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Federal Court of Claims Rejects Takings Claims Against CDC Eviction Moratorium
But it does so on the ground that the moratorium was never properly "authorized," not because a moratorium could never be a taking.
It went almost unnoticed amidst the dramatic legal developments at the Supreme Court. But, on May 17, US Court of Claims - the trial court that hears takings claims against the federal government - rejected a takings claim against the federal eviction moratorium, that had earlier been struck down by the Supreme Court as beyond the powers of the Centers for Disease Control (CDC), which had enacted and reenacted it at the behest of first the Trump White House and later Biden. The takings case continued even after the moratorium ended, because the plaintiff property owners still sought compensation for the losses they suffered during the roughly 11-month period that the moratorium was in effect before the Supreme Court invalidated it.
In a post written when the takings lawsuit was first filed, I explained why the argument that eviction moratoria qualify as takings requiring compensation under the Fifth Amendment was boosted by the Supreme Court's 2021 ruling in Cedar Point Nursery v. Hassid:
A key reason why such claims faced bleak prospects [before] is that Supreme Court precedent made it very difficult for property owners to prevail in a takings case if the government imposed a merely "temporary" physical occupation of their land. It was often difficult to tell the difference between a temporary occupation and a permanent one. But the CDC had a strong argument that the eviction moratorium was temporary, because each successive extension of the order included a specific time limit, generally only a few weeks in the future.
Cedar Point changes that. Now, at least a as a general rule, "a physical appropriation is a taking whether it is permanent or temporary." This makes potential takings challenges to the CDC order much stronger. A moratorium on evictions in situations where the property owner would otherwise have a right to remove the tenant pretty clearly imposes at least a temporary physical occupation against the owner's will.
The Court of Claims ruling didn't reject this reasoning. Instead, it ruled against the plaintiffs because the eviction moratorium was never properly authorized by Congress. Ironically, the Supreme Court's ruling against the legality of the CDC's policy actually helped the agency in the takings case:
To assert a viable takings claim against the United States, the government action in issue must be duly authorized by Congress. See Del-Rio Drilling Programs, In c. v. United States, 146 F.3d 1358, 1362-63 (Fed. Cir. 1998) (Ct. Cl. 19 78) ("a [T]ucker Act suit does not lie for an executive taking not authorized by Congress, expressly or by implication")… Where, as here, a federal agency's actions are not authorized, the actions "may be enjoinable, but they do not constitute [a] taking effective to vest some kind of title in the government and entitlement to just compensation in the owner or former owner." Del-Rio,146 F.3d at 1362….
Addressing the CDC's reliance upon the Public Health Service Act to support the nationwide residential eviction moratorium at issue in this case, the Supreme Court characterized the government' s arguments as "breathtaking" and "unprecedented," explaining: "It strains credulity to believe that this statute grants the CDC the sweeping authority that it asserts." Alabama Ass 'n of Realtors,_ U.S. at _ , 141 S. Ct. at 2486, 2489 …. Vacating the stay of the district court's ruling that the CDC lacked congressional authority to issue the eviction moratorium, the Supreme Court concluded: "If a federally imposed eviction moratorium is to continue, Congress must specifically authorize it…"
This result strikes me as perverse. Under the doctrine that only "authorized" government actions can qualify as takings, officials can get away with denying compensation if their policies were otherwise illegal. I can understand refusing to require taxpayers to pay compensation for the actions of rogue low-level officials acting on their own (so long as victims can sue the officials directly, as sadly often is not the case). But the eviction moratorium wasn't undertaken by a few low-level miscreants. It was adopted at the behest of two successive presidents of the United States! That should be enough to qualify as official action requiring takings compensation (if what was done counts as a taking otherwise, of course).
That said, I recognize that the distinction between "authorized" and "unauthorized" government actions has a long history in takings precedent. The Court of Claims couldn't simply overrule it all.
But, as Judge Armando Bonilla recognized in his opinion, precedent does distinguish "between conduct that is 'unauthorized' and conduct that is authorized but nonetheless unlawful." The latter can still give rise to takings compensation. One way to distinguish between "unauthorized" and "authorized but unlawful" conduct is that the latter falls within the "normal duties" of the officials in question. The Court of Claims ruled that the sweeping nature of the eviction moratorium made it abnormal.
To my mind, the fact that the measure had a public health rationale (public health is the CDC's main responsibility) still made it "normal" enough to qualify as authorized but unlawful. True, it was unusually broad, and had a dubious legal rationale. But broad measures - including many with dubious legal rationales - have become common during the Covid pandemic.
In addition, it's worth emphasizing, once again, that the policy had the backing of the White House! If the support of successive presidents of different parties and widely divergent ideologies doesn't count as "authorization" (even if still unlawful), I'm hard-pressed to figure out what does.
This case is going to be reviewed by the Federal Circuit on appeal. Perhaps it might eventually even get to the Supreme Court.
In the meantime, the issue of whether eviction moratoria qualify as takings is likely to also be addressed in cases challenging state and local moratoria. In many such situations, there is no question that the moratorium had legislative authorization. Thus, courts will have to fully consider the takings claims on the merits.
The federal eviction moratorium did not achieve the benefits advocates claimed for it, and its end did not lead to the "eviction tsunami" they predicted. Far from eviction moratoria helping renters, research by economists indicates that they lead to increases in the cost and declines in the availability of housing.
There may be a case for public assistance to renters (especially poor ones) during recessions or other times of crisis. But, if so, it is better for the government to subsidize rent than to try to foist the cost on landlords. If officials nonetheless insist on imposing eviction moratoria, they should have to pay takings compensation for it.
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This where the scumbag lawyer profession cannot read the plain language of the constitution, and refuses to protect the public from the depravity of its employer, the immunized government. The immunities of these scumbag judges and of these government officials, these vile agents of the Chinese Commie Party trying to destroy our nation from within is full justification for violence in formal logic. Formal logic is supreme to all rules and ratified treaties, having more certainty than the laws of physics.
This sounds perverse. Government tells you how to use your property, and then when you ask for compensation, it does not have to give it, since the whole thing was unauthorized anyway.
Reminds me of the old saying about the person who murders his parents and then asks for mercy as an orphan.
Amazing how they apply a magnifying glass to the Constitution to discern a workaround for something else in the Constitution IN GIANT BLINKING NEON LETTERS.
So the Federals can break the law and cause you harm and since they were harming you illegally they are immune?
The Federals are the greatest threat to human freedom humanity has ever encountered. I mean that literally.
So this means the CDC's officers are personally liable, right?
Surely the court isn't going to claim that no one can be held responsible?
Yes, the court is going to claim that no one can be held responsible. And don't call me Shirley.
"And don't call me Shirley."
How about Miss Temple?
So can they now sue the government for enforcing an unauthorized rule? Or does sovereign immunity cover that one.
The government can do whatever it wants to us with absolutely no consequences. And they’re shocked, shocked when it pisses us off. The system and structure we have are fine, but we need to literally change out all of the people.
What's truly perverse is the idea that a piece of property that you continue to possess and hold title to has been somehow "taken" from you. The entire notion of a "regulatory taking" is atextual, unconstitutional nonsense.
More perverse still is the belief that the government has "foisted a cost on landlords" - when landlords derive their wealth *solely from the government* (specifically from the government's property-law enforcement regime). Landlords themselves create nothing of value, nor they engage in productive labor. That their parasitic extraction was paused for 11 months is no injustice - in fact, just the opposite.
Your take on where landlords derive their wealth from is utter garbage.
And I’m sure you’d be fine if the government took away your revenue stream and made you continue to bear all the ongoing costs. Hypocrite.
No hypocrisy at all. I (like I assume most commenters on this site) am an attorney, meaning that my revenue streams exist at least in some part on the whims of the government. Entire practice areas can be wiped out with the stroke of a pen or the filing of an opinion. Sometimes that is "fine", sometimes it isn't, but never is it a "taking" of property.
"that you continue to possess"
Nope. If you have a tenant, and are barred from evicting acc. to the terms of the lease, then you do not have possession.
Nice try.
The point that matters is that they still hold title to it. The government has not "taken" any property from them for public use. On the original meaning of the Takings Clause, a taking occurs only when the government acquires title to the property. If this Supreme Court is serious about faithfully adhering to originalism (lol), it should use this case as a vehicle to put an end to the "living constitution" innovation that is the regulatory takings doctrine.
OK. So you admit that your possession point was wrong.
As for title, please cite a case from the Founding Era where the govt. barred use of a property but left title with the owner, and a court held there was no need to compensate. Because saying you can do nothing with your property is the functional equivalent of destroying title. That state of affairs seems like a 20th century innovation.
You have the burden of proof backwards - it is you, who is claiming the existence of a constitutional right, that must produce evidence that such a right existed at the time of ratification.
Nonetheless, this source (https://scholarship.law.georgetown.edu/cgi/viewcontent.cgi?article=1001&context=gelpi_papers#:~:text=The%20original%20understanding%20of%20the%20Takings%20Clause%20was%2C%20very%20simply,for%20regulations%20under%20any%20circumstances.) has a thorough discussion of the issue, which includes the following:
"Until late in the nineteenth century, judicial constructions of the Takings Clause and of similar state constitutional provisions were consistently narrow. As one treatise writer observed in 1857,
"It seems to be settled that, to be entitled to protection under this clause [the Takings Clause], the property must be actually taken in the physical sense of the word." Similarly, the Supreme Court
declared in 1871:
"[The Takings Clause] has always been understood as referring only to a direct appropriation. ...It has never been supposed to have any bearing upon, or to inhibit laws that indirectly work harm
and loss to individuals. A new tariff, an embargo, a draft, or a war may inevitably bring upon individuals great losses; may, indeed, render valuable property almost valueless. They may destroy the worth of contracts. But whoever supposed that, because of this, a tariff could not be changed, or a non-intercourse act, or an embargo be enacted, or a war be declared?" Legal Tender Cases, 79 U.S. (12 Wall.) 457 (1871). In short, the Fifth Amendment's Takings Clause did not prevent regulations and statutes from restricting how property could be used nor did it prevent them from diminishing the value of property. The clause applied only to "a direct appropriation."
Yes, not every regulation is a taking. But the regulation we're talking about here involves a physical occupation of the property, not a mere restriction on use of the property.
A temporary, sporadic occupation by a party who is not the government. Until the recent (incorrect, result-driven) CA union case, such an arrangement has never been thought to be a "taking", and certainly would not have been considered one at the time of the founding.
If that were true, then your legal analysis (though of course not your economic analysis) could be right. But I'm afraid we need a bit more than your word for that.
But property is a bundle of sticks, and I see no reason why a taking should only refer to title rather than any of the other property rights in that bundle.
Landlords themselves create nothing of value, nor they engage in productive labor.
Well, somebody built the building. And somebody maintains it.
Uncle Joe Stalin does that.
That would be the construction workers and property managers, respectively. Of course, sometimes one person can wear two hats, so to speak - a landlord might also manage upkeep of the property. In such a case, there is nothing wrong with such a person earning profits commensurate with the actual work performed. But that is largely a red herring - the vast majority of wealth extracted by landlords is from the *underlying value of the land itself*, which obviously derives not from any work on the part of the landlord himself, but rather from the government's enforcement of property rules. Landlords, qua landlords, bring nothing to the table.
Good thing they can find construction workers to work for nothing. And someone to donate all the materials required to create the building. Or upgrade and repair it. Otherwise that shiftless landlord might be forced to contribute something.
I’d think a lawyer would have some concept of private property and the necessity of return on capital in the economy.
You do realize that buildings get built all the time without middlemen landlords inserting themselves, right?
"I’d think a lawyer would have some concept of private property and the necessity of return on capital in the economy."
You thought wrong.
You do realize that buildings get built all the time without middlemen landlords inserting themselves, right?
They do? How?
I mean, some get built more or less to order, as when a company decides it needs a new building. But how do residential apartment buildings get built without someone involved who is responsible first for arranging the financing, acquiring the land, dealing with the construction company, etc., and then finding and managing tenants?
These various roles can be swapped around, of course, but at the root of the whole project is this: Money is advanced, used for all these purposes, and then must be recovered, through rent. Somewhere in there is a landlord.
Yes, they are often portrayed as unsympathetic figures, and no doubt some deserve it. But so what?
(There is a scene in The Producers where Max Bialystok - the Mostel character in the movie - has just secured a check. Unfortunately he encounters his landlord on the way back to the office. The landlord spots the check and grabs it.
Bialystok: How can you take the last penny from a poor man's pocket?
Landlord: I have to. I'm a landlord.)
I don't deny that landlords sometimes act as you described. And should be compensated for it. But if it's true that landlords derive their wealth ultimately from that sort of activity, what are we to make of landlords who are able to command rents for unimproved empty land? What does the guy who rents an empty field to a farmer (or a tract of land in a city to a separate apartment complex developer) do to justify his wealth?
I think your complaint ultimately has more to do with how the owner acquired the land to begin with than with the business of charging rent.
Complex question.
Magic buildings must be springing up all the time without an owner. It’s the Emancipated Building Movement. Break the bondage of property ownership. No justice, no (living) space. Or something.
How is this even a question? There are developers who buy and improve land by building apartments etc. Typically they then sell it, take the capital, and go on to other development projects. The developers don't generally care to continue to own their developments -- that's not their core competency.
The landlords buy the property from the developers in order to collect rent on it. For them, it's simply an investment vehicle, supported, as Auntie said, by property law.
Yes, yes, yes, please come back when you're 17 and have outgrown your Marxist phase.
Da, Conrad.
Except, how do you explain this, from the father of capitalism?
""As soon as the land of any country has all become private property, the landlords, like all other men, love to reap where they never sowed, and demand a rent even for its natural produce."
"[Landlords] are the only one of the three orders whose revenue costs them neither labour nor care, but comes to them, as it were, of its own accord, and independent of any plan or project of their own. That indolence, which is the natural effect of the ease and security of their situation, renders them too often, not only ignorant, but incapable of that application of mind"
"The landlord demands a rent even for unimproved land, and the supposed interest or profit upon the expense of improvement is generally an addition to this original rent. Those improvements, besides, are not always made by the stock of the landlord, but sometimes by that of the tenant. When the lease comes to be renewed, however, the landlord commonly demands the same augmentation of rent as if they had been all made by his own. "
Adam Smith, The Wealth of Nations
Not sure why you've bait-and-switched to unimproved land. I've got Georgist sympathies, and am perfectly willing to discuss the issue of how to handle rent for such property. But we're talking about buildings here.
Not a bait-and-switch - the discussion of unimproved land is merely to illustrate my larger point that a landlord’s rent is derived, at least in (large) part, on the value of the land itself. That principle does not simply evaporate when a building is erected.
You're an idiot.
Solid contribution to the discussion. I am now convinced by your superior facts and logic of the merits of rent-seeking capitalism, and will be tithing my next paycheck to the US Chamber of Commerce as penance.
Not quite how it works. The government can't prevent you from using the property as you see fit without just compensation. Even if it's a "temporary" taking.
Sure it can. There are all kinds of restrictions on property use, including restrictions on eviction. There's zoning, rent controls, safety requirements, notice requirements, non-discrimination requirements, etc. etc. etc. Every restriction on property use is not a taking.
The best possible argument that this is a taking, when the others aren't, is that this is a new requirement. Existing regulations are "priced in," but new regulations that impact property values are takings.
There may (or may not) be times when that argument works, but this definitely isn't one. Here we have a new regulations in response to an external (not government-caused) crisis. Crisis management measures are expected and therefore also "priced in" to the property value. The Takings Clause isn't an insurance policy.
By my read of Del-Rio "authorized" means authorized by Congress, not by an n-th level executive branch superior, and a bureaucrat's act can be authorized but unlawful if it exercises a power Congress granted but restricted to limited circumstances and those limitations are not met.
This was my assumption as well. Authorized yet unlawful means that the action could have been lawful but for some fault, not in its warrant but in its execution. For example, maybe the title transfer gets botched in some way, but the government has bulldozed your house before it gets discovered. You still get compensated for your house, even if you regain title to the property.
But here, the failure that rendered the policy unlawful was deficient authorization, which is just another way of saying "unauthorized."
A) the eviction moratorium is a taking - surprising that anyone would think otherwise
b) The eviction moratorium was highly ineffective in reducing the spread of covid, and was based on seriously flawed analysis. Further, even if ,(and thats a bif IF), the eviction moratorium had any positive effect, it was never going to have any long to benefit in achieving the only long term solution to covid which remains developing broad based immunity throughout the population.
The Court of Federal Claims might have taken some helpful inspiration from the law of sexual harassment. In that field, there’s a dizzying framework that governs employer liability most of the time—it depends whether the harasser was a supervisor, whether the employee suffered an adverse employment action, whether the harassment was pervasive, whether the employer had appropriate anti-harassment policies, whether the employee reported up the chain, etc. But crucially, when the harasser is at the top of the company (the CEO, the President, the sole proprietor, a partner), the law accurately recognizes that harassment from that kind of person simply *is* harassment by the company. All the complexities of Meritor and Ellsberg and Faragher and Vance fly out the window, and the company is liable. Here, the CFC could have abided by precedent that distinguishes between the authorized and the unauthorized, simply by recognizing a reality that (with apologies to Nixon) when the President does it it’s not unauthorized.