The Volokh Conspiracy
Mostly law professors | Sometimes contrarian | Often libertarian | Always independent
Bruen, Originalism, and Post-Enactment Practice
What role should liquidation play in originalism?
Justice Thomas's majority opinion in Bruen provides a roadmap of how to use originalism based on analogical reasoning--that is, how to look at practices from prior to ratification of the Second Amendment. The Court also discusses, at some length, how to consider post-enactment practice. This issue has been subject to debate in originalist circles for some time. In Heller, for example, Justice Scalia considered gun restrictions that were enforced following the ratification of the Second Amendment. Justice Stevens criticized Scalia with a charge of hypocrisy: why would an originalist look at history that came after the Second Amendment's adoption? Scalia replied that originalists can rely on post-ratification history that confirms pre-ratification history. That confirmation suggests a continuity, in which the meaning of the text did not change over time. By contrast, post-ratification history is less useful if there was no continuity--that is, there was some later-in-time break in practice that suggested a shift in meaning.
In Noel Canning, Justices Breyer and Scalia disagreed about this point. Breyer suggested that post-ratification practice could potentially trump original meaning--at least where the text was ambiguous. Scalia, by contrast, rejected this "adverse possession" approach to constitutional law, in which the executive branch can aggrandize its power by violating the Constitution for long periods of time.
This debate has continued to simmer. Thankfully, Justice Thomas brought some clarity to the issue in Bruen.
Thomas explains that for originalists, "not all history is created equal."
We categorize these historical sources because, when it comes to interpreting the Constitution, not all history is created equal. "Constitutional rights are enshrined with the scope they were understood to have when the people adopted them." Heller. The Second Amendment was adopted in 1791; the Fourteenth in 1868.
History that is too old may not be useful.
Historical evidence that long predates either date may not illuminate the scope of the right if linguistic or legal conventions changed in the intervening years. It is one thing for courts to "reac[h] back to the 14th century" for English practices that "prevailed up to the 'period immediately before and after the framing of the Constitution.' " Sprint Communications Co. v. APCC Services, Inc. (2008) (Roberts, C. J., dissenting). It is quite another to rely on an "ancient" practice that had become "obsolete in England at the time of the adoption of the Constitution" and never "was acted upon or accepted in the colonies." Dimick v. Schiedt (1935). . . . Sometimes, in interpreting our own Constitution, "it [is] better not to go too far back into antiquity for the best securities of our liberties," Funk v. United States (1933), unless evidence shows that medieval law survived to become our Founders' law. A long, unbroken line of common-law precedent stretching from Bracton to Blackstone is far more likely to be part of our law than a short-lived, 14th-century English practice.
Likewise, history that is too recent may also not be useful.
Similarly, we must also guard against giving postenactment history more weight than it can rightly bear. It is true that in Heller we reiterated that evidence of "how the Second Amendment was interpreted from immediately after its ratification through the end of the 19th century" represented a "critical tool of constitutional interpretation." We therefore examined "a variety of legal and other sources to determine the public understanding of [the Second Amendment] after its . . . ratification."
Next, Justice Thomas turns to a concept known as "liquidation." In some cases, post-enactment practice can settle the meaning of ambiguous texts. Here, the Court favorably cites Caleb Nelson and Will Baude, who have written on this topic.
And, in other contexts, we have explained that " 'a regular course of practice' can 'liquidate & settle the meaning of ' disputed or indeterminate 'terms & phrases' " in the Constitution. Chiafalo v. Washington (2020); see generally C. Nelson, Stare Decisis and Demonstrably Erroneous Precedents, 87 Va. L. Rev. 1, 10–21 (2001); W. Baude, Constitutional Liquidation, 71 Stan. L. Rev. 1 (2019). In other words, we recognize that "where a governmental practice has been open, widespread, and unchallenged since the early days of the Republic, the practice should guide our interpretation of an ambiguous constitutional provision." NLRB v. Noel Canning (2014) (Scalia, J., concurring in judgment); see also Myers v. United States (1926); Printz v. United States (1997).
Still, Justice Thomas pour some cold water on liquidation. He relies on then-Circuit Judge Kavanaugh's opinion in Heller II:
But to the extent later history contradicts what the text says, the text controls. "'[L]iquidating' indeterminacies in written laws is far removed from expanding or altering them." Gamble v. United States, (2019) (Thomas, J., concurring); see also Letter from J. Madison to N. Trist (Dec. 1831), in 9 Writings of James Madison 477 (G. Hunt ed. 1910). Thus, "post-ratification adoption or acceptance of laws that are inconsistent with the original meaning of the constitutional text obviously cannot overcome or alter that text." Heller (Kavanaugh, J., dissenting); see also Espinoza v. Montana Dept. of Revenue (2020).
Thomas and Kavanaugh are emphatically correct. And here, the Court rejects Justice Breyer's approach to liquidation, in which later-in-time practice can overcome clear text. Once again, the new conservative Court is clearing the brush of non-originalist doctrine.
Justice Barrett wrote a concurrence in Bruen. She has some concerns about liquidation:
I join the Court's opinion in full. I write separately to highlight two methodological points that the Court does not resolve. First, the Court does not conclusively determine the manner and circumstances in which postratification practice may bear on the original meaning of the Constitution. Scholars have proposed competing and potentially conflicting frameworks for this analysis, including liquidation, tradition, and precedent. See, e.g., Nelson, Originalism and Interpretive Conventions, 70 U. Chi. L. Rev. 519 (2003); McConnell, Time, Institutions, and Interpretation, 95 B. U. L. Rev. 1745 (2015). The limits on the permissible use of history may vary between these frameworks (and between different articulations of each one).
Like in Fulton, the former Professor pens a concurrence to raise some questions:
To name just a few unsettled questions: How long after ratification may subsequent practice illuminate original public meaning? Cf. McCulloch v. Maryland (1819) (citing practice "introduced at a very early period of our history"). What form must practice take to carry weight in constitutional analysis? See Myers v. United States (1926) (citing a "legislative exposition of the Constitution . . . acquiesced in for a long term of years"). And may practice settle the meaning of individual rights as well as structural provisions? See Baude, Constitutional Liquidation, 71 Stan. L. Rev. 1 (2019) (canvassing arguments). The historical inquiry presented in this case does not require us to answer such questions, which might make a difference in another case.
In the Emoluments Clauses litigation, Seth Barrett Tillman and I discussed the methodology to consider post-ratification history. I wrote about our approach in an essay for the South Texas Law Review, titled Defiance and Surrender. Here is an excerpt:
President Washington and other Founders who were his successors during the Early Republic openly received, accepted, and kept diplomatic gifts and other gifts from foreign governments and their officials without seeking or receiving congressional consent. These early presidents acted as if they were not bound by the Foreign Emoluments Clause.5 However, Presidents Jackson, Tyler, Van Buren, and Lincoln declined to personally accept foreign gifts. These later presidents, other scholars contend, acted as if they were bound the Foreign Emoluments Clause. Courts might take the intuitive position that because all presidents have equal authority, the latter presidents ought to be preferred. The Supreme Court has taught a different lesson: modern practice does not automatically overcome earlier precedents. There is an additional principle that informs this inquiry. When considering competing streams of historical practice by the three branches, courts favor purported defiance over voluntary surrender. Disputed assertions of power by Washington and his successors in the Early Republic are more probative about the scope of the Foreign Emoluments Clause than voluntary acquiescence by Jackson and post-Jackson presidencies.
Seth and I will discuss this issue at some length in Part III of our ten-part series. And we will address some of Barrett's questions, at least indirectly.
Editor's Note: We invite comments and request that they be civil and on-topic. We do not moderate or assume any responsibility for comments, which are owned by the readers who post them. Comments do not represent the views of Reason.com or Reason Foundation. We reserve the right to delete any comment for any reason at any time. Comments may only be edited within 5 minutes of posting. Report abuses.
Please
to post comments
Thomas showed how to take a smelly shit on a stage and get people to clap for it.
Perhaps an analogy to how extrinsic evidence can be relied upon in interpreting a contract is a good analogy.
I hope you will at least touch on the Establishment Clause, since its accepted meaning in 1791 (when two states had established churches) was not the same as in 1868.
The only change between 1791 and 1868 in terms of the meaning of the Establishment Clause is that the general consensus is that none of the BOR amendments applied to the states. That and only that changed with the adoption of 14A.
At first it appeared that SCOTUS would incorporate the BOR in full against the states using the privileges and immunities clause. But the court reversed course on that in the 1870s with the Slaughter house cases, then began selective incorporation in the 1920s.
https://legal-dictionary.thefreedictionary.com/Incorporation+Doctrine
Also, my understanding is that considerably more than 2 of the original states had established churches at ratification. However they began disestablishment shortly there after and the last state to disestablish did so in the 1830s.
Thus, until the court expanded the meaning of "establishment of religion" beyond a state supported church, there was no reason to even consider incorporation of the establishment clause as no state had an established church in the post 14A era.
If all the states hadn't disestablished their churches by 1833, then they might have taken more account of the implications of the 14th amendment in 1868.
But I don't think they considered freedom from an established church a privilege or immunity, not unless they compelled attentendence or required adherence to it's doctrine to vote, hold office, or recieve a public benefit.
I would just like to point out something at least I think important, though nobody else seems to think it relevant:
When you talk about post-ratification practice, you are talking about practice at the state level, after ratification of an amendment which was not binding on the states. I think their practice can't be very strong evidence of the meaning of the 2nd amendment, because they were not subject to it.
Might be evidence of common attitudes towards the whole topic, though.
Further, only four of the states at the time had constitutional provisions comparable to the 2nd amendment. Pennsylvania, Vermont, North Carolina, and Kentucky. Did practice in these states differ from other states? Because these states were bound by similar language.
This is clearly false given that Madison was the original author of the 2nd Amendment and he also was the author of attempts to pass related state laws. He was fully aware of the meaning of the amendment he authored, yes? So his subsequent, state-level actions to try and limit possession of guns to only members of the state militia (remember that bit?) directly speaks to how he viewed the meaning of the amendment he authored.
For example: "But to appreciate how the founding generation thought about firearm regulation, we can look at what they did, and not just what they said. James Madison, the author of the Bill of Rights, twice introduced state legislation in Virginia that would impose penalties on any individual who “bear[s] a gun out of his inclosed ground, unless whilst performing military duty.”"
"He was fully aware of the meaning of the amendment he authored, yes? So his subsequent, state-level actions to try and limit possession of guns to only members of the state militia (remember that bit?) directly speaks to how he viewed the meaning of the amendment he authored."
Not so much if he viewed it as not applying to the states.
That's just meaningless trivia.
Madison wrote the bill for preservation of deer in 1785, years before the constitution or the 2nd Amendment was even drafted so it can't provide any insight into how he interpreted the 2nd. Besides, the bill died without even a vote in Virginia's Articles of Confederation era legislature.
So it doesn't tell us what right Madison thought the then non-existent 2nd protected, or whether he thought it bound the state.
The Second Amendment was intended, at a minimum to prevent the federal government from violating a preexisting right to keep and bear arms. So when trying to determine what that right was understood to encompass, I do think there's some utility in considering what statesman of the time did or didn't think violated that right, as reflected in their enactments—particularly since every state constitution contained language similarly protecting such a right.
Not quite.
"Before the federal Bill of Rights was adopted, explicit right-to-bear-arms guarantees appeared in the declarations of rights of Pennsylvania, North Carolina, Vermont, and Massachusetts. The Virginia Declaration of Rights of 1776 heralded the virtues of "a well regulated Militia, composed of the body of the People, trained to Arms," and three other states adopted similar provisions. The first constitutions of four states included no bills of rights, and two states adopted no written constitutions until the nineteenth century."
The 2A was designed to prevent another Lexington and Concord very similar to the 3A which dealt with another grievance against the British.
Well I agree practice in the immediate years post ratification can tell us what the original public meaning was conceived to be.
But Shawn is incorrect so you should read it as:
"So his
subsequent[years prior], state-level actions to try and limit possession of guns to..."I also think the second amendment was intended as much to prevent the states from restricting the possession of guns. Congress was charged with arming and organizing the militia, if the states disarmed the unorganized militia it would leave it virtually useless when Congress needed it.
Shays Rebellion provides some pre-2nd context on the need for a well armed militia that Congress wouldn't have to break the bank to arm and equip:
"In 1787, Shays' rebels marched on the federal Springfield Armory in an unsuccessful attempt to seize its weaponry and overthrow the government. The confederal government found itself unable to finance troops to put down the rebellion, and it was consequently put down by the Massachusetts State militia and a privately funded local militia."
That is an old chestnut of a question, how to choose or skew historical analysis in support of the preferred result. It especially gets tricky if any attempt at consistency is made.
So we're back to any punishments that prevailed at the time of the BoR not being "cruel and unusual" regardless of what we think now.
The unenumerated right of a white man to beat a Negro (sic) for being uppity takes precedence over the right of an African-American man not to be hit by some cracker.
Gottit.
Sheesh, what a stupid take on it. I mean that, militantly stupid.
You may notice that the 14th amendment has since been ratified, and amendments change constitutions. So, even if there had been an unenumerated 9th amendment right to beat a black man, (I suspect this varied between states.) it has since been formally extinguished.
"I don't accept X" is not an argument against X.
There are conflicting rights here, and 14A - which deals after all with rights v. government - does not address that conflict.
Many people have a problem with reductio ad absurdum arguments - you're in good company.
"There are conflicting rights here, and 14A - which deals after all with rights v. government - does not address that conflict."
Doubling down on it, I see.
Setting aside the spotty distribution of such practices, again, amendments change things, and if ever there was a case for such an unenumerated right, ratification of the 14th amendment utterly extinguished it.
amendments change things, and if ever there was a case for such an unenumerated right, ratification of the 14th amendment utterly extinguished it.
You could argue that the equal protection clause results in that extinction but it doesn't. It provides equal protection of the law - which includes unenumerated rights. And we see to the present day that equal protection claims are limited - cf QI.
Its an absurdum argument for sure.
Yeah -I used to think that people's resistance to reductio arguments was cognitive limitations. I was being unfair. It's partly due to emotional overriding of cognition.
Sometimes it's due to not finding something absurd.
Interracial marriages were illegal, pre-enactment and post-enactment. Gee that was easy.
Interracial marriages were illegal, pre-enactment and post-enactment. Gee that was easy.
Ah but that's different because reasons. Do we really expect any originalists to be honest enough to make their constructive bigotry apparent? Nope.
During Obergefell oral arguments...
Q: when did banning SSM become unconstitutional?
A: presumably 1868, when the 14A was ratified
It just took 100 years to be recognized
That would be the argument that failed to get a single "originalist" vote, yes?
In this day and age where we can’t define “men” and “women” the idea that a third party could authoritatively determine the race of two individuals seems bizarre.
On my census form I can pick any race I want. Without unambiguous racial definitions banning interracial marriage is a fools errand.
Interracial marriages were never at any time illegal in all states, and have always been legal in some. And after the 14th amendment was ratified, such state laws were either repealed as contrary to it, or in some states overturned by the courts. Then, of course, the Supreme court perpetrated Pace v Alabama, as part of its drive to undo the 14th amendment, and some of those states, but not all, reenacted such laws.
So, it's more a matter of "Interracial marriages were illegal in some states pre-14th amendment and post Pace, but not between."
"Or in some states overturned by the courts" - and can hence be unoverturned.
Remind me - was Loving v Virginia decided before or after the passage of 14A?
After, as part of a later Court's excessively leisurely and partial program of undoing their institution's malfeasance against the 14th amendment.
Point is, the illegality of interracial marriage was never universal in the US, and such laws were abolished for a short while before the Court's perfidy.
I really don't get what you think you're proving here, would you care to explain it?
I really don't get what you think you're proving here, would you care to explain it?
Laws against interracial marriage were still on the books at the time of Loving - and those that had been passed somewhat after 14A had not been struck down. Hence there is no reasonable argument that entering into interracial marriage was a universal right either pre- or post-ratification.
So the originalist argument necessarily and as a result leads to the conclusion that there is no right to enter into interracial marriage - which is inherently the position of a constructive bigot.
Forget the specific reasons for the Loving decision - do you think that Americans have the right to marry interracially? Or is it a matter for the states?
"originalist argument necessarily and as a result leads to the conclusion that there is no right to enter into interracial marriage"
No it doesn't. The originalist argument is that the Reconstruction Amendments swept away all distinctions based on race and gave full rights to all races.
Ah, I see what you're getting at. No, you would not, absent the 14th amendment, be able to make a good unenumerated right argument for interracial marriage.
"So the originalist argument necessarily and as a result leads to the conclusion that there is no right to enter into interracial marriage"
Again, no, because amendments change constitutions, and the Constitution was relevantly amended in 1868. Prior to that date, you'd have been right. After it, wrong. Are you perhaps under the impression that originalists are committed to ignoring constitutional amendments?
"Forget the specific reasons for the Loving decision - do you think that Americans have the right to marry interracially? Or is it a matter for the states?"
I think we absolutely have such a right, one I'm glad to have personally exercised. Morally, we always had such a right. Legally, we have it as a consequence of the 14th amendment.
The 14th Amendment did not permit interracial marriages any more than it permitted gay marriages. Pretty much all the framers of the 14A would agree on both points.
"The 14th Amendment did not permit interracial marriages ... Pretty much all the framers of the 14A would agree on both points."
Prove it. The framers intended to have blacks and whites be treated equally at law.
Equally . . . Or three-fifths, you bigoted, superstitious asswipe?
Glorified paralegals from Lower Hicksville, Ohio are among my favorite Republican culture war casualties.
Yeah, and the framers of the ERA denied that it would lead to unisex bathrooms. So?
The fact remains that laws against interracial marriage were falling left and right after the 14th amendment was ratified, before Pace. That was no accident.
Thaddeus Stevens? John Bingham? I don't have specifics to say what they thought on the question, but it doesn't sound like them.
"Interracial marriages were illegal"
Wrong as usual.
"In 1776, seven of the Thirteen Colonies enforced laws against interracial marriage."
"An exception was Pennsylvania, which repealed its anti-miscegenation law in 1780, together with some of the other restrictions placed on free Black people, when it enacted a bill for the gradual abolition of slavery in the state." Anti-miscegenation laws in the United States, wikipedia
Right. Like I said, it was never illegal in all states, and was legal basically everywhere in the US for some time between ratification of the 14th amendment, and Pace, because it was widely understood the 14th amendment made such laws unconstitutional.
About the only people who didn't understand that were the members of the Supreme court.
"About the only people who didn't understand that were the members of the Supreme court."
And "Lost Cause" fanatics.
Politico has a great article written by a historian on the failure of JDs to understand the historic context of the 2nd Amendment because--shocker--they're experts in the law and not history.
See here: Politico
I'm shocked, shocked to find that the SC misrepresented history to reach its decision in Bruen.
I'm shocked, shocked to find that a left wing Harvard prof doesn't like Bruen.
Did your children become part of bright flight and escape backwater Ohio, or are they just another generation continuing the family tradition of being hicks?
Surely there's a great article or two out there showcasing historians' risible knowledge and understanding of the context of legal and constitutional interpretation.
Michael W. Towns — Your conjecture might prove difficult to support. Academic historians, in contrast to lawyers and judges, are pretty scrupulous about the boundaries of their expertise. That is a tendency which arises naturally in a professional field based on a canonical style of reasoning few others ever practice, or even suspect to exist.
There are reasoning challenges which apply uniquely to thinking about the past. Lawyers think their style of reasoning can be applied to everything. Historians generally understand that whatever special skills they have developed only apply to thinking about the past.
Many of the best historians take it a step farther. They insist that any attempt to practice history as a means to clarify present controversies inevitably corrupts historical reasoning. Historians who think like that—and who value each others' professional respect—thus tend to shun temptations to opine outside the historical profession.
Of course, historical laymen have no notion of any of that, and suppose historians just approach every subject under the sun the same way, with an eye to winning whatever argument is currently in question. That is what a lawyer unversed in history does, after all, and he calls it originalism.
Oh yeah, great.
"They also commonly regulated gunpowder, as well, limiting the amount of ammunition an individual could keep and store at one time. Why? Because it was dangerous. Whole towns could catch fire and burn to the ground. The logic of originalism would suggest that states therefore have a right to regulate magazine sizes."
The last sentence is stupid. It doesn't follow logically. A magazine doesn't pose a risk of fire. A magazine sitting without bullets poses no risk at all.
The dude isn't an historian of colonial or 19th century America either. He just cherry picks random tidbits, like he accuses the court of doing..
Perhaps he's confused about what sort of magazine is being regulated?
That's a hilarious self own.
The magazine for a ship or a fort is a whole room or series of rooms.
I suppose they could limit a personal magazine to just a 10 or 20 cubic feet, for safety reasons.
That would also be an acceptable size limitation for a gun magazine.
Kazinski, the reasoning proposed is that a bygone law to regulate powder storage to promote public safety can be viewed as analogous to a modern law to regulate gun designs to promote public safety. In both cases the end is public safety; in both cases the means proposed is government regulation of arms.
If someone wants to object that history does not properly work that way, I get that. But it is Justice Thomas who newly insists that is the only proper method to apply history to modern context. You say a critique of that is a, "hilarious self own?"
Of course, clueless as Thomas is about the past, he did not anticipate where forthright application of his novel principle might take him. The past encompasses everything that happened. Present cases are diverse. Interactions are unpredictable. So for safety's sake, Thomas added arbitrary rules to qualify past evidence—a precaution to make sure things do not get out of hand.
Thus, Thomas insists that judges get to suit preferences for particular case outcomes, picking particular historical evidence to flatter prior prejudices about what the Constitution means. Never mind that Thomas paradoxically purports to disclose a method to determine objectively what the Constitution means.
Thomas does it all with an eye to a twofold objective: acceptance of historical evidence to vindicate particular Constitutional interpretations; rejection as anomalous outliers all historical examples to the contrary. To make the method work, the preferred Constitutional outcome comes first, to provide the framework for choosing the right evidence to support it.
So properly understood, the Second and Fourteenth Amendments require the governments to let people organize their own private armies that are sufficiently well-armed to be able to resist foreign military invaders, tyrannical domestic governments, and lawless groups of private citizens?
Fine with me, but I'm not sure you're going to be very happy with the results....
If we are that unhappy with the result, we know how to invoke Article V.
No, the Framers feared anarchy just as much as tyranny. The organized state militias perpetuated law and order while providing a check on tyranny from the federal government because the states appointed officers. What you are proposing is what Scalia meant with “unorganized militia” which are organizations like the KKK and Black Panthers and Al Qaida.
That’s why it was necessary for a guy with a 200 IQ to tackle the 2A—its plain meaning is pretty obvious. Of course even with his 200 IQ his interpretation fails logic because why did an amendment drafted as an individual right need to be incorporated??
Because pre-14A all the amendments 1-9 were seen as only limits on the federal government.
Shawn, the "historian" makes the case for a robust 2nd amendment for us:
"The right to own a gun for individual self-protection was a different — a matter of common law that, as Scribble Scrabble noted, could be expanded, modified or taken away by legislation."
So he concedes there was a prior common law right to keep and bear arms for self defense, but the ability to infringe that common law right by legislation ended when the second amendment was enacted. But even that misstates it, it was a common law right, before the English Declaration of Right affirmed it, that was an act of Parliament in 1689.
You need to quote better historians, and one with the grasp of the fact that when common law is adopted into black letter law by a constitution, it no longer retains the same malleability.
Omg, no…just no. The historian is saying the 2A concerned the several state militias and was drafted to prevent another Lexington and Concord type situation which involved the colonial militia’s central store of arms.
Kazinski, what was created in 1689 was a power for Parliament to disarm by law any group it chose to target, with an exception for the time being among Presbyterians who had property, or otherwise held status as English freemen, but with the majority of the English population excluded completely.
If you cite that as part of deeply held American history and tradition, then the result you get is unlimited gun control power for Congress and the Executive, acting jointly, in complete disregard of the Constitution.
Better pick a different example, and stop citing that one.
I believe that's what's known as a "true threat".
Or the repetition that he complains loudly about in Dobbs dissent.
An easily evaded threat that doubtlessly to will cause you eagerly present yourself to be victimized.
Thomas explains that for originalists, "not all history is created equal."
Yes, we know. Originalists are infamous for cherry-picking from history, blatantly ignoring stuff that doesn't support their positions, and over-stating the support their bits of data had at the time.
This is a vice and flaw in "originalist" thinking, not the virtue you think it is.