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"Anti-BDS" Statute Imposing No-Boycott-Israel Term in Arkansas Government Contracts Is Constitutional
So holds the Eighth Circuit, sitting en banc.
From today's Eighth Circuit en banc opinion in Arkansas Times LP v. Waldrip, written by Judge Jonathan Kobes (I think it's basically correct, for reasons given by Profs. Michael Dorf and Andrew Koppelman and me in our amicus brief in the case, and see Prof. Dorf's follow-up post):
Arkansas Act 710 prohibits state entities from contracting with private companies unless the contract includes a certification that the company "is not currently engaged in, and agrees for the duration of the contract not to engage in, a boycott of Israel." The statute defines "boycott of Israel" as "engaging in refusals to deal, terminating business activities, or other actions that are intended to limit commercial relations with Israel, or persons or entities doing business in Israel or in Israeli-controlled territories, in a discriminatory manner." The Act exempts contracts if a company provides goods or services for at least 20% less than the lowest certifying business, or if the contract has a total potential value of less than $1,000.
The court held that boycotts, in the sense of refusals to engage in commercial dealings, generally aren't protected by the First Amendment, and therefore imposing a no-boycott requirement as a contractual provision isn't unconstitutional, either:
The government imposes an unconstitutional condition when it requires someone to give up a constitutional right in exchange for a government benefit. This includes making government benefits contingent on endorsing a particular message or agreeing not to engage in protected speech.
The basic dispute in this case is whether "boycotting Israel" only covers unexpressive commercial conduct, or whether it also prohibits protected expressive conduct. Arkansas Times points us to N.A.A.C.P. v. Claiborne Hardware Co. (1982), which held that expressive conduct accompanying a boycott is protected by the First Amendment. The State, on the other hand, argues that Rumsfeld v. Forum for Academic & Institutional Rights, Inc. (FAIR) (2006) controls. There, the Supreme Court held that First Amendment protection does not extend to non-expressive conduct intended to convey a political message.
Claiborne involved a boycott of white business owners organized by the N.A.A.C.P. The participants refused to purchase anything from white-owned businesses and encouraged support for the boycott with speeches, marches, and picketing. But some participants took it further, committing acts of violence against those who opposed the boycott. White business owners sued to recover physical and economic losses caused by the boycott and enjoin future boycotts. So the question before the Court was whether the activities in support of the boycott, both peaceful and violent, were protected.
The Court first noted that the boycott "took many forms," including speeches, picketing, marches, and pamphleteering. It then held that the boycott "clearly involved constitutionally protected activity" and that "[e]ach of these elements of the boycott is a form of speech or conduct that is ordinarily entitled to protection under the First and Fourteenth Amendments." The Court held that the violence and threats that accompanied the boycott were "beyond the pale of constitutional protection." So Claiborne instructs us to examine the elements of a boycott to determine which activities are constitutionally protected.
FAIR, on the other hand, dealt with a different issue—whether the First Amendment protects non-expressive conduct. In FAIR, several law schools banned military recruiters on campus in protest of the military's "don't ask, don't tell" policy. Congress then passed the Solomon Amendment, which conditioned some federal funding on allowing military recruiters on campus. The law schools sued, arguing that this limited their speech by prohibiting expressive conduct—i.e., banning military recruitment on campus. The Court disagreed, holding that the law schools' refusal to allow military recruiters did not implicate the First Amendment because such a refusal was "not inherently expressive." The Court made clear that the question wasn't whether someone intended to express an idea, but whether a neutral observer would understand that they're expressing an idea. In that case, an observer would have no way of knowing the law school was expressing disapproval of the military without accompanying explanatory speech. An observer could assume that the law school's interview rooms were full, or that the recruiters preferred to interview off-campus. But the Court made clear that only the schools' non-expressive conduct was unprotected. The law schools were still free to express their disapproval of "don't ask, don't tell" in other ways, such as posting signs and organizing student protests.
Arkansas Times argues that Act 710 runs afoul of Claiborne, which it suggests held that boycotts are protected under the First Amendment. But the Court stopped short of declaring that a "boycott" itself—that is, the refusal to purchase from a business¾is protected by the First Amendment. Instead, it acknowledged that "States have broad power to regulate economic activity," but held that this power does not allow for a prohibition on "peaceful political activity such as that found in the boycott in this case." Contrary to Arkansas Times's argument, Claiborne only discussed protecting expressive activities accompanying a boycott, rather than the purchasing decisions at the heart of a boycott….
So this case turns on what Act 710 bans: protected boycott-related activity, or non-expressive commercial decisions? … Act 710 prohibits public entities from contracting with companies unless they certify that they won't boycott Israel. It defines "boycott of Israel" as (1) "engaging in refusals to deal"; (2) "terminating business activities"; or (3) taking "other actions that are intended to limit commercial relations with Israel, or persons or entities doing business in Israel or in Israeli-controlled territories," "in a discriminatory manner."
The third category is in dispute. Arkansas Times argues that the catch-all "other actions" language includes constitutionally protected activity that is intended to limit commercial relations with Israel. This interpretation implicates protected speech, such as picketing outside a business that has commercial relations with Israel. The State, on the other hand, argues that the statute only prohibits non-expressive commercial decisions, which are not protected under the First Amendment.
Under Arkansas's canons of statutory interpretation [constitutional avoidance, following legislative intent, and ejusdem generis], we think the Arkansas Supreme Court would read Act 710 as prohibiting purely commercial, non-expressive conduct. It does not ban Arkansas Times from publicly criticizing Israel, or even protesting the statute itself. It only prohibits economic decisions that discriminate against Israel. Because those commercial decisions are invisible to observers unless explained, they are not inherently expressive and do not implicate the First Amendment….
And the court rejected the argument that the mere requirement that contractors certify compliance with the law is unconstitutional "compelled speech":
[T]he certification requirement here is markedly different from other compelled speech cases. Although it requires contractors to agree to a contract provision they would otherwise not include, it does not require them to publicly endorse or disseminate a message. Instead, the certification targets the noncommunicative aspect of the contractors' conduct—unexpressive commercial choices. The "speech" aspect— signing the certification—is incidental to the regulation of conduct. See FAIR ("There is nothing in this case approaching a Government-mandated pledge or motto that the school must endorse. The compelled speech to which the law schools point is plainly incidental to the Solomon Amendment's regulation of conduct.").
We are not aware of any cases where a court has held that a certification requirement concerning unprotected, nondiscriminatory conduct is unconstitutionally compelled speech. A factual disclosure of this kind, aimed at verifying compliance with unexpressive conduct-based regulations, is not the kind of compelled speech prohibited by the First Amendment.
Judge Jane Kelly filed a solo dissent; she would have interpreted the "other actions" provision to include constitutionally protected speech, and concluded that this makes the statute unconstitutional. (She didn't opine on whether the statute was constitutional under the majority's narrower interpretation.) For more on the statutory construction dispute, see here.
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So we have federal courts in Texas and Georgia ruling that the anti-BDS laws are unconstitutional and now the Eighth Circuit ( Minnesota, Iowa, North Dakota, South Dakota, Nebraska, Missouri, and Arkansas), has ruled in the other direction.
Good.
As they say, "See you in court."
https://thehill.com/homenews/state-watch/591949-federal-judge-blocks-enforcement-of-texass-anti-bds-law/
https://thehill.com/regulation/court-battles/555124-federal-judge-says-georgias-anti-bds-law-violates-first-amendment/
The certificate: https://www.dfa.arkansas.gov/images/uploads/procurementOffice/RFPBoycottIsraelCertForm.pdf
". . . a public entity shall not enter into a contract valued at $1,000 or greater with a company unless the contract includes a written certification that the person or company is not currently engaged in and agrees for the duration of the contract not to engage in, a boycott of Israel. . . ."
IANAL, so I wonder if the "that the PERSON" is constitutional. Seems like this case only focused on the "company" portion.
This sentence reads very oddly as is. I think it should be "that this makes the statute unconstitutional"
I had the same thought. It wouldn't make sense for a dissent in this case to say that.
Whoops, sorry, corrected.
I disagree with the analysis, although I agree with the result.
I donmt think the issue of first amendment status depends on whether a neutral observer would understand the action as intending to express an idea. In particular, I think a neutral observer would generally understand discriminatory acts as intending to express ideas. I think everyone understood that not only was the proprietor of Masterpiece Cakeshop intending to communicate the idea that homosexuality is sinful, but the proprietor of a restaurant or a hardware store would be intending to communicate the same idea. Likelwise, refusing to do business with black people communicates the idea that segregation is best for society and/or that whites have the power and are supreme. The same is true of an assassination, or a lynching, or a mob hit, which are very obviously not just intended to commumicate messages, but also understood thst way.
So if the issue depends on whether the actor would be understood as communicating an idea, I think discrimination laws and much else would have to be struck down under the First Amendment.
I think, instead, that the answer is that the idea that “speech” covers absolutely anything that is understood as communicating a message is simply wrong. Rather, “speech” covers only a limited set of expressive conduct. It just doesn’t cover everything. It covers, at most, only conduct that is clearly analogous to traditional speech. That standard supports many of the lines that have traditionally been drawn. Dancing is covered, nude paintings are covered, but nudity itself isn’t.
And while boycotts and discrimination, like assassinations and lynchings, unquestionably communicate ideas and are clearly understood that way, they have neither traditionally been considered speech, nor are they analogous to things that have traditionally been considered speech.
That’s why they aren’t protected by the First Amendment.
Do I understand you correctly that, under your interpretation of the First Amendment, states could, therefore, make organized consumer boycotts of, say, Disney World, Chik-Fil-A (or whatever company is objectionable to whatever group for whatever reason) illegal?
I don’t think they would be protected by the First Amendment. And there would be issues with specific companies. But whole industries would be another matter. And whole countries fit closely to categories like race and national origin.
Every state government already prohibits organized consumer boycotts of the auto insurance industry. When challengers to the Obamacare health insurance mandate claimed the federal government lacked the power to mandate health insurance, they never suggested a state couldn’t constitutionally impose the same mandate. Nor did they suggest that refusing to buy insurance was protected First Amendment expression.
Similarly, many city governments contract with specific private utility and waste disposal companies and then require property owners to purchase the relevant services from only the one company. That effectively means you can’t boycott the waste disposal company.
Thanks for the interesting and thoughtful replies.
Nelson grabbed Bart's fist, and started bopping it into Bart's face.
"Stop hitting yourself! Stop hitting yourself!"
That an action contains communication does not wrench the activity into a protected one. The action is added emphasis to change behavior, but is not pure speech, and deliberately goes beyond it.
BDS boycotts deliberately and openly are about additional coercion via economic damage. Of course there is communication in this. But that isn't enough. To effect change, or hasten it, additional actions beyond words and frowny face emoticons are needed.
The decision is wrong insofar as it imagines the action communicates nothing sans a protected statement to give it context.
Moreover, if someone kicks an African American off their lunch counter, but loudly announces why, that's communication of a (racist) message, but does not clear the action because of it.
If money is speech, so is economic damage via consumption choices.
I think BDS is bad juju, but this has always seemed like an unconstitutional condition to me.
Money is not speech, but where money is spent to facilitate speech, restrictions on spending the money burdens speech.
Contributions aren't money spent to facilitate speech, and yet they are protected.
Money is treated as speech. An exception here would be quite a needle to thread.
"Contributions aren't money spent to facilitate speech,"
A political campaign isn't speech?
The campaign spends money on speech. The contributors are only doing so indirectly.
Because contributions are also protected, MatthewSlyfield has not accurately described the state of the law.
Perhaps you could cite laws that you believe he is not accurately describing? Citizens United, and McConnell, for example, held that contributions for electioneering communications are protected, whether direct or indirect.
After all, if, as you say, money is speech, then the economic damage from the choice to not hire black people would also be speech, and you guys have fought tooth and nail to make sure that that's not the case.
Feel free to check out Episode 5 of the free speech rules video series, "Is money speech?"
Eugene agrees with Matthew (I do too).
If one wants to clarify political donation laws to sepatate out money for speech (ads, appearances) from money for buying hot dogs at a rally or an executive limo, go ahead.
Seems like the notion that economic boycott is action runs afoul of the notion that the government can't make you eat broccoli. Not eating broccoli is inaction. Not doing business with some party is inaction. Expressive inaction.
IIRC the argument was that the commerce clause doesn't give Congress the power to make you eat broccoli, which is not relevant here.
I'll defer until the VC's resident Anti-Semite-Klinger Reverend Jerry Sandusky-Kirtland opines.
All wokes like the Rev and the Rhoid are anti-Semites.
Here on VC we are often reminded that governments also have a right to speak. Suppose a government decided to boycott certain citizens from receiving benefits for whatever reason. Could they claim that is expressive conduct?
Does this mean a state has the right to sanction Israel, because sanctions are non-expressive?
Breaking a boycott into speech and non-speech components seems akin to banning the selling of flags.
legalizeshrooms: What do you think of people who, say, want to express their opposition to Catholicism by boycotting Catholics (including as employees)? I think the court's answer (and Prof. Dorf's, Prof. Koppelman's, and mine) is that those people have a First Amendment right to condemn Catholicism, and to argue for repeal of religious discrimination bans -- but they don't have a First Amendment right to refuse to do business with Catholics. That's "breaking a boycott into speech and on-speech components," and I think is correct. Or am I missing something?
We are taking about countries here, not people. If someone wanted to refuse to engage in commerce with the Vatican, what's wrong with that?
The elected branches have the option of saying it is wrong by outlawing it, even if you disagree (assuming we are only debating speech not the religion clauses).
I would have thought so. The government has the honor of defining how much interaction with other countries is good for the nation. Encourage friends, discourage evil empires.
I would have thought that included accepting refugees or not, but apparently, according to some, government doesn't have that aspect of it at all.
Who says the government doesn't have a role in whether to accept refugees?
If boycotts are speech, then the elected branches do not have the option of saying it is wrong by outlawing it.
Of course. But this court said it wasn't speech and I agree with Eugene they got it right.
Yes, but saying you would boycott if you got the chance IS speech, as opposed to actually boycotting. I think that's why these measures should be unconstitutional. This is well-trod ground here.
The court addressed that argument, persuasively in my view, as quoted by Eugene above
That doesn't really address my argument, I don't think. But I guess as long as a business owner who verbally supports the boycott but hasn't engaged in boycotting conduct can still sign the certification, then there is no 1A issue. Perhaps the issue is how the conduct labeled as "Boycotting" is defined in the statute.
legalizeshrooms is arguing for a First Amendment right to refuse to do business with Mexicans. Duly noted.
Wo, wo, wo, you are missing the distinction between nation and nationality. Boycotting Mexican goods, or Russian or Nigerian, is not the same as refusing to do business with Mexican people or Russian people or Nigerian people.
Refusing to do business with an Israeli, as an Israeli, should obviously be illegal.
Refusing to do business with an Israeli or Israel are both boycotts in my opinion. Neither is speech.
Not doing business is inaction. Like not eating broccoli.
So is not serving black people at a lunch counter.
When liquor stores poured out their Russian vodka, that was not speech?
That was not speech.
And I agree, it should be illegal to refuse to do business with Catholics, but it should be legal to refuse to do business with the Catholic Church.
At one time, the City of San Francisco passed an ordinance requiring any company doing business with the city to have a policy of not discriminating against gays. The Commonwealth of Virginia responded with a policy forbidding the state to do business with any company that had an anti-discrimination policy that protected gays. As I recall, things sat more or less in limbo until the courts resolved the matter by holding that official policies that discriminated against gays were unconstitutional.
What does discrimination against gay people have to do with activism and criticism of government policies? Gay is not a government or political party.
Have anyone tried to argue it violates the Dormant Commerce clause by regulating commercial conduct in other states and abroad? (Or is the law somehow restricted to boycotts of Israel that take place in Arkansas?)
If the Biden adminstration thinks the Dormant Commerce clause prevents California from ensuring minimal humane standards of meat production, I don't see how the anti-BDS statues can pass muster.
It can be argued, I think, that there is a dormant foreign relations power.
https://law.justia.com/constitution/us/article-2/24-state-laws-affecting-foreign-relations.html
But I am not even talking about intrusion on foreign relations. What if a company's office in New Jersey boycotts Israel. What concern of Arkansas is that?
The particular law in question is about state contracts. But what bothers me about the particular argument here (essentially, boycotts are not speech) is that I see nothing limiting the principle to state contracts or even to corporations and businesses.
Could a state ban individuals from boycotting Israeli goods? How about Chinese goods?
Does it make a difference if it's one person, or if three people meet in a living room and "conspire" to not buy Chinese stuff at Walmart?
I realize a ban on individual boycotts would be difficult to enforce. But there are people who tell salesmen stuff like "I don't want buy this VW if it's made in Mexico". Could a state make that an arrestable offense?
ducksalad: There wouldn't be a First Amendment problem with that; for an analogous (though not perfectly analogous) case, see Int'l Longshoremen's Ass'n v. Allied Int'l, Inc. (1982), plus also Rumsfeld v. FAIR (2006).
What if a company’s decision to boycott was based on the religious beliefs of the owners?
I'm pretty sure that the business owner (who wants to discriminate) would still lose. As I understand our current laws, saying "My religion prevents me from dealing with Israeli companies / Israelis" isn't any more valid (as a defense to a charge of discrimination) than "My religion prevents me from dealing with gays / blacks / (fill-in-the-blank)."
Of course, if it were up to me, I'd scrap all "anti-discrimination" laws aimed at private businesses / employers / landlords / etc.
As for laws such as the one at issue here -- the government refusing to do business with those who discriminate -- I don't have a problem with them. Encouraging non-discrimination (using financial incentives) seems to me more acceptable than coercing it.
ACLU says they’re going to petition SCOTUS for cert which seems pretty dangerous for the reasons set forth in Eugene, Koppelman and Dorf’s amicus brief. If you’re the ACLU, do you really want to invite this SCOTUS to decide that there’s a First Amendment right to deny goods and services to a statutorily protected class? Because that’s a big undergirding of civil rights law for public accommodations.
It would be a dangerous gamble, but that's because the court has a 6-3 conservative majority (and conservatives will not pass up the opportunity to side with a militarist apartheid ethnostate), not because political boycotts are indistinguishable from civil rights laws. For one, political boycotts, particularly against foreign nations, have a long tradition as political advocacy going back to the founding era. That's what the Boston Tea Party was all about. Boycotts of British goods were widespread, and probably were a precondition to independence. The right to object to a foreign country's policies by forgoing purchase of its goods is "deeply rooted in history and tradition" in a way that violating civil rights laws is not.
"militarist apartheid ethnostate"
They won't side with the Arabs from the Jew free Area C or Gaza, I don't think.
In other words:
Maybe try engaging with the argument I actually made instead of just making up bullshit.
While I appreciate your optimism, treating discrete and insular minorities like crap is pretty deeply rooted in history and tradition. Much more so than public accommodation laws.
No doubt, but I don’t think that when the founding generation refused to do business with black people, or women, etc., they conceived of that as a form of political action in the way they did when they boycotted British goods. When a boycott is part of concerted political activity, that’s what (should) give it First Amendment protection.
Rumsfeld v. Fair was 9-0.
Er, actually 8-0. But the point stands.
Shouldn't the culture war's losers -- the conservative racists, the superstition-addled gay-bashers, the right-wing misogynists, the Republican immigrant-haters, the Federalist Society Islamophobes, the chanting right-wing anti-Semites, and obsolete bigots in general -- be the ones most concerned about this prospect?
The people on the right side of history, the prevailing side at the modern American marketplace of ideas, and the winning side of the culture war seemingly should have less to worry about in this context.
I'm confused (as usual) I thought President Trump's "Boycotting" of Immigration from certain Moose-Lum (HT B. Sanders) Countries was Race-ism on a par with some of the Biggest Race Criminals of the 20th Century, Hitler, Mao, Al Sharpton....
Turns out he was "Woke" just not boycotting the right (Jewish) Peoples
Frank
All animals are equal, and must be protected from discrimination . . . but some are less equal than others. So says ACLU.
Yes, kind of like how when the KKK murdered black people they got criticized and then why marched through the streets chanting hate slogans they...also got criticized. It's almost like bad ideologies (in this case anti-Zionism) get criticized no matter what form they take.
Their position is frivolous whether they pursue it violently or nonviolently, so they're not immune to criticism. Some day they may collectively decide they prefer peace over trying to destroy the State of Israel.
If the Ku Klux Klan pursues its aims violently, it deserves to be criticized. Same for nonviolently. Palestinians are in the same boat, they can decide they have a hobby other than murder and hatred any time they like.
Hi, Rhoid. All wokes are Jew haters.
No and no. Any more than a company that donates to the KKK violates anti-discrmination laws.
Some day, there may be a proper Palestinian state. On that day, millions around the world will cheer...a new kleptocracy and dictatorship?
This is no more self-determination than a bank hostage situation.
I am prepared to be wrong in this. History does not suggest so.
"moderating elements"?
Who is that?
Al Fatah, formed before the 6th Day War to "liberate" 1948 Israel? Led by Arafat's henchman who raised all the funds used in terror, against both Israelis and Americans? [on his what 10th year of a 4 year term?]
There are no "moderating elements", just Fascists [Abbas] and Nazis [Hamas].
"But it'll be their own people lording over them with an iron boot. Their own bureaucrats getting in the way of productivity, leading to permanent 3rd world status. It'll be their...WHY ARE THEY LINING UP BY THE MILLIONS TO GET INTO WESTERN COUNTRIES???"
I noticed that too. Why is that you think?
The Abbas government governs them in Area C of Judea and Samaria and Hamas in Gaza.
Correct. A dictator taking over is not "the people" governing themselves in any way, shape, or form.
Such international standards are based on practical issues of dealing with nations as they are. Morally, it's all garbage.
During the truckers' protests in Canada earlier this year, the government, through some sort of "emergency powers," seized bank accounts of people who donated to the protesters.
Here in the U.S., various "alt-right" organizations have been denied banking services.
I think we're close to a situation where someone who donates to a government-disfavored group will be subject to government retribution.
(I don't think that's a good thing.)
They do, huh? Well then Israeli soldiers being present in those areas would be be an act of war then, no?
Never ask:
- A woman her age
- A man his salary
- A Zionist how and why Hamas came to power. https://tribune.com.pk/story/2302309/how-and-why-israel-helped-create-hamas
LOL An opinion column by some random Pakistani.
Its not true, only Jew haters believe it.
There are no Israeli troops in Gaza and none regularly in Area A [my error,is A not C that is under exclusive arab control]. They have entered into Area A from time to time to seek terrorists after Arab acts of terror ["Typically, such raids are coordinated with the Palestinian security forces." wikipedia]
One feature of all woke attitudes that explains everything? They hate America. Israel is a friend of America, so they hate the Jews. This is true even if the Jews of NYC are themselves woke. American hate trumps all interests of the wokes. For example, Arabs were and are the biggest slavers, even today. So, black wokes are giving their babies Arab names. Stick it to America, because they hate America. I expect a whole bunch of black woke babies to have Chinese names soon.
I support cancelling all wokes. Why should we put up with an internal enemy when no one else does?
Why do wokes have Taliban beards? They look stupid. It tells people, I hate America.
If you need a source whose author is not Pakistani, here you go:
http://web.archive.org/web/20090926212507/http:/online.wsj.com/article/SB123275572295011847.html
https://www.washingtonpost.com/news/worldviews/wp/2014/07/30/how-israel-helped-create-hamas/
This is well-documented and based not on conjecture, but the admissions of Israeli officials themselves. I get why you wish it wasn't so, but it is.
"Jew haters"
Yawn. How much longer do you figure that you guys can keep trying to weaponize idpol in service of an imperialist ethnostate before everyone stops taking you seriously? I'd wager its not much longer.
"The Israeli government officially recognized a precursor to Hamas called Mujama Al-Islamiya, registering the group as a charity."
"precursor" "charity"
Its just like Hindenberg appointing Hitler!
The only "ethnostate" is the areas controlled by Arabs. No Jews live in either place.
Arabs are in the Israeli government coalition.
We will keep using Jew hater so long as there are some.
What? before "Ear-Ron"(HT Barry Obama) tries to go Nuke-ular (HT Jimmuh Cartuh) on Israel?? My money's on the (smart) guys with the big noses (Not Race-ist, I'm describing myself)
Frank "Munich Rules!"
Yeah, Hamas operated a charity then, just as they do today. So what? As the articles explain in detail, sourced from Israeli officials, they saw Hamas as religious right counterweight to the secular left PLO. The likelihood of blowback would be obvious to all but the most willfully ignorant.
And 20 Spooks shot in Chicago last weekend, your point?
You mean yourself? If I was a member of the International Jewish Conspiracy (I'm not) you'd be in trouble (you're not)
Same reason you do when I refuse to anesthetize A-rabs (OK, I will in an emergency, after they blow themselves up, trying to blow others up)
Frank "Count backwards from Ithnan"
Al Sharpton one of the 20th Centuries biggest Race Criminals?? Thanks, Queenie, might not want to let your woke BML friends know, unless you enjoy having your head on a spike.
Everything is obvious in retrospect.
Your statement seems like you are suggesting it is ethically wrong for free people to liberate people under the thumb of dictators. As if those dictatees with a boot on their face are in some kind of self-approved state.
Even if some want that, and these nations are high in corruption from top to bottom precisely to get buy in from a good chunk of the population, they have no right to drag everyone else down.
I submit your belief, if the above is true, derives from penumbras of difficulties the west has had frok colonialism. That was wrong, ergo dictators must be right, a valid expression if self-determination.
Yet that very concept is the fraud, disabling opponents to dictators on an ethical level.