The Volokh Conspiracy
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Comparing U.S., English, and German Self-Defense Law
T. Markus Funk (a partner at Perkins Coie and a scholar of, among other things, self-defense law) and I published an article on this subject at Bloomberg Law last week; I thought I'd reprint it, with Bloomberg's permission. The material on English and German law is Markus's contribution, and the material on U.S. law is a joint effort. I think Markus and I disagree in some measure on how self-defense 2ought to be defined, but here we just want to lay out the law as it is. (Thanks also to Perkins Coie's Sean Solis for his help.)
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"U.S. Self-Defense Law—'Harsh' By International Standards?"
Last November was marked by wall-to-wall media coverage of Kyle Rittenhouse's trial in Wisconsin for murder after he shot three men, two of whom died. Law professors, criminal lawyers, and laypersons alike filled the airwaves with varied legal and moral assessments of Rittenhouse's self-defense claims.
An evergreen aspect of the Rittenhouse coverage were declarations of U.S. self-defense law's purported laxness, particularly by international comparison.
For example, Vox offered the perspective that "America's self-defense laws are incredibly permissive, making it difficult to convict someone in a violent situation who claims to fear for their life." A New York Magazine article similarly asserted that there is an "anarchy latent in America's … expansive self-defense rights," and that America's "increasingly permissive self-defense laws" have opened "up a vast zone of permissible killing."
True, there is ample room for determined debate over the proper contours of U.S. self-defense and gun laws. In fact, the Rittenhouse case initiated calls to make it unlawful for a minor like Rittenhouse to openly carry a rifle except when hunting. But when it comes to the supposed comparative "looseness" of U.S. self-defense laws, what is being reported does not reflect reality.
On closer inspection, it turns out that U.S. self-defense law in critical ways is more restrictive than the laws found in England and Germany, two countries often described as having more "humane" and "civilized" criminal justice approaches than the U.S. (We put "harsh," "humane," and "civilized" in quotes because, of course, what might be seen as "harsh" to the people who are injured in claimed self-defense might be seen as "humane" to the people who are defending themselves, and vice versa.)
U.S. Law—Objective Reasonableness Required
U.S. self-defense law generally requires the following, though with some differences among states.
State's Burden of Proof
Though formally an affirmative defense, once a defendant introduces evidence supporting self-defense, prosecutors must disprove it beyond a reasonable doubt.
Availability of Self-Preferential Force
A defendant may only rely on the self-defense justification if all of the following are met:
- Attack: The defendant subjectively believed they were facing an actual unlawful attack;
- Necessity: The defendant subjectively believed the amount of force used or threatened was "necessary to prevent or terminate the interference";
- Objective reasonableness: The defendant's beliefs in attack and necessity, even if mistaken, were objectively reasonable; and
- Imminence: The attack was occurring or was imminent.
Deadly Force
Deadly force may be used only if the defendant reasonably believes the force is necessary to prevent imminent (1) death; (2) great bodily harm, such as serious permanent disfigurement, protracted loss or impairment of the function of any bodily member or organ, or other serious bodily injury, including rape; or (3) kidnapping.
In half of the states, deadly force can also be used to prevent robbery. Meanwhile, some states allow the use of deadly force against other specific felonies, such as burglary or arson.
No Duty to Retreat
Only approximately a quarter of the states provide that deadly self-defense is off the table when the defender can retreat with complete safety. But even those states do not require such a retreat from one's home or, in some states, one's business or vehicle. The remaining states, sometimes labeled "stand your ground" states, do not impose any such categorical duty to retreat.
Provocation
If the defender provoked the attack, they may not use deadly defensive force until they have communicated that they were desisting and have exhausted every other reasonable means to escape. Some jurisdictions, moreover, prevent provocateurs from ever regaining the right of self-defense.
English Law—Championing the Dangerous Subjective-Belief-Only Standard
Belief in Attack Can Be Objectively Unreasonable
Under contemporary English self-defense law, the defender need only prove that they "honestly" believed deadly force was necessary to avert imminent death or serious bodily harm. Under this rule, even entirely unreasonable mistaken beliefs will not preclude a self-defense claim, provided they are honestly held (though the potential unreasonableness of the purported belief is naturally relevant to whether it was, in fact, honestly held).
Consider that Rittenhouse prosecutor Thomas Binger, in closing argument, repeatedly asked the jury what a "reasonable person" would have done in Rittenhouse's position: "Would you have gone out after curfew with an AR-15 looking for trouble? Would you have aimed at other people? Would you have tried to use the gun to protect an empty car lot? No reasonable person would've done these things."
The Rittenhouse prosecution team's near-singular focus on the alleged unreasonableness of Rittenhouse's conduct highlights how game-changing a switch to an English-style honest-belief self-defense standard would be. The defendant would no longer have to prove that his belief that deadly force was required to ward off an imminent attack was objectively reasonable. In the context of a case like Rittenhouse, it would convert a challenging case for the prosecution to one in which achieving a conviction is almost entirely out of reach.
No Duty to Avoid Conflict or Retreat
We now turn to the much-debated "stand your ground" rules found in most U.S. states (but notably not Wisconsin—though in Wisconsin, the defender, in certain circumstances, need not retreat from their dwelling, motor vehicle, or place of business).
It turns out that England also rejects a categorical requirement that the defender either avoid conflict or retreat once the conflict is imminent. In fact, the same is true for legally, politically, and culturally diverse countries ranging from Argentina, Botswana, Canada, and France, to Ghana, Indonesia, Japan, Spain, and Sweden. Whether this approach is the right one can and should be the subject of debate; but it is incorrect to say that the U.S. stands alone in having such laws.
German Law—Authorizing Deadly Force to Defend an Exceptionally Broad Range of Legally-Protected Interests
What Can Be Defended?
Germany's storied self-defense law permits deadly force under a far broader array of circumstances than allowed in the U.S. In Germany, virtually all non-trivial, legally-protected interests can be defended with up to deadly force when necessary. Unlike in the U.S., then, Germany to this day allows for deadly force to protect "mere property," such as a laptop or motorcycle.
If tried in Germany, Rittenhouse would not have had to establish that he was reasonably fearful of death or serious bodily injury (questions occupying the balance of his trial). Rittenhouse instead could have simply argued that deadly force was necessary to prevent his attackers from assaulting and battering him.
This would have been a far lighter burden for him to shoulder, considering that there was little dispute that a beating was in his future. According to prosecutor Binger, even if "Joseph Rosenbaum [was] chasing after the defendant because he wants to do some physical harm to him … you don't bring a gun to a fist fight."
The Final Analysis
Common claims about U.S. self-defense law's "exceptionalism" and "inhumanity" fail under closer scrutiny. Observers in the media, academia, and elsewhere tend to conflate access to deadly force (via firearms) with the legal authorization of the same. England and Germany's self-defense laws, for example, far from being more "humane" toward the alleged attackers, place comparatively less legal restrictions on the circumstances under which deadly defensive force can be used.
Beyond assertions about U.S. self-defense law's "harshness" being factually off-base, they are distractions. They get in the way of our embarking on a more informed national debate about the proper role of, and justification for, self-preferential deadly force in a modern, democratic society.
This article does not necessarily reflect the opinion of The Bureau of National Affairs, Inc., the publisher of Bloomberg Law and Bloomberg Tax, or its owners.
UPDATE 3/16/2022: Because of a miscommunication, the original version of the story said 25 states were duty-to-retreat states; the number is actually about a quarter of the states (12 or 13, depending on how you count them).
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"Objective reasonableness: The defendant's beliefs in attack and necessity, even if mistaken, were objectively reasonable;"
WTF. What can possibly be objective about reasonableness? How can it be measured objectively? Are there reasonable units? How many are required? No. Once again, lawyer feelings rule.
Beyond that, reason is unlawful in our secular nation. Why is reason at the core of the common law, as opposed to smart, useful, utilitarian, kind, benign, helpful, or a hundred other words? Reason is a technical term. It is superior to all the alternatives, so said St. Thomas. It is the ability to perceive God in Scholasticism. The best guide to reason and to moral decision making is the New Testament, the story of Jesus. So wherever you see reason/reasonable, insert, What would Jesus do? That is illegal in our secular nation.
Why is reason, the ability to perceive God, superior to all the other alternatives? Because the alternatives are influenced by the Fall from Eden and the temptations of man, the Deadly sins.
So reason is unmeasurable, and it is based on an argument justified by a myth.
Mythical legal arguments are prohibited by the Establishment Clause.
The subject of Scholasticism was briefly covered in 10th Grade World History, where I learned about it. Why can't the lawyer denier, Volokh, a national expert on the First Amendment, read a 10th grade World History textbook to understand this problem better?
It's certainly not welcome in Behar's head.
Hi, David. Didn't you pass 1L? You were indoctrinated into supernatural doctrines, and too stupid to know it. You need to STFU, lawyer dumbass. You do not even have any awareness of what abuse was done to you. You may have entered an intelligent, ethical youth. You emerged a cult drone, stupider than a kid in Life Skills, learning to eat with a spoon. That kid has more common sense than a Supreme Court Justice, and would make a better one.
David. Every self stated goal of every law subject is in utter failure. How does it feel to belong to the vilest, the most failed, and the most toxic occupation on earth, 1000 times more toxic than organized crime?
"No. Once again, lawyer feelings rule."
Actually it's jury feelings that rule.
"Objective reasonableness: The defendant's beliefs in attack and necessity, even if mistaken, were objectively reasonable;"
What does that mean? Let's use an example. Someone is stealing your car, and you believe your child is inside it, strapped in the car seat. You can use deadly force to stop them, even if you are ultimately mistaken (and your child wasn't in the car). "Objective reasonableness" means, "would the average person, in your position, have made the same mistake".
Mind reading of a fictitious mind. That is how you make legal decisions. Are you nuts? You are.
Well, the right to self defense is utterly meaningless without the right to own the tools to defend oneself.
Technically, you may have the right to defend yourself outside when robbed at gunpoint, but if the law is skewed such that you never stand a chance because you can only carry a pocketknife (and even then probably not in NYC), the right of self defense is non existent. In those jurisdictions where people cannot own or carry weapons, the "right to self defense" is like saying biological males have the right to abortion on demand up to 36 weeks.
The lawyer always sides with evil. Why? Evil is a client. Evil generates their fees. Victims do not and may rot.
lolwut?
The lawyer, Putin, and vile, toxic, scumbag, American, lawyer traitors promised to protect Ukraine if it surrendered its nuclear weapons. See the result.
How the lawyer, Putin, protects himself.
https://nypost.com/2022/03/04/heres-how-putin-protects-himself-from-assassins-and-coups/?utm_source=zergnet.com&utm_medium=referral&utm_campaign=zergnet_7092542
Send the Bayraktar TB2s.
I carry a pocket knife legally in NYC. It can't be a switchblade or similar automatic-opener, and the blade can't be but so long, but since mine is within these restrictions it's perfectly legal.
According to the NYPD, if the blade can be opened by a flick of the wrist (by an officer who practices this maneuver) it is illegal.
This can happen with a folding knife not designed to open automatically, if the hinge connection between the handle and the blade is loose.
I suppose this is similar to the BATF agents who have become skilled at holding a semi-auto gun just right so that it will bounce in your hand and cycle continuously. (This is the action bump stocks and hellfire triggers are designed to make easier, but it can be accomplished with practice just by holding the gun loosely.)
IIUC they repealed that ban.
But it wasn't people like CJColucci that were getting arrested anyway.
My understanding is that the NY state legislature changed the law in question, however, the NYPD is still using the old standard.
My pocket knife is still legal.
That was my thought too; what good is more permissible self-defense in theory if there are no practical tools to actually implement it?
If being like every other country means I have to allow myself to be murdered by thugs I'll continue to be the weirdo thanks.
Did you skip reading the post, or did you just somehow fail to understand it?
Well, understanding it does involve understanding the distinction between having the right to defend yourself, and having the right to the means for defending yourself.
In Germany, Rittenhouse would have clearly had the right to defend himself with the gun he couldn't have had.
"In Germany, virtually all non-trivial, legally-protected interests can be defended with up to deadly force when necessary. Unlike in the U.S., then, Germany to this day allows for deadly force to protect 'mere property,' such as a laptop or motorcycle."
WOAH!!!!
You're going to have to prove that statement.
According to the German Constitution, para 230 (1): Die Selbsthilfe darf nicht weiter gehen, als zur Abwendung der Gefahr erforderlich ist. (Self-help must not go further than is necessary to avert the danger.)
https://www.buzer.de/gesetz/6597/b17827.htm
I think that you have missed the point. In some jurisdictions in the US, using deadly force is never allowed simply to protect property. If some one steals your car from your driveway in Maryland, let them.
In other jurisdictions (of which it sounds like Germany is one although I am not an expert), you are allowed to brandish a firearm or even use deadly force to protect property.
When you kill a lawyer client, you end 200 crimes a year for the lost lifespan. That means, somewhere, a vile, toxic, scumbag lawyer loses his job.
For a full description of the extent of Germany's self-defense law (including the extent to which force can be used to protect property), check out pages 40-48 at https://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/papers.cfm?abstract_id=3794928 (South Carolina Law Review)
Sorry, but your comment is very confused.
First off, your not quoting the German constitution, but the country's civil code the BGG (look at the top line of your link). The constitution does not even have 230 paragraphs, but rather ends at Art. 146.
Second, neither the Constitution nor the Civil Code are the essential source for understanding Germany's self-defence law. For that you need to check out their criminal code. The Civil Code may be instructive to determine civil remedies and the Constitution may provide certain background features but to see the substance of German Defence law you need to check out the StGB.
*BGB* not BGG.
"Self-help must not go further than is necessary to avert the danger."
That doesn't contradict the claim in the op. If you kill somebody because no lesser action will prevent them from stealing your laptop, that's perfectly consistent with the statement you quoted.
Shouldn't this discussion include the application to police? It seems that police need merely say, "I felt at risk.", yet in theory they rest on the same self defense laws in many states. Why aren't police required to satisfy the whole list of criteria?
Also, when comparing legal systems, I can never forget Newton Minnow's analysis. He said:
How do these countries assign the burden of proof for these defenses?
Then there's the classic comparative law joke: Under English law, everything is permitted except what is forbidden; under German law, everything is forbidden except what is permitted; under Russian law, everything is forbidden, especially what is permitted; and under French law, everything is permitted, especially what is forbidden.
And the Catholic version of that is that the Italians make the rules, the French interpret the rules, and the Irish obey the rules.
Oh my, K_2.
That joke is extremely dated
Back when Popes were Italian, there was the old chestnut: "You no play-a the game, you no make-a the rules."
This UK website gives a somewhat different rule: The use of force, and the amount of force employed, must be objectively reasonable under the circumstances. However, the circumstances considered are those based on the facts as honestly believed by the accused, even if that belief was incorrect or unreasonable. A subjective belief that deadly force was necessary is not sufficient.
Correct to a point - and English law is a bit confusing in this regard - subjective-only approach as to necessity of force, but objective as to amount of force to ward off the (mistaken) attack.
As explained on pages 48-40 at https://ora.ox.ac.uk/objects/uuid:f794ea71-baf3-46fd-bf78-8533ba84e230:
"The law, as set forth in Williams and Palmer,
and as reaffirmed by the 1994 Court of Appeal case of
Blackburn v. Bowering, thus has clearly provided that a person may use such force as is objectively reasonable in the circumstances as he or she subjectively believes them to be. . . . So the question today is whether, when faced with the threat honestly perceived by the defendant, a reasonable person would have used the same level of force (thus rendering the force objectively reasonable)? Put another way, was the force
used reasonable in the circumstances and danger as the defender believed them to be?"
e8, I think your quote supports my statement. The level of force must be objectively reasonable, and since zero is a level that determination necessarily subsumes the question of whether any force is appropriate. The subjective prong concerns the circumstances - the existence, severity, and imminence of a threat.
"what is being reported does not reflect reality"
Welcome to US mass media.
compare:
https://reason.com/volokh/2020/12/21/duty-to-retreat-35-states-vs-stand-your-ground-15-states/?comments=true#comment-8650300
Mr. Finkel clearly perceived (and was deeply concerned about protecting) the "human rights" of the criminal / aggressor / attacker, but, for some reason, not those of his innocent victim. Strange...
Numerous episodes of EU tv police series include a police officer's suspension - or worse- after killing a hostage taker who's holding a gun on the hostage. I get the weapons in lockers requiring authorization to sign out, mandatory hostage negotiations prior to use of force, but protection of colleagues and civilians being held hostage? It is a recurring theme - is it invented drama?
In the US, one police officer was fired for NOT shooting a (Black) suspect when he thought he didn't need to. (One of his colleagues arrived soon and fatally shot the suspect.)
The only happy party of that story is that the department eventually agreed they were wrong to fire the officer who didn't shoot: https://www.theguardian.com/us-news/2018/feb/12/stephen-mader-west-virginia-police-officer-settles-lawsuit
In Germany, can a gun user escape punishment after killing someone on grounds that the shooter "subjectively," believed the dead guy's cell phone was a gun?
The short answer is that the subjectively mistaken shooter believing a cellphone to be a gun cannot claim self-defense (but still might be able to avoid a conviction if the mistake is objectively reasonable). More specifically, under German law, the defender must possess the necessary “defensive will” ("Verteidigungswillen"), requiring connection between the defensive will and the defensive action ("motivitionaler Zusammenhang"). But, central to the above question, to claim self-defense the relevant justificatory circumstances must objectively exist.
That said, a defender who is acting pursuant to a mistake is provided a defense under Section 16 which provides:
"(1) Whoever in committing an act is mistaken about the existence
of facts which are part of the statutorily defined constituent
elements of a crime does not act intentionally. The possibility
of imposing criminal punishment for negligent conduct remains
unaffected.
(2) Whoever in committing an act mistakenly assumes the existence of circumstances which would form part of the statutorily defined constituent elements of a lesser offense can only be punished for intentional conduct in accordance with the statute defining the lesser offense."
More generally, with regard to legal outcomes, how many shooters in England and Germany escape punishment on the basis of subjective beliefs that an unarmed person was threatening them with a gun?
Deadly force bro, doesn't have to have a gun. Actually another answer to why anyone would need an AR-15? Answer, when a mob attacks you
What do the laws of Botswana, Singapore, and Uruguay have to say?
When critics of U. S. law rush to draw comparisons, the comparisons are usually with a European country.
Well, what do they have to say? Telling us that might be a real contribution.
I don't see the problem with these American laws, hence obviously I don't see the need to hunt for alternatives.
But for those who deplore American law and look for alternatives abroad - why run off to Europe in search of their examples?
Because we're more like Europe than Botswana?
Unfortunate if true.
The article focuses on English and German law, but also goes beyond Europe: "It turns out that England also rejects a categorical requirement that the defender either avoid conflict or retreat once the conflict is imminent. In fact, the same is true for legally, politically, and culturally diverse countries ranging from Argentina, Botswana, Canada, and France, to Ghana, Indonesia, Japan, Spain, and Sweden."
I may have missed this, but I thought it was the *rebuttal,* not the anti-American-law articles being rebutted, which expanded its consideration to other continents besides Europe and N. America.
Can you get off totally in England or Germany if someone throws popcorn at you, and you shoot them dead? How about if you are a mentally competent older person who is subjectively nervous at the time?
Under contemporary German law someone who is nervous or for some other reason believes an attacker throwing popcorn is posing a threat (either because they don't want to be hit with popcorn or because they mistake the popcorn for, say, a grenade) cannot successfully claim Section 32 self-defense. The mistaken actor would be addressed under Section 16, and today's socio-ethical limitations would hold that deadly force is excessive to ward off against a popcorn attack. (That said, early German self-defense law was interpreted much more broadly/harshly; according to a leading 1920's textbook "one can shoot down an attacker to defend one's ownership of a match," and another prominent academic opined that in "an era which only half-heartedly fights criminality would want to rid itself of the severity of the law of self-defense [and would require proportionality between the defensive force used and the harm threatened].").
Turning to English self-defense law, it would depend on what the defender honestly believed was happening. If the defender could convince a jury that he honestly (even if unreasonably) believed the popcorn was a grenade or that he was about to be hit with a fist, then the defender might be able to successfully claim self-defense - though the unreasonableness of the belief would factor in to whether the belief was in fact honestly held. If the defender actually believed the worst they would be exposed to is to be hit by popcorn, then the objective analysis of the amount of force would kick in and would bar a successful self-defense claim (since deadly force to defend against a popcorn attack would be deemed disproportionate).
How about if the popcorn thrower stands up while you are still seated , towers over you, and starts hitting you in the side of your head with his cell phone
And you are a frail 70 year old and he is a fit 200 pound 30 year old.
You might have a right to respond with deadly force as he pounds you in the side of your head due to the disparity of force.
Good discussion on the issue of self defense in general but applying the Rittenhouse case as an example is preposterous.
A politicized DA charged Kyle because he was defending property versus BLM protestors. You're just supposed to let them burn the place down don't you know.
You can argue "he shouldn't of been there" but he was legally allowed to be there. Therefore "shouldn't of been" is irrelevant. You can't argue about him carrying because well that is 2A.
Do reasonable people roam the streets in Kenosha burning and looting because a crackhead was possibly murdered by police in Minneapolis?
So I'm guessing these folks should of been there using the counter logic. And the whole thing was on video. Does anyone think Kyle would be alive without the gun? Case closed.
Just idiotic and anyone with a law degree who goes there is a clown. Sorry. Turn in your license.
Well, this post is comparing the literal (or literally translated) words from US, UK, and German laws. But there is also the issue of how the courts in those countries interpret those words when it gets to a trial, and how the police/prosecutor interpret them when deciding who gets detained.
I'd be more convinced by some actual example cases (if such exist) where a Brit or German walked in a situation where someone in Florida or Wisconsin would not have.
Otherwise one suspects this is a case of a person from one religion interpreting some other religion's holy book.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tony_Martin_(farmer)?fbclid=IwAR3k0A3vt2p3L0h-Ke6-T7UBtG0e_rZgkbHt9RdeoUCscOZKv6ccfHyMnmg
Twain knew that as well as anyone, having put more than his share of deliberate misinformation into newspapers.