI to allow racial preferences in education.
...
And the justices have a strong presumption against reversing their own statutory precedents—much stronger than that against reversing constitutional decisions.
And we see the role of the constitution very clearly. Somewhere back there in third place.
First place, ideology. AA good? Then rule in favor of AA. If AA has the votes, which it has up until now, AA is legal and constitutional, regardless of what the law or the constitution say.
..why can’t the state’s interest in promoting public safety and reducing crime justify the use of racial profiling by law enforcement? These interests seem at least as worthy as diversity.
An excellent point. But an even better one is – why can’t the state’s interests in preventing miscegenation be awarded the rosette of “compelling state interest” ? After all back when the 14th Amendment was adopted, a majority of the population in the southern states, and possibly many of the northern ones too, would have considered the prevention of miscegenation to be far more of a “compelling state interest” than educational racial diversity. Should we deduce that a post 14A SCOTUS would have been right to uphold state anti-miscegenation laws because of that “compelling state interest” ? The discernment of these “compelling state interests” is purely political. Any resolution of the case that leaves the concept of compelling state interests with a role in determining whether a constitutional right may be relied upon leaves the matter as mere politics, not law.
One can make a plausible case that the text and original meaning of the Fourteenth Amendment permits the use of racial preferences for purposes of compensatory justice—offsetting a long history of discrimination against minority groups, particularly African-Americans.
No, one can make a cantish and sophistry-marinated case, not a “plausible” one. The harms inflicted by my great great great great grandfather on yours (if any) cannot justify my being required to compensate you without pretending that 14A offers equality between racial groups as groups, rather than between individuals, and across the ages too. 14A’s text is perfectly clear that the right to equal protection is a personal one, not a group one. The clue is “each person.”
Notice there is no exception here [Title VI] for racial and ethnic preferences adopted for purposes of promoting diversity, or indeed for any other reason. If the justices base their decision on Title VI alone, they could easily strike down both the Harvard and UNC programs, and spare themselves the much more complex task of analyzing the meaning of the Fourteenth Amendment.
Yes, the text of Title VI is perfectly clear. But no, the meaning of the 14th Amendment is not any less clear on this point. There is no mention in the text of group equality, nor of “compelling state interests.”
This all has the flavor of the Emperor’s courtiers arguing furiously about the flares in the sleeves, the folds of the ruff, and the bagginess of the pantaloons in the Emperor’s new suit of clothes.
The guy is naked. It’s not complicated.
Let's be honest, the original public meaning of the 14th did not preclude businesses and universities from discriminating. That has nothing to do with equal protection under the law because there were no laws against discrimination.
However title VI is clear, and should be enforced.
It's also the current public meaning. The 14th Amendment applies only to state actors, not private parties. I don't think any court has ever held otherwise.
The original meaning of the 14th did not preclude businesses and _private_ universities from discriminating. UNC is not private; it was created and is funded by the state of North Carolina, so it has to follow the constitution. Harvard is private in form, but has long been so entangled with government that it's arguably become another government institution. At any rate, it should not be able to continue to accept government money (either student aid or research grants) while blatantly violating the 14th.
Also, doesn't the Civil Right Acts of 1964 (which did preclude businesses from discriminating) apply?
“No, one can make a cantish and sophistry-marinated case, not a ‘plausible’ one.”
OK, I’m stealing that reposte right now. “Sophistry-marinated”!
Now do the Commerce Clause, another equally “naked, not complicated” text.
I wonder if some Justices who have been watching the extremes to which some politicians have gone to ignore Bruen may be inclined to be open to issuing a more sweeping ruling in this case.
It's likely that if the Court just rules that "diversity" isn't enough justification for considering race in admissions that the Department of Virtue Signaling at many universities will just introduce some other justification to continue using race as a factor in admissions and hope that by the time that reaches the Supreme Court that the Democrats have packed the court.
Does the outcome of this case even matter practically? Does anyone believe that Harvard won’t just come up with a slightly less obvious work around to meet the same ends? The court has said that using socioeconomic factors are fine. They aren’t a perfect proxy for race, but they lean that way. And I imagine Harvard will do what it takes to tweak things towards where they want to go.
And I’m kind of OK with it if they come up with something that doesn’t smell as bad as the de facto racial quota system. I think people are more tolerant of giving people a leg up for poor life circumstances (say growing up in poverty) than of adding bonus points because of the color of their skin or ethnicity (white Hispanics is particularly a suspect case for spoils IMO) regardless of life circumstances.
If Harvard decides to do it, it has the money to tell SCOTUS to pound sand. There is far more than enough in the bank to self-fund any financial aid policy Harvard chooses.
As long as they're using public roads and public infrastructure, they should have to follow the rules applicable to the public.
Isn't that what you and your side says when a bakery decides it doesn't want to make a cake for a man who likes to bareback another man to completion?
If Harvard felt that it could do that, wouldn’t it have happened 20 years ago in the wake of FAIR v. Rumsfeld?
Not to mention that even Harvard can recognize that the optics of rejecting federal funding to be able to continue racial discrimination ain’t so hot…
Noscitur, Harvard is not obliged in its own planning to frame the issue from a far-right, anti-black, grievance-laden perspective. Nor does it lack public influence.
Do you suppose if Harvard did decide to reorganize its financial aid to pay privately for students' needs, and then selectively admitted and aided blacks as it pleased, that would somehow degrade Harvard's reputation? I think it would enhance Harvard's reputation, and tend to turn the Alito Court into a byword to the contrary.
Don't hold your breath waiting for Harvard to do so.
Harvard would not just have to privately fund all financial aid, but it would have to give up all government grants. I am pretty sure that they are not going to stop accepting all federal research funding just to keep an otherwise illegal system.
My understanding (could be wrong) is that Harvard taking federal grants (for research not teach) requires them to follow the rules. And that is surely real money. I could be wrong though?
The laywers defending Harvard and UNC claim that schools that are required to implement race neutral policies have seen declining minority enrollment. Of course, they also use the fact that race neutral policies are proliferating as evidence that their own use of race is temporary and will end, and deny that race has ever made a difference in an admission decision, so their position is not entirely internally consistent.
When public universitlies were prohobited from excluding Black students, White enrollment declined.
I fear for our constitution if the justices ignore the "25 year" rule enshrined by our forefathers (forewoman?) 19 years ago.
What makes you think it was a rule, instead of the mumbling about the future it appeared to be at the time? How can any prediction of what will happen 25 years hence be sensibly regarded as a rule?
For once I think Lathrop is right. Indeed, I'm astonished that anyone ever considered that to be a ruling, rather than an aspirational statement by O'Connor.
You can’t have your Bostock and eat it too. If Title VII prohibits sex discrimination in the sense that no consideration of sex, however tangential to the actual reason for discriminating, is permissible, then there’s no way colleges can consider race under Title VI. Kagan and Sotomayor joined Bostock in full, without any concurrences to qualify their votes. Yet they seem to have no problem with rank racial discrimination in direct contravention of Title VI. Why? Because they’re not judges, but politicians with liberal constituencies.
Endlessly repeated and always under-described is the assertion that Harvard discriminates against Asians. It is a striking assertion, because nobody doubts that Harvard admits Asians copiously in excess of their statistical prevalence. So whenever I see that point repeated, I follow the links—like Somin's link to his own article above—in the hope of finally learning the specifics which justify that assertion. Read Somin's linked article yourself. See if you think he explained it. I remain mystified.
because nobody doubts that Harvard admits Asians copiously in excess of their statistical prevalence
….. in the US population as a whole. Which is obviously completely irrelevant. Harvard also admits African Americans copiously in excess of their statistical prevalence……in the world population. Which is also completely irrelevant.
The relevant question is whether Harvard admits Asians copiously in excess of, or copiously under, their statistical prevalence……in the academically qualified population of people who apply. For which SAT scores are a good proxy.
And since the answer is an overwhelming “under”, the second question is whether this is purely accidental, or deliberate.
Lee Moore — That SAT evidence, set forth in detail, is what I am always looking for, and always surprised to find left out by those making the assertion. It was left out of Somin's link to his own article, for instance. It has been sometimes alluded to, but always left out of every article I have found on the subject. From that, I surmise that if I did find it, I might discover the evidence superficially supportive of the Asian-discriminated-against case, but statistically contestable. But how can we know until someone publishes this allegedly crucial data? I thought that when the case was argued it would show up in the plaintiffs' briefs, and I would finally get a look at it in news reports by legally-trained journalists. So far, no luck. Do you know where to point me?
You could have found this, straight from the horse's mouth, in less time than than typing your 'I surmise', simply by googling 'harvard sat asian'.
It's fascinating that you would think the 'I've never seen this thing that is all over the news, and can be easily found with a cursory search' shtick is even slightly persuasive.
Seems SL has fallen uncharacteristically silent...
Yes, no matter how many times something is explained to you, when you don't want to hear it, you "remain mystified."
Go ahead and read Somin's linked article, Nieporent, and cite it to show how persuasively he made the case.
Why do I need to find it in Somin's article, when that wasn't even the point of the article?
As I've explained to you repeatedly when you expressed the same confusion about the Thomas Jefferson case — you seem to be motivated by strong animus against Asians, for some reason — the relevant comparison is how Asians do under the current regime to how they would do if race were not a consideration.
Well Stephen, what conclusion would you reach looking at the documented fact that an Asian American in the top 20% of test scores has a 12.7% chance to be admitted to Harvard, while an African American applicant in the bottom 20% of test scores has a 12.8% chance of admission.
If Harvard were doing nothing more than holding an all comers lottery that would be one thing, but they are applying selection criteria unevenly on the basis of race.
Well Stephen, what conclusion would you reach looking at the documented fact that an Asian American in the top 20% of test scores has a 12.7% chance to be admitted to Harvard, while an African American applicant in the bottom 20% of test scores has a 12.8% chance of admission.
I would reach the conclusion you have misdescribed the scores and how they are used. Pretty obviously—I would take a bet on it and give odds—that not one person in the bottom 20% of SAT scores gets admitted to Harvard. My guess is what you left out is some kind of initial score grouping, which sorts actual Harvard prospects from others.
For instance, a combined SAT score of 1460 is listed as the 25th percentile score among admitted Harvard applicants. That 1460 ranks at the 98th percentile nationally among all SAT test takers—who are in many states a tiny elite percentage of all students. In other states, everyone takes the SAT, and in those states average scores get depressed because of that inclusivity. Thus, states with better educational performance and high SAT participation can show up on the score-rankings list below other states with lower educational performance and very low SAT participation rates. The latter group tests only its top students; the former group tests everyone, or a large percentage of everyone.
The actual 25th percentile SAT score nationally is apparently in the 850-900 range (combined scores). If you want to assert Harvard admits any applicant with a score in that range, you will have to prove it. Lack of proof is what I am complaining about.
I would add one other point. I assume that purely on the basis of test scores, Harvard advantages blacks over most other applicants, while striving to admit blacks with test scores high enough to suggest they can thrive at Harvard. Of course if I am right about that, mathematically, that creates a superficial case that most other applicants are discriminated against. It is, however, pretty strained to reason from that evidence that a group which is admitted ahead of its prevalence in the population is especially discriminated against.
Your alternative argument—and this of course is tacit in almost every argument you see in relation to Harvard—is that Harvard should be subjected to a legal standard of meritocracy, with test scores becoming the standard of merit. There is no such legal standard, and there never will be.
What SCOTUS will try to do if the right wing gets its way, is to deliver a decision actually based on a premise of legal meritocracy—which it will never mention because there is no justification in law to mention it. That is pretty screwed-up reasoning. Which is why I expect the Alito majority to deliver exactly that kind of opinion. For screwed-up reasoning, Dobbs and Bruen set a new modern standard, which I expect the Court to strive mightily to maintain going forward.
He means among the applicant pool, not nationwide. Black students at the very bottom of the applicant pool by Harvard's own metrics — this isn't the courts or the plaintiffs saying that a particular test score like the SAT defines merit, but Harvard's own system — have a higher chance of getting in than Asian students at the very top of those metrics.
Nieporent — Harvard's own system does not say any particular SAT score defines merit. Harvard posits that definition of merit requires a multi-axis evaluation.
But leaving that aside, I still have not seen from any source at Harvard a breakdown of SAT scores, showing verbal scores and math scores separately, for each of the considered applicant categories. Whether or how much that matters will remain impossible to assess without that information reported separately.
Harvard may consider itself indifferent to whether an applicant excels at math, or excels verbally. Whether Harvard is actually indifferent matters.
If, for instance, Harvard insists, either by an explicit standard or by tacit tendencies, on threshold competence at a particular level for verbal test scores, that would predictably affect results among admitted applicants. It would skew upward the combined scores shown by admitted applicants from a group which typically did better on the math test than on the verbal test—which may be the case among the Asian ethnic group. It may also be true that among Whites educated in the U.S. verbal scores tend to be higher than math scores. If so, that would skew downward the combined scores of admitted Whites.
Both phenomena would be statistical effects created by imposing an SAT verbal minimum threshold, which Harvard might practice as a necessary condition to make use of lessons typically taught in English. No discrimination on the basis of race or ethnicity would be necessary to deliver that result.
Indeed, if the situation were reversed, with Harvard imposing a minimum math SAT requirement, then applicant groups which tended to score higher on the SAT verbal test would be admitted with the higher combined scores as a result. Thus, if either the math side, or the verbal side, is used independently as a bar which applicants must clear to gain admittance, then whichever applicant groups tend to score higher on the other test will predictably be admitted with the higher combined scores.
The process is simple to visualize. If you must score, for instance, a 700 on the verbal side to be considered, and you are a member of a statistical group which typically does better on math tests than on verbal tests, then in addition to your 700 verbal score, you will typically add a higher math score to boost your combined result. Conversely, if you are a member of a group which typically has verbal scores higher than math scores, then your math score will typically be lower than the score which got you over the verbal bar, and thus your combined score will be comparatively lower.
Committed meritocrats may answer, "Who cares, the applicant with the higher combined scores has more merit." But that insistence moves the discussion away from allegations of discrimination. The appearance of discrimination would have been shown to be a statistical illusion, delivered by a choice to weight the sides of the test unevenly. On the premise of applicant groups with statistical patterns of higher scores on one side of the test than on the other, the appearance of bias could be reversed simply by changing which side of the test was chosen for an admittance threshold.
That effect would not occur if the admissions committee were in fact indifferent to any particular levels of verbal ability, or math ability. Thus, that question of indifference, together with the existence or non-existence of test score patterning among comparative applicant groups, become important points for evaluation.
Does anyone know whether that specific information—separate verbal and math SAT scores among the groups featured for comparison—is under consideration in this case?
You will notice that I didn't say SAT score, which makes your entire ignorant and long-winded post a complete red herring.
I think these are the correct numbers:
“For example, an Asian American in the fourth-lowest decile has virtually no chance of being admitted to Harvard (0.9%); but an African American in that decile has a higher chance of admission (12.8%) than an Asian American in the top decile (12.7%).”
From the cert petition.
I think the 25-year limit could apply by ending with the CLASS of 2028, so students applying next fall would be the last to benefit.
Ironically, as David Bernstein notes, Afghan applicants are usually classified as "white," rather than Asian. But grouping them with Italians and Germans seems no less arbitrary than conflating them with Chinese and Japanese.
Are you kidding? Get a set of pictures of Italians, Germans, Chinese, and Japanese. Show people some pictures of Afghans and ask them how they'd divide your five sets of pictures into two groups.
Why do they need to be divided into two groups?
Shouldn’t it be “The non-racist majority...”?
When Justice Sotomayor asked about zero minorities, didn't she set a specific quota? Minimum number of minorities 1 or more, but no less than one.
I am so weary of the endless euphemisms trying to dodge the word quota. All the justices agree that racial quotas are not allowed. Enough with the euphemisms evading the truth.
BTW, is the doctrine of Constitutional avoidance still a thing? I was always taught that if you can decide a case on statutory or common law grounds, a court should not reach Constitutional questions.
In this case, if Title VI bars affirmative action, then why get into the 14th Amendment at all?
After Dobbs, I wonder if it is still a thing, at least for this current Court.
What does Dobbs have to do with it? Dobbs was a Constitutional case, even if the Court had limited its analysis to the Mississippi 15-week law.
Right - but it could have been decided in much more minimal grounds than it was.
I take that to stand for a pretty aggressive view of how to rule on issues of cultural import.
This is not a particularly uncommon view.
I think it's being balanced against the Court's interest in not having an issue perpetually returning. It's not as though abortion was going to go away if they'd resolved Dobbs on some other grounds.
The answer to this seems so obvious to me. Just have the universities increase the deference they already show to applicants who have, in addition to their achievements, a history of overcoming formidable obstacles in order to achieve what they achieve. And include membership in a despised minority-group as an obstacle, the overcoming of which makes the applicant more impressive.
That would be constitutional, and would benefit the same people whom we were hoping to benefit with affirmative action, and would avoid the paradox of granting special benefits to applicants who are both minority-group members and privileged, like Barack Obama's daughters.
My vote is for Justice Thomas to write the decision. I think that he use have loved fire crackers, then dynamite when he was younger. His decision could e as short as: Discrimination on the basis of race is illegal.
His decision could be as short as: Discrimination on the basis of race is illegal.
Or more honestly: Avoiding discrimination on the basis of race just works the best for all of us, thus we rule such discrimination to be illegal for statutory and constitutional reasons.
Legislating from the bench!
And doing so in a Supreme manner.
I don’t think Kavanaugh would let Thomas write the opinion he wants to write. But Kavanaugh might be in the minority. Really Justice Barrett is deciding this case. Will she side with Kavanaugh and allow diversity to remain a compelling interest (just with perhaps more restrictions on how race can be used), or will she side with Roberts and the unholy trinity to entirely jettison Grutter’s diversity holding?
If the latter, then I agree Thomas will write the opinion. Kavanaugh will have to decide whether to dissent separately, or to concur in the style of Roberts in Dobbs.
But if it’s the former, we’ll get a fractured decision with three votes to affirm, four votes to overturn Grutter, and two controlling votes to remand with instructions to apply even stricter scrutiny. I guess in that case it would be up to Kavanaugh whether to write the controlling opinion himself or kick it to Barrett.
Ilya, you don't seem to understand the cases very well. SFFA plus almost all the justices -- with the notable exception of Sotomayor! -- were proponents of "surreptitious preferences" or "facially neutral admissions criteria that correlate with race." They're called "race-neutral alternatives," the existence of which are taken to undermine the narrow tailoring analysis of strict scrutiny. But that only works if the race-neutral alternatives are themselves constitutionally acceptable.
Only Justice Sotomayor made the point you're making, that if so-called race-neutral alternatives are adopted for the purpose of racial diversity, in other words because they work as proxies for race, isn't that still a racial preference? But everyone else -- even General Prelogar -- seemed happy to have the escape hatch. Clearly we're headed toward a world of Supreme-Court-sanctioned racial subterfuge.
Congratulations conservatives! You're really helping.
Incidentally,
"To the extent that Chief Justice John Roberts and others might be concerned about the Court's diminished popularity, a strong ruling against Harvard and UNC could actually give the institution a boost."
The problem here is that it isn't the general population's opinion that Roberts cares about.
Would Asians want to go to an all-Asian Harvard? Just asking.
Just wait until the media gets ahold of it. I’m sure they’ll find a way to portray SCOTUS as the Nazi high court, hell bent on re-enslaving blacks.