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Miranda Warnings . . . in 1748? A Fascinating Amicus Brief
A new filing in Vega v. Tekoh, on remedies for Miranda violations.
On April 20th, the Supreme Court will hear argument in an important case on Miranda rights, Vega v, Tekoh. The basic question in Tekoh is whether there can be a civil remedy for a Miranda violation. In Chavez v. Martinez, back in 2003, a badly-splintered Court held that the law is not violated if a police officer obtains a confession in violation of Miranda that is never actually admitted in Court. It's the admission in court of the unwarned statement that is the problem, the various opinions concluded, not the obtaining of the statement alone. In the words of Justice Kennedy's partial concurrence, without the admission of the statement there is no "completed constitutional violation actionable under 42 U. S. C. § 1983."
Tekoh raises a follow-up question: If an unwarned statement is wrongfully admitted, is that a completed violation actionable under 42 U. S. C. § 1983? And if it's actionable, who is responsible for it?
I would have thought that the first question was definitively resolved by Dickerson v. United States, which concluded that Miranda is "a constitutional decision of this Court [that] may not be in effect overruled by an Act of Congress." If Miranda is a constitutional decision, and the constitutional wrong is the admission of the unwarned statement, then logically doesn't the admission of the unwarned statement have to be a constitutional violation? Violating a constitutional rule is a constitutional violation, after all.
Not so, says Vega, the officer who obtained the statement. Vega says that Dickerson never explicitly stated that Miranda violations are actually constitutional violations. In Vega's view, this means that Miranda is just a constitutionally-inspired prophylactic rule of evidence, not an actual constitutional rule. As a result, he argues, admission of an unwarned statement can be a subject of a motion to suppress, but it cannot lead to liability under § 1983. Echoing the dissenters in Dickerson, Vega presents Miranda as just a made-up rule that is not part of the real Constitution—and certainly not part of the Constitution as originally understood.
This brings me to a really fascinating amicus brief that was filed earlier today: BRIEF OF AMICI CURIAE HISTORIANS OF CRIMINAL PROCEDURE, led by Counsel of Record Professor Wesley Oliver. I have mentioned my admiration for Professor Oliver's historical scholarship before, and his brief is a remarkable read. It should redefine the debate over the history of Miranda rights.
Professor Oliver and his co-authors argue that Miranda v. Arizona was more a return to Framing-era interrogation practices than something entirely novel. Around the time of the Framing, he claims, the common law voluntariness test for the admission of confessions was much more restrictive than it became in the 20th century. In the Framing era, magistrates routinely gave legal warnings to a person about to be interrogated that he had a right to remain silent and that their evidence would be used against them. The warnings were thought necessary, Oliver argues, as a way to meet the very strict voluntariness rule then in place. Only when a person was told of his rights, the thinking went, could a subsequent statement be deemed truly voluntary.
This thinking will ring a bell to modern criminal procedure ears: It's the basic theory of Miranda. What happened, Oliver argues, is that courts loosened the voluntariness test in the late 19th and early 20th centuries. Warnings were then dropped, as they were no longer needed to make sure statements were voluntary. (Almost everything was voluntary under the new voluntariness test; who needs warnings?) But the new looser voluntariness test then led to brutal interrogation practices in the 20th century. And then the Warren Court, entirely unaware of this history, responded to those brutal interrogation practices by devising what it thought was a new idea for how to ensure the voluntariness of confessions: Introduce the requirements of legal warnings.
As Oliver tells it, Miranda inadvertently returned the law to something akin to what it was in the Framing era without actually realizing it:
Miranda-like warnings were part of the historical practice of interrogations. Under the Framing Era voluntariness test, as a practical matter, warnings were often essential to admit a suspect's confession. As the Court often looks to Framing Era practices to understand the original public meaning of the Constitution, this often-overlooked set of practices provides considerable historical support for Miranda warnings as a constitutional protection.
Although the brief doesn't put it this way, the picture drawn hints at a rich irony. The living constitutionalists behind Miranda stumbled upon a rule similar to what was employed in the Framing era, while the originalists who excoriate Miranda are unknowingly advocating a modern judge-made rule very different from that used when the Bill of Rights was ratified.
Full disclosure: I have spoken with Professor Oliver about the case and reviewed a draft of the brief. Also, I have slightly edited this post shortly after publishing it.
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See, THIS is why I love the VC. Articles like this remind me of why I love the law. Oliver's brief is an immediate "must read" for me.
Agreed!
Miranda jurisprudence is solid evidence of total lawyer denial, failure, bias in favor of evil, and idiocy.
This crap decision was followed by a decades long steep increase in crime victimization. When death row inmates were exonerated, 25% had falsely confessed to murder, after this idiotic, pro-criminal, lawyer make work, rent seeking decision. It denies the truth of evidence, instead of holding the police accountable. A better remedy would be to sue the police, but to admit true evidence.
Water boarding, a harmless method of pressured interviewing, should be allowed where major crimes are involved. All admissions should be verified with physical evidence or then be thrown out. This will avoid the surprisingly easy implantation of false memories by the police, even if very adverse to the defendant.
Miranda, more evidence that lawyers are the stupidest and most failed people in the country. They are stupider than Life Skills students learning to eat with a spoon. Those students have more common sense.
So was the moon landing. Astronauts cause crime!
The surge in crime was 100% the fault of the vile toxic lawyer profession. The public got steamed. The lawyer got scared. They saved themselves with mandatory sentencing guidelines. Those dropped all crime 40%, proving the sole mature, effective goal of the criminal law is incapacitation. The drop in crime caused lawyer unemployment. So now? Prison reform with the expected surges in homicide.
David is a lawyer, of course. He brings up the argument that a moon landing preceded the crime surge. But this decision was relevant to reducing incapacitation. The moon landing was not. David never saw the Dirty Harry movies, obviously, where soft on crime cops are stymied in their protection of vicious criminal by a .357 Magnum, the most powerful handgun in the world. Its effectiveness comes from incapacitation. The deceased have a low recidivism rate. David does not understand that. The rent is fogging his mind.
There were a lot of factors in play. Leaded gasoline causes retardation in children, aggression in adults. Dramatic reductions in murders in both USA and Australia follow removal of lead from gasoline.
This is the modern views of catastrophes. Multiple factors go into it. like a dozen for a car crash. If one of them is prevented, no crash. Add the legalization of abortion that targeted black babies most. Add the expansion of gun rights and ownership.
The lawyer believes in a chain of causation, from Medieval times, with a proximate cause at the end of the chain. They then seek to plunder the assets of the party with the money.
The denial of this multifactorial view is a violation of the Fifth Amendment Procedural Due Process Right to a fair hearing of the defendant.
Worse, the tort bar intimidates parties. It induces a cover up of the factors, investigation into system changes that could prevent future catastrophes. The tort litigation bar is actually toxic to prevention. It must be crushed to save this nation. It destroyed manufacturing. It perpetuates catastrophic accidents.
"moon landing"
This guy will fall for anything. Probably a groomer.
Artie. Pedo much? Pedos are all Dems, as are most criminals and lawyers. When is the resignation coming? You need to STFU until then.
David. I am not being sarcastic. You made a post hoc, ergo propter hoc argument, from critical thinking. Compliments. Keep doing that, using critical thinking.
"In Vega's view, this means that Miranda is just a constitutionally-inspired prophylactic rule of evidence, not an actual constitutional rule. As a result, he argues, admission of an unwarned statement can be a subject of a motion to suppress, but it cannot lead to liability under § 1983."
100% agree.
Law enforcement can basically do anything they want - the question arises whether it can be used in court however.
I always wondered. . .
If cops knew a warehouse held a bunch of contraband, e.g. stolen goods, illegal drugs, etc., but didn't have the proper info to get a search warrant, what would happen if they just show up and took the illegal material, say there was $2M worth of drugs.
They couldn't use it as evidence against the suspects but I can't see how a court would authorize returning the material to the suspects either.
In my state the actual seizure of illegal drugs does not require a warrant (but the search does of course). When cops claim to have made a seizure of illicit property with no criminal action against the owner, there are two paths: The owner may seek what's called "replevin" (an action for the return of property), and the state initiates an action against the property itself, called in "in rem" action. The owner may appear to show that it is not illicit; if not, it belongs to the state. With regard to actual illegal drugs, the owner can't succeed in either and would likely incriminate themselves.
In rem actions lead to some hilarious case names, such as (and this is an old, famous federal one) "U.S. v. 11¼ Dozen Packages of Article Labeled in Part Mrs. Moffat's Shoo Fly Powders for Drunkenness."
In practice, small amounts of drugs frequently get destroyed without paperwork and nobody really cares. Very occasionally cops keep them for personal use, sale, or to frame a future "suspect," and whether anyone cares depends on the department's culture.
Very occasionally. Like days ending in 'y.'
Glad to see at least a bit of historical perspective in an originalist-styled argument. Contributions from real academic historians are an unusual plus. That is progress. On the other hand, it is not apparent the historians were given much role in guiding interpretation.
The brief reads mostly as if it were the work of lawyers unfamiliar with historical methods—but in this case lawyers who arrived at their own historical conclusions after historians pointed them toward old-time subject matter. Language in the brief ("would have," stands out) suggests writers who were not familiar with professional standards of historical relevance. So does the loose attempt to build a bridge of explanation backward through time, from the first-half of the 19th century to the founding era. That was at least noted self-consciously, which is better historical mindfulness than usual.
Undiscussed presumption that English legal precedent applied alike in founding-era America is of course a time-honored feature of legal, "originalism." Historians would prefer to see that kind of thing justified in the record. A further notion that any such similarity leaps intact across an era of colonial revolution and constitutional inception seems to require more.
Overall, I am glad to see this brief. I just feel duty bound to criticize flaws which I also criticized in former, "originalist," offerings which made a worse botch of other history. In this piece the flaws are decidedly less, but still suggest a missed opportunity to get the history right.
Something in legal argument seems stubbornly antithetical to historical insight. If originalist ambitions prove durable despite that, maybe there is a dynamite opportunity for a few young legal scholars to add a graduate history degree, and then teach their would-be originalist colleagues what they are talking about.
"Something in legal argument seems stubbornly antithetical to historical insight." Lawyers are trained to win in an adversarial system. This system is an attempt to guarantee clear proof of guilt; not necessarily as a path to truth.
Professor Kerr, I have mentioned to you before that I think the notion historically flawed that improper searches remain harmless if courts exclude evidence. My sense of founding-era history is otherwise—that improper searches were regarded as an evil complete in themselves, to be resisted for their own sake—making the full historical understanding more multi-dimensional than a mere legally-focused explanation restricted to in-court consequences. I suggest that specific legal point could prove historically true without fully explaining anything in the Bill of Rights. However, I would not assert that as history without research done by professional historians, work which I suspect remains undone.
I offer this remark as an afterthought to the comment I made above about confessions. I suggest an, "originalist," historical study in full context of issues raised by confessions might prove similarly multi-dimensional, and thus similarly relevant to complete originalist insight into constitutional issues. The brief you link to, fascinating as it is, might prove a too-narrow historical interpretation of founding era thoughts about legal compulsion, and what constitutional protections against self-incrimination were meant to guard.
does nothing to solve the original-intent debate. Just because something was done during the founding era doesn’t mean it was (or is) constitutionally required. No originalist I know says, “If they did it during the founding, it’s automatically part of the constitution.” Miranda could, then, still be living constitutionalism divorced from what was originally required.
I’m open to the idea that something akin to the Miranda warnings were implicit in, say, the Due Process Clause. That is to say, the Founders may have intended to incorporate such a rule into the Constitution. But it doesn’t necessarily follow that some procedural practice done back then was made a constitutional requirement.
It has always been understood to be a constitutional requirement that confessions be voluntary. Miranda simply created a bright line requirement for a confession to be voluntary. If it was also understood at the founding that a Miranda-type warning was required, then it would be a constitutional requirement.
Yep. And it's quite explicit.
US Constitution 5A
An involuntary confession compels the suspect to be a witness against himself.
This does nothing to solve the original-intent debate. Just because something was done during the founding era doesn’t mean it was (or is) constitutionally required. No originalist I know says, “If they did it during the founding, it’s automatically part of the constitution.” Miranda could, then, still be living constitutionalism divorced from what was originally required.
I’m open to the idea that something akin to the Miranda warnings were implicit in, say, the Due Process Clause. That is to say, the Founders may have intended to incorporate such a rule into the Constitution. But it doesn’t necessarily follow that some procedural practice done back then was made a constitutional requirement.
It provides a context for what may have been so obvious as to avoid mentioning in detail, or at all.
The ultimate goal is to stop the power hungry from growing their power at their whim. That's both sides of the coin: stretching the meaning of the constitution beyond what was envisioned, and pretending this contextual understood background wasn't written in, and therefore modern pols may stomp on it.
We're not really too worried about original "intent" - originalists care about original meaning and non-originalists don't care about original anything.
Anyway, on your actual point, I agree that the brief doesn't really do anything to demonstrate that a warning was such well established practice that it should be taken to be within the then meaning of the words "nor shall be compelled in any criminal case to be a witness against himself."
In particular, the brief reveals that this practice was, in 1791 at the adoption of the 5th Amendment, only 40 years old. Nor does the brief demonstrate that the practice was ubiquitous or unchallenged since its first inception. And further, the brief reveals that the practice was enacted into statute in England - the alleged source of the rule - roughly 100 years after the practice began in the 1750s. Which would be an odd thing to do with an long established, unchallenged, universally applied common law rule. The enactment of a statute is much more likely to be an effort to impose a common rule where one did not previously exist, or where there were different practices in different places or cases.
So while the brief is interesting, it hardly proves what it claims to prove.
Lee Moore, would-be originalists switched to, "original meaning," after, "original intent," disappointed them. They discovered that in some cases original intent was expressed so explicitly that almost anyone could understand it, and, worse, use it to prove the, "originalists," wrong. That emergency they remedied by invention of, "original public meaning." Of course, no one except a professional historian has any hope of figuring that out, even in the rare cases where it isn't hopelessly ambiguous. Would-be originalist lawyers and judges are content with that. It conveniences them. They just make up whatever meaning feels right for how the case should come out, and decide the case that way. Nobody who counts in court knows enough to call them wrong.
See the Charles Dickens novel Our Mutual Friend, published in 1865:
"It’s my duty to inform you that whatever you say, will be used against you." (The Inspector to John Rokesmith, Book the Fourth, Chapter 12.)
Very interesting. The most interesting passage/footnote in my opinion:
19 GEORGE C. EDWARDS, A TREATISE ON THE POWERS AND DUTIES OF JUSTICES OF THE PEACE AND TOWN OFFICERS IN THE STATE OF NEW YORK 209 (Bath: David Rumsey 1830) (“No improper influence, either by threat, promise, or misrepresentation should be employed by the magistrate, or permitted by him . . . ”); RHODOM A. GREENE AND JOHN W. LUMPKIN, THE GEORGIA JUSTICE: BEING A CONVENIENT DIRECTORY FOR JUSTICES OF THE PEACE 100 (Milledgeville: P.L. & B.H. Robinson, 1835) (“no improper influence, either by threat, promise, or misrepresentation should be employed, for however slight the inducement may have been, a confession so obtained cannot be received in evidence.”).
I added the bold (misrepresentation). Today, its established that the police can lie during an interrogation. This passage calls into question whether that would have been permissible in the Framing Era.
According to the treatise that QuantumBoxCat cited below, if there ever was a per se rule against misrepresentation this was no longer the case by 1818:
"Miranda is just a constitutionally-inspired prophylactic rule of evidence" Yes. Do not fall for the trap that Miranda is constitutionally required. It's a good idea that should have been written into the Constitution or adopted as statute/court rule of evidence.
What is constitutionally required is that any confession be genuinely voluntary. US Constitution 5A "nor shall be compelled in any criminal case to be a witness against himself".
Miranda creates a bright line minimum standard that a voluntary confession must be based on an informed decision.
Yup, emphasis on "creates."
No, emphasis on minimum standard for determining that a given confession was voluntary (as required by the constitution).
I can't say offhand whether it has lasted continuously since Colonial times, but we do have a strict voluntariness rule in Massachusetts independent of Miranda warnings. In one case police falsely told a man accused of arson that he wouldn't be charged with murder if he confessed. In reality the since-abolished felony murder rule said a death caused by arson was first degree murder. The confession was held inadmissible. He ended up pleading guilty to manslaughter.
Jurors are to be instructed that each juror must be convinced beyond a reasonable doubt that a statement by the defendant was voluntary before that juror may consider it (https://www.mass.gov/files/documents/2018/06/19/3560%20Evidence--Confessions%20and%20Admissions%20%28Humane%20Practice%29.pdf).
You have the right to wear a funny hat...oops, wrong Miranda.
I've never understood the logic in Chavez. Yes, it's really bad if an coerced confession is used in court - but it's also bad when cops coerce the confession in the first place.
And yes, I am being a bit inflammatory by calling them "coerced" confessions but at the root, that really is the problem - cops using tricks and exploiting ignorance to get sometimes-innocent people to say things they wouldn't otherwise say. Miranda was supposed to stop all that. Or at least put a small check on it.
The historical perspective of the article is fascinating but my hope for the case is that the court will use it to clean up their mistake Chavez.
Many things are bad without violating the fifth amendment.
When asked to explain Miranda to lay people, I approach it backwards, as a pro-cop decision. Everyone agreed that involuntary confessions are inadmissible, but what makes a confession "involuntary"? There are certain obvious cases, like beating a confession out of someone, but once you get beyond them, you're in the weeds. So you should think of Miranda warnings as magic fairy dust that the cops can sprinkle on dodgy but not obviously involuntary confessions to avoid such messy inquiries and get the confession in.
I suspect that Miranda warnings don't actually do much for suspects, because they all watch cop shows on TV and could probably recite them from memory. And then they go ahead and confess anyway.
True story: One day I saw a subway cop hustling someone away. The perp said: "You didn't read me my rights." The cop replied: "I haven't asked you anything, a*****e."
1) Surely you mean the "victim of police brutality," not the "perp." (I kid, but my formulation is exactly as neutral as yours.)
2) Indeed, that's a very common complaint from people — particularly those who aren't frequent users of the criminal justice system. TV has conditioned people to believe that cops read people their rights as they're being arrested. But that's not generally how it works.
"Tekoh raises a follow-up question: If an unwarned statement is wrongfully admitted, is that a completed violation actionable under 42 U. S. C. § 1983? And if it's actionable, who is responsible for it?"
Maybe this is too simple and observation, but isn't the person responsible the trial judge? The police do not get to decide whether a statement is admitted at trial, the judge does. And improper Miranda warnings have been the subject of many an exclusion motion.
Hmmm. Interesting point. (The judge, of course, has absolute immunity* for any decision she makes during the trial...no matter how legally "wrong" an appellate court later finds it to be.)
*Absent edge cases, like if a judge takes a bribe to make a particular ruling.
The section on page 21 of the Historian's brief is titled, "Warnings Necessary in Framing Era to Overcome Improper Inducements Often Inherent in Custodial Interrogations." Under this section, there is a citation to Henry Holmes Joy, "On the Admissibility of Confessions and Challenges of Jurors in Criminal Cases in England and Ireland (1842).
This seemed like an odd source to cite, since C.J Fuller, in Wilson v. U.S. (1896), references the same source when claiming that it is not essential to the admissibility of a confession that the person was given a Miranda-style warning. In turning to the page 45 of Joy, referenced by C.J. Fuller, one is confronted with the following heading, "A confession is admissible although it does not appear that the prisoner was warned that what he said would be used against him, or although it appears that he was not so warned."
Maybe Oliver should have left that reference out of his brief.
The same treatise (pages 38-39 of the copy I found on google books) also notes
Wait, what does the "by a person who has no authority to question a prisoner" refer to?
If I'm following the treatise correctly, there was a belief that it was inappropriate for anyone other than the authorized magistrate (including constables and ordinary citizens) to ask a suspect incriminating questions.
I foresee an opinion written by Justice Thomas that delves into the original meaning of "compelled" in the context of the Fifth Amendment. A key question would be, whether an individual who confesses to a crime during interrogation, but without a Miranda warning, has, absent any other facts, been "compelled" to incriminate himself. In other words, is compulsion inherent in the absence of a Miranda warning.
One could point to the Court's language in Miranda and argue that the warnings were implemented because the modern interrogation setting is inherently coercive ("Unless adequate protective devices are employed to dispel the compulsion inherent in custodial surroundings, no statement obtained from the defendant can truly be the product of his free choice"). As such, a confession obtained during interrogation, but without Miranda, is by definition a compelled confession.
However, you could also point to the Court's language in Dickerson stating, "we concluded [in Miranda] that the coercion inherent in custodial interrogation blurs the line between voluntary and involuntary statements, and thus heightens the risk that an individual will not be "accorded his privilege under the Fifth Amendment . . . not to be compelled to incriminate himself." Under this language, the coercion inherent in the modern custodial setting only "heightens the risk" that a confession will be compelled, as opposed to the custodial setting, on its own, being enough to render a confession compelled.
I think the latter argument wins the day.