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Military Federalism and State Sovereign Immunity
Reflections from Robert Leider on the oral argument in Torres v. Texas Department of Public Safety.
Last week the Supreme Court heard oral arguments in Torres v. Texas Department of Public Safety, a case on whether Congress can abrogate a state's sovereign immunity through legislation that is necessary and proper to its war powers. (Here, USERRA.) A major theme of that argument was that the military powers are especially and exclusively federal, which might or might not imply a special exception to sovereign immunity.
But according to a new post by Professor Robert Leider, the premise of that argument is false. Here's an excerpt of his argument:
At oral argument, some Justices and Torres's attorney, Andrew Tutt, contended that a "plan of the Convention" theory applies because of the exclusivity of federal war powers. During questioning, Justice Kavanaugh emphasized that the Constitution gave the war powers entirely to the federal government. For example, he asked Mr. Tutt, "[H]ow important is the text of Article I, Section 10, which explicitly divests the states of anything on the war powers?" Justice Barrett asked Texas's Solicitor General Judd Stone, "if the states gave up all of this [i.e., their war powers] . . . does it make sense to think, oh, but they retained sovereign immunity?" She called sovereign immunity "small potatoes when you think about everything else they relinquished in this area." And on rebuttal, Mr. Tutt argued that "[t]he purpose of sovereign immunity is to protect liberty and the local autonomy of the states . . . . But, in the area of war," he continued, "it is only by vesting the war powers exclusively in the federal government that liberty can [be] protected in the way that the Constitution intends."
This theory for abrogating sovereign immunity might have some plausibility if the Framers had actually vested all the war powers in the federal government. But they did not. Quite the contrary, the Framers feared giving any level of government an unchecked monopoly of force, so they divided the war powers between the federal government and the states.
The Constitution granted the federal government substantial power to form a professional military. Congress could "raise and support Armies" and "provide and maintain a Navy." The only limitation on Congress's power over the professional military was that it could not appropriate money for the army for more than two years. (This limitation was designed to facilitate periodic debate in Congress about the necessity and size of the standing army.) But Congress had much less power over the militia. Congress could make uniform rules for "organizing, arming, and disciplining, the Militia" and it could "govern[] such Part of them as may be employed in the Service of the United States." But Congress could not federalize the militia, except to "execute the Laws of the Union, suppress Insurrections[,] and repel Invasions." Usual control of the militia remained with the states. (I explain the federal-state division of military power in more depth in my article Federalism and the Military Power of the United States.) During oral argument, Justice Breyer commented on how many different clauses in Article I, Section 8 concern the war powers, wondering whether this showed federal exclusivity. But the Constitution has so many different provisions on the war powers because the Framers carefully divided the war powers between the federal government and the states, not because the Constitution gave plenary and unrestrained authority to the federal government (which the Framers could have accomplished in substantially fewer provisions).
Nor, as some Justices contended, did Article I, Section 10 of the Constitution completely divest states of their war powers. . . .
You can read the whole post here. And I recommend more generally Professor Leider's new blog: Standing His Ground, a "Legal blog on self-defense, gun control, and the Second Amendment."
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"Usual control of the militia remained with the states. . .," with the big fat exception that only Congress can declare war.
So this statement, ". . . so (the founders) divided the war powers between the federal government and the states," is wrong.
The "war power" resides in one body only - Congress.
The states can do all the other minor things listed in the Constitution.
What they cannot do is declare war (see 1861 - 1865 for an example when some states tried and lost [and are still losing]).
Did you even bother reading the article before you began typing?
There is not one "war power", there are multiple. That's why it's called the war powers - plural. The power to declare war is only one of those powers.
"What they cannot do is declare war (see 1861 - 1865 for an example when some states tried and lost [and are still losing])."
Declaring war doesn't necessarily imply winning that war.
The Union said they couldn’t declare war and the Union won…so the winner decides the rules. War is always an option though…but only sometimes is war lawful. So when Bush said Iraq had chemical and biological weapons invading Iraq was a lawful war. Putin invading Ukraine is an unlawful war because Ukraine only had regular weapons…killing people with regular weapons is consistent with the teachings of Jesus Christ.
Powers of Congress, Article 1 Section 8: To provide for calling forth the Militia to execute the Laws of the Union, suppress Insurrections and repel Invasions;
The North wasn't at war, it was suppressing an insurrection. Declaring waw would have meant recognizing the Confederacy as a legitimate government.
You've made quite the leap in saying that exclusive authority is, somehow, the same as "plenary and absolute authority." Those aren't equivalent. You also failed to explain how you believe the states' militia powers are war powers. Unless you're arguing that states can declare and prosecute wars, their power over their militias appears to be limited to actions that are not war. Defense, insurrection, and employment in service to the United States seems to cover all war powers.
In short, I don't think you have a real argument here.
You've made quite the leap in saying that exclusive authority is, somehow, the same as "plenary and absolute authority." Those aren't equivalent.
Drewski, how can that be right, except within the limited meaning that a given exclusive power may have a defined scope? The exclusive power of the House to impeach, for instance, is not a war power, or a veto power. But if no one else can say anything to the contrary on impeachment, how is that not plenary and absolute authority over impeachments?
First, I agree that ao far as the militia is concerned, the division of power between the federal government and the states is controlled by specific detailed clauses of Article II of the constitution, and these clauses control. I agree the Framers divided the militia power and did not give the federal government all military power.
Second, the relevant clause here is Clause 16, giving Congress “power to organizing, arming, and disciplining the militia, and to govern such part of them as may be employed in the service of the United States, reserving to the states respectively, the appointment of the officers, and the authority of training the militia according to the discipline prescribed by Congress” (capitalization omitted)
Third, I think a fair interpretation of this clause probably grants Congress the power to include vaccination requirements as part of its power to “organize,” “arm,” “discipline,” and “prescribe discipline.” If nothing else, vaccines could be considered a kind of defensive arm against biological warfare.
So I don’t think there is any need to look to penumbras, emenations, or powers not explicitly granted in the text. I think a fair resding of the explicit text probably gives Congress the necessary power.
For this reason, I don’t think the controversy Professor Baude describes is really useful, relevant, or helpful to resolving the question of whether Congress can impose a vaccination requirement on a state’s militia against the state’s wishes. It can.
Makes sense to me. But then it makes sense to me to suppose that that same language includes scope for Congress to specify exactly what weapons militia members must carry pursuant to the 2A.
2A concerns the unorganized militia and protects the RKBA in DC and federal territories and obviously didn’t initially apply to the states.
See my comment below regarding the 2A. I think a fair interpretation of “a well-regulated militia being necessary to the security of a free state” gives the states a right to have a militia and protects them from direct or indirect abolition by the federal government. But I don’t think it covers this. See my comment below for why I think this is so.
Read below—Scalia covers all of this in Heller.
Sigh. Once more, you confuse "didn't apply to the states" with "didn't apply in the states."
But it created an individual right upon ratification…but that states were free to infringe the individual right…such a head scratcher. 😉
That's true of the remainder of the Bill of Rights as well.
(Though of course you should have said "recognized" rather than "created.")
My premise here is to afford states their maximum rights under a fair reading of the text. The Militia Clause of the 2nd Amendment could be interpreted as giving states the right to have a militia and protection from any attempt by Congress to abolish it. Of course it may not do that. But even if it does, I don’t think any states’ rights created by the 2nd Amendemnt would go so far as overriding a Congressionally mandated vaccination requirement. The reason is that I think such rights would at most permit courts to invalidate federal regulations that are so arbitrary and onerous they serve no arguable military purpose and are in affect attempts to abolish state militias indirectly by regulating them out of existence. However, this regulation comes nowhere close to meeting such a standard.
Of course, if the 2nd Amendment doesn’t give states a right to have a militia, my argument that the Constitution permits a federal vaccination requirement is all the stronger.
Would note that while the 2nd Anendment’s militia clause arguably gives states greater militia power than otherwise, I don’t think it gives them enough power to overcome the main constitution’s text on this point. I would interpret it as giving states a right to have a militia, which thereby doubtless gives states some power to organize militias whether Congress wants one or not, and some say in regulating them. But I wouldn’t interpret it to conflict with the main text more than necessary.
The 2nd Amendment means Congress can’t abolish state militias directly. It by logical extension can’t abolish them indirectly by imposing regulations so unnecessarily burdensome as to effectively make them impossible. But Congress gets substantial leeway so long as its regulations have some relationship to the militia function and/or with integrating the militia into national service in the event of war or an emergency.
And I would think a regulation like this would easily pass the relatively light scrutiny involved. It’s by no means a backhanded attempt to abolish state militias. And ir has an arguable relationship to arms, discipline, and being fit for federal service in the event needed for a war etc.
2A concerns the unorganized militia and the 2A didn’t initially apply to the states.
Why did the Framers use the term “well-regulated?” They liked the sound of it?
According to Scalia in Heller it was essentially a throwaway line…apparently the drafters were given a word count and they needed to hit it. 😉
The general rule of textual construction is that we favor an interpretation which gives a clause a reasonable intended meaning over an interpretation that makes it a throwaway line. I think that rule should apply here.
There are cases where it doesn’t. For example, sometimes a legislature really is redundant and uses synonyms that really mean the same thing, so attempting to give each word a unique meaning would lead to a highly artificial result. But this case is nothing like that.
A fair interpretation of the clause that gives it a reasonable meaning is that it guarantees to the states a right to have a militia.
And since this aspect of the 2nd Amendment wasn’t essential to Heller, what Scalia said in this respect was dicta. Heller concerned individual rights rights vis a vis the federal government, and McDonald concerned individual rights vis-a-vis states. Neither case decided states rights vis-a-vis the federal government. So what those rights may be remains an open wuestion, not decided by Heller or McDonald.
A rifle with sights adjust to point of impact is regulated.
A clock set so it keeps time with other clocks is regulated.
A militia subject to regular inspections, drills, and military discipline is regulated. A militia without those practices is not regulated.
Why did the Framers use the term “well-regulated?” They liked the sound of it?
That became ambiguous in modern idiom. It was pretty clear in 18th century English. Most generally, it meant under control—with an overtone of mechanistic control, as in the control of machinery by devices designed for that purpose—such as the use of a pendulum to regulate a clock. Specifically, in context, it meant a militia under prescribed military discipline.
That doesn’t sound very “unorganized” either.
And why did they mention the word “state?”
If you don’t have to consider what the text says, you can make anything mean anything you want to.
State refers to “free polity” and not the several states that make up the United States of America. Scalia covers all of this in Heller.
Did you forget "and to govern such Part of them as may be employed in the Service of the United States"
So Congress can make the regulations, but until they are called into federal service they are not governed by those regulations.
And of course the other elephant in the room: when did Congress decide that the militia or national guard needed to be vaccinated?
I somehow missed that particular act of Congress.
Title 10 U.S.C. – ARMED FORCES (call it Title 10 for short) governs the U.S. military Active Duty and Reserve Forces , and provides numerous standards for individuals and units to be qualified to serve under Title 10. This includes appropriate practices to determine, update, and administer immunization and vaccinations (including at least 16 different vaccinations at the moment). Believe me, the detail is there, and the Commander in Chief is authorized to establish and enforce them.
But to stay on-topic, question involves federalized militia, or the National Guard, so for that we need to get into 32 U.S.C. – NATIONAL GUARD (Title 32 for short).
The Commander in Chief has specific authorities under title 32 to "prescribe regulations, and issue orders, necessary to organize, discipline, and govern the National Guard." This is to ensure "the strength and organization of the Army National Guard and the Air National Guard as an integral part of the first line defenses of the United States be maintained and assured at all times."
Note that underlined part. That means even when performing drill/training under Title 32 State control (not federalized), the National Guard and Air National Guard must meet standards to be deployable under Title 10 (federalized active duty), including military-wide health/vaccination standards.
Primary applicable Title 32 language is:
That help you any?
I think this argument is defeated by the language about the states having authority to train the militia “according to the discipline prescribed by Congress.” I think that totally defeats your argument. This language talks about training, by the states, in pracetime. Even there the state authorities have to follow Congress’ disciplinary rules.
"Raise and support armies" includes things that affect the ability to attract soldiers, like getting your job back. So Texas should lose.
Its just not relevant that there may be some retained state war powers. The specific "Raise and support armies" clause controls.
That would be in keeping with the tendency to treat "necessary and proper" as meaning, "convenient, and eh, whatever." By that reasoning, you could also given soldiers lifetime immunity from speeding tickets; That would really make finding recruits easier, wouldn't it?
"you could also given soldiers lifetime immunity from speeding tickets"
Everything can be taken to an extreme. This particular case is not an extreme.
Torres was a Reserve officer, the Reserves are an important part of our military strength. Reservists naturally work regular jobs unless called to active duty. If not assured of regaining their jobs, some won't volunteer for the Reserves. If he had been a Dallas LEO, they'd have had to accommodate him, there should be no difference because he was a state LEO.
Its a reasonable exercise of federal power. Necessary and proper may not be a carte blanch grant but it means something.
What Bob said. This should be a really easy case.
Agreed. I also appreciate Bob's comment. I get frustrated by the noise ratio in the comments, and it's especially sad to me when commenters who could do better decide to just snark. I've seen Bob and Kirkland and many others who don't normally do so write cogent, reasonable, and helpful comments. I wish they'd do that more often instead of their usual schtick. Of course, they're welcome to do as they wish given the salary that I pay them. 🙂
I agree the policy is neither extreme nor unreasonable. But the current judicial interpretation of the N&P clause pretty much IS just, "convenient, and, eh, whatever". I'm hardly alone in thinking that.
It would certainly be possible to maintain a military without this law, just modestly more difficult.
I think you don’t have to go anywhere near that far to get a justification. It’s a sanitation requirement. If you can require soldiers to bath, you can require them to delouse. And if you can require them to delouse, you can require them to take something that keeps bugs off. This is really not any fundamentally different.
Medical and sanitation requirements were well known to the framers. This is no different in kind from requiring sailors to eat limes and various other 18th century military health regulations.
Except the governor of the states may also do those same things.
It also doesn't say the Federal Government has the exclusive right to arm the militia, The states could purchase weapons for their own militia, provided they were in compliance with federal rules. That actually happened during the Civil War when some units were equipped with various non standard weapons either by their states or in some cases by their commanders.
Finally, especially in the early days of the country, there could be a need for local militia to defend their communities from outside threats as happened prior to the Revolution and before the civil war when militia participated in suppressing John Brown's insurrection.
The militias failed during the AoC and so the Constitution sets minimum standards for the several state militias that were already in existence.
What does AOC have to do with it?
Autocorrect attempted to make it AOC but I caught it.
All immunity is based on an insane, self serving delusion. All immunity fully justifies violence in formal logic. Formal logic has more certainty than the laws of physics. The legal system must see formal logic and critical thinking as supreme over its medieval garbage principles. This failed, toxic occupation must be crushed to save our nation.
Science Fact: Squirrels actually salivate upon seeing Behar.
If you exclude, "But Congress could not federalize the militia, except to "execute the Laws of the Union, suppress Insurrections[,] and repel Invasions" then the only thing left is what the state Army and Air National Guards do under state control: pick up trash after floods and other natural disasters.
It is difficult to consider picking up garbage a "military power." "Militias" under state control are used no differently than inmates in the state prisons: Clearly not a "military" power.
There is nothing that prevents the Militia to be used to suppress local insurrection ( riots) as has happened several times or to defend against outside attacks. The use of posse comitatus is related to the militia by local officials to deputize citizens to deal with unrest or to apprehend lawless persons.
The Governor of Ohio called out the National Guard in May of 1970 at Kent State. The Guard killed 4 and injured 9 students. Seems like a war power to me.
Fucking Nixon!
However, it seems clear that is a police power, not a military power.
Maybe I am missing something. But what is the connection between the federal government's power of the military (whether that is exclusive or not) and abrogation of sovereign immunity? The latter immunizes states against suits by private parties, but not the United States. The U.S., or the DoD, can still sue any state to enforce its laws. Which pre-empt contrary state laws under the Supremacy Clause.
But this suit was brought by a private party.
I know that. My point is that I don't see why we must permit a private party to sue a state and abrogate its sovereign immunity. If the federal government believes its power to wage war is being compromised, it can sue in its own right.
I'm not sure what you mean by "must." Of course USERRA could have been drafted differently, so that only the federal government could bring such a claim.
But that's not what the federal government chose. (Presumably for the same reason that other federal and state employment laws also have private enforcement mechanisms: it's more effective and efficient than trying to funnel all claims through a central agency.) And assuming that the federal government can create such a cause of action under its various military powers to achieve this goal, I don't see the argument that it can't choose this method of enforcing that. (It's not like this was designed, SB8 style, to prevent states from defending themselves.) Especially given that state sovereign immunity is a legal fiction anyway.
"Especially given that state sovereign immunity is a legal fiction anyway."
LOL. Not under current Supreme Court precedent and the Eleventh Amendment, it's not.
The Court has held that federal powers conferred on Congress are not sufficient to abrogate state sovereign immunity. FLORIDA PREPAID POSTSECONDARY ED. EXPENSEBD. V. COLLEGE SAVINGS BANK (98-531) 527 U.S. 627 (1999) (patent act); Allen v. Cooper 140 S.Ct. 994 (2020) (copyright).
So why should the fact that the federal government has plenary, and even exclusive, war power, be determinative over whether it can abrogate sovereign immunity to allow a private party to sue a state?
Put differently, I don't see the connection between whether the federal government's war powers are exclusive and whether it can abrogate sovereign immunity. The Patent and Copyright power, while not exclusive, has generally been treated as such. Yet that is not enough to allow you to sue a state (or state agency) for copyright or patent infringement, even though Congress expressly allowed it.
BTW, Allen v. Cooper is a colorful case. The opening paragraph of Justice Kagan's opinion:
I'm well aware. But of course Hans (and maybe Alden v. Maine too, though I haven't thought enough about that one) is wrong.
Also, this is likely mostly academic as a substantive matter, since I'm sure there are some funds Congress can attach a waiver of sovereign immunity to in this context as a condition.
The states absolutely have control of their militia (National Guard, State Defense Forces, etc..)
However, there is no obligation on the part of the federal government to allow States militias to use their federal equipment (planes, tanks, M4's, uniforms, etc).
Jefferson Davis participated in the Mexican War leading a group of volunteers from Mississippi. One of the conditions for participating was the federal government had to supply his regiment with modern rifles. Those rifles belonged to the Mississippi state militia and not the individual volunteers or federal government. So that also undermines the notion of the unorganized militia was in possession of military grade weapons because in that instance the volunteers didn’t possess them and then at the outbreak of the Civil War the CSA didn’t depend on individuals with guns but formed an army and sourced weapons from federal forts and state militia stores and whatever guns they could buy from foreign countries.
That's just an issue of who paid for those particular arms.
Privately owned weapons were common up through at least the civil war, including artillery.
There's still a lot of privately owned artillery around. Not illegal to own a muzzle loading cannon. Or even a modern artillery piece. Harder and more expensive to get ammunition for the latter.
The whole militia question is tied up up in- what exactly is a militia? I've seen many people argue that the organized militia is ONLY the regular armed forces and the National Guard, and the various state militia forces don't count. And there are federal laws that seem to support that position. But reality 101- that's BS. Organized means organized.
Is the Coast Guard part of the organized militia? Well, currently, they're not part of the military, so to many the answer would be no. They're armed, organized in exactly the same way the US Navy is, and under control of Homeland Security, not the Pentagon. And, in case of declared war, can and likely will be transferred to the USN as in WWII.
And then let's take the Coast Guard Auxiliary- complete with ranks and responsibilities, run and organized by the USCG, with uniforms and everything, but all supplied by individuals, not states or the USCG. Are they organized militia? From their website:
Established by Congress in 1939 under title 14, §§ 23 of the U.S. Code, the United States Coast Guard Auxiliary is Semper Paratus(Always Ready). We invite you to explore our site and learn more about who we are and what we do to be "Semper Paratus."
The Auxiliary operates in
Safety and Security Patrols
Search and Rescue
Mass Casualty or Disasters
Pollution Response & Patrols
Homeland Security
Recreational Boating Safety
Commercial Fishing and Vessel Exams
Platforms for Boarding Parties
Recruit for all service in the Coast Guard
Sounds a lot like a militia to me.
How about Civil Air Patrol? From their website:
As a Total Force partner and auxiliary of the U.S. Air Force, Civil Air Patrol is there to search for and find the lost, provide comfort in times of disaster and work to keep the homeland safe. Its 56,000 members selflessly devote their time, energy, and expertise toward the well-being of their communities, while also promoting aviation and related fields through aerospace/STEM education and helping shape future leaders through CAP’s cadet program. Again, sounds a lot like a militia to me.
How about Boy Scouts? (Now Scouts USA) Now your thinking- get real. Except- during both world wars, in the USA, Canada, and Great Britain, Scouts were called upon to engage in various civil defense activities, and as spotters and coast watchers, and in England, as runners relaying messages back and forth where there were no phones or radios. Isn't that militia activity? Girl Scouts were also called upon in some cases. And- even today, should a local sheriff need volunteers in a search and rescue mission, Scouts will often be called upon. When a sheriff calls upon people for S&R or as a posse, that's activating the militia.
How about JROTC units? Militia or not? Ranks, organization, and run by the military.
Sea Cadets? Militia or not?
INHO- there's a lot more militia around then people are aware of.
"However, militias proved inadequate in the War of 1812"
On the contrary, the militia system worked out exactly as intended in the War of 1812; One of the virtues of a militia system, as opposed to a standing army, was that it was not well suited to wars of aggression.
"p.s.: No court is ever going to rule the current National Guard system unconstitutional"
But the current National Guard system is unrelated to the Militia system; As the Supreme court has ruled, it's actually an exercise of the federal government's power to raise armies. As such it's on pretty solid ground, constitutionally.
21 states have their own militaries separate from the National Guard.
"a second purpose of the 2nd Amendment was to keep the federal government's hands off control of the state militias"
It's really the only explicit purpose.
Lol, nope. The 2A refers to the unorganized militia and not the several state militias…nice try. 😉
Once again—unorganized militia is different than the militias of the several states. And keep in mind the BoR didn’t initially apply to the states but limited the federal government.
Hi m_k. If Sotomayor joined a dissent in the past that said X but the court decided Y, isn't Sotomayor now saying Y correct? I assume that if the Stevens dissent had been the opinion back then that X would now be correct, but since it's not I don't see the contradiction.
Of course the local conspiracy fiend would come up with that the underground militia.
It’s in Heller…such a head scratcher. 😉
Lol, no. According to Scalia the purpose of the 2A was to protect the individual RKBA for Americans living in DC and federal territories.
No.
You have to read the 2nd Amendment in context of the Article 1 Section 10 militia clause giving congress the power (responsibility) of arming the militia. Since it was traditional, and expected to continue that the individuals in the milita would supply their own weapons. Thus protecting the RKBA was a federal question to be protected in the constitution.
See also the 10th amendment: "The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the States..."
Clearly since Congress was delegated the power to arm the militia by the constitution, the states could not assert the power to disarm the militia, that of course would completely negate congress's article 1 power which would make no sense.
I really like to have someone explain to me how Congress could have the power to arm the militia, then make it clear the militia would individually supply their own guns, and then assert the states had the power to totally disarm their populace.
Sebastian, you really are clueless about how the supreme court works. The question before the court was whether DC could ban weapons for the residents of DC.
That's what they ruled on. They didn't rule on whether Illinois residents could also own guns because that question wasn't before the court.
Read down below what ReaderY replies to me—he’s making those replies because of the plain meaning of the 2A. I’m replying to him based on Heller’s interpretation of the 2A which is what is confusing him because Heller is absurd.
2A was a response to the events that happened at Lexington and Concord which involved the militia’s central store of arms. And the South’s response to Lincoln’s tyranny involved creating an army using arms from central stores of arms and arms confiscated from federal forts. The KKK is an example of the unorganized militia which involved individuals with guns and vigilante violence and terrorism.
Sort of. But it isn't needed. The long history of armies crippled by disease outbreaks speaks for itself.