The Volokh Conspiracy
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Defense Production Act Ban on Accumulating "Scarce Materials" to Resell for More Than "Prevailing Market Prices" Not Unconstitutionally Vague
So holds a federal court.
From yesterday's decision in U.S. v. Topouzian (N.D. Ill.); seems correct to me, whatever one might think of the wisdom or propriety of such laws.
The Information in this case charges the defendant with having willfully violated the Defense Production Act of 1950, based on his allegedly intentional accumulation of approximately 79,160 N-95 respirator masks, with the intent to resell the masks at prices in "excess of prevailing market prices" {despite having received warnings from law enforcement}. These types of masks were designated by the President under the Act as "scarce materials" due to the ongoing pandemic….
The Information charges that between March 6 and April 7, 2020, including the period after they were designated as "scarce materials," the defendant accumulated approximately 79,160 N-95 masks at prices ranging from approximately $4.27 to $7 per mask, with a mean price of approximately $5.08. However, prior to the pandemic, defendant's company did not sell N-95 or similar types of masks. Between March 29 and April 22, 2020, the defendant is charged with having sold approximately 11,492 of the masks to customers at a markup of approximately 185% to 367% per mask—in some cases the masks were sold for $19.95 for a single mask….
The defendant's insistence that the lack of a specific or numerical specification of what exactly constitutes "prices in excess of prevailing market prices" requires a finding [that the law is unconstitutionally vague] is mistaken. Indeed, the argument ignores more than a century of unbroken usage of that phrase in every imaginable legal context. As noted earlier, while the phrase "prevailing market price" appeared 70 years ago in the Defense Production Act of 1950, that was by no means its debut. Quite the contrary. The phrase had been used repeatedly for more than a century by both courts and scholars, and both before and after the Act. It must not be forgotten that "[t]he requirement of reasonable certainty does not preclude the use or ordinary terms to express ideas which find adequate interpretation in common usage." …
In crafting the Defense Production Act, Congress intended the term "prevailing market prices" to mean exactly what the term stated and what it had meant throughout its long and continuous usage in this Country: i.e. those prices charged by established vendors in the relevant market, not new market entrants seeking to inflate prices above those routinely charged in the relevant market. Courts and individuals, alike, have routinely determined whether a purchase or sale was "at the prevailing market price."
The Defense Production Act's requirement that a defendant cannot accumulate for sale or sell an item specified as scarce by the President at a price exceeding "prevailing market prices" is not "void-for-vagueness." Adherence to the requirements of the Defense Production Act requires neither an exercise of prophesy nor an "exact[ion of] gifts that mankind does not possess." Unlike statutes which have been condemned under the vagueness doctrine, the DPA does not leave open "the widest conceivable inquiry, the scope of which no one can foresee and the result of which no one can foreshadow or adequately guard against."
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Is it possible that the prevailing market price itself doubled overnight?
yes. happens all the time.
"Is it possible that the prevailing market price itself doubled overnight?"
It already had: "with a mean price of approximately $5.08". Well, way more than doubled. Home Depot is selling N95 masks for $1.18 each as we speak, which is about what I remember from pre-covid days.
Seems to me that, unless he held a gun to his customers' heads, they were voluntary transactions which established the prevailing market price.
What if someone else was holding a proverbial gun to the customer's head?
"Buy this product at this inflated price or else die"
Nobody was, or they'd be prosecuting for the extortion, instead.
Hmm, so what was the first usage of "excess of prevailing market prices" - now I'm curious.
The opinion seems quite circular, essentially saying that the meaning of the phrase 'current market price' is self evident current market price.
A clear definition would be something like 'the market price is the median plus/minus two standard deviations of the price as it existed in the preceding three months', or some such thing.
As it is, no one can possibly know what illegal pricing is until the judge knows it when he sees it.
Perhaps it is an intelligence test. If you can't figure it out, better stay away from selling DPA-covered goods.
"Prices charged by established vendors in the relevant market, not new market entrants". Using that definition established vendors can not be guilty of price gouging, but I think the government would try to narrow the definition to "established vendors whose prices we approve of".
If you read carefully, you will see that vendors is used in the plural. Why that would prevent any single established vendor from being guilty of price gouging escapes me.
Make an argument instead of asking a question.
So is this why Dr. Fauci told us early in the pandemic that we shouldn't wear masks?
Ooh Ooh Ooh Mister Kotter!! I'm Telling!! you're a Mask Denier!!!!!!!!!!!
Isn't essentially impossible to sell above the market price, since it's only objective measure is "what things sell for."? I mean, unless you literally, (Not figuratively!) hold a gun to someone's head. Only people doing that in this case were the cops.
Setting aside that this wasn't interstate commerce, and the well established counterproductive nature of price controls....
No. It's not impossible at all.
"Market price" includes the word "market," which in turn implies a large number of transactions, entered into by generally informed market participants.
Outlier sales are entirely possible.
"...which in turn implies a large number of transactions, entered into by generally informed market participants."
The case at hand apparently involved 11,492 transactions. Is that a small number, or were the participants not generally informed of the current cost and availability of N95 masks?
No. It didn't involve 11,492 transactions. It involved 11,492 masks.
Is that a small number? I don't know. What was the total number of these masks sold in the relevant time period?
In the millions to hundreds of millions range.
Market is the exchange of one object of value (say, money) for another (say, masks)... It does not have to be a large number of transactions, simply what an object will bring in exchange
Even taking your semantic point as true (I disagree, but not worth the argument), fair market value is an ascertainable thing. and may not be equal to a given transaction.
It may, under some definition or other, (Maybe Gasman's suggestion above.) be an ascertainable thing, but the law does not provide or reference such a definition, or even a way to pick among competing definitions.
And it needn't, because that is a question of fact, well within the purview of courts.
Yes, it's the courts rectum, and it's well within their purview to pull t things out of it, but how does the defendant know in advance what they'll pull out?
No. It's not.
If there are 100,000 transactions, at prices between $9 and $11, the fact that there is one transaction at $20 doesn't make $20 the "prevailing market price."
The problem is not that you couldn't come up with a definition of a "prevailing market price". It's that no such definition was provided, so you wouldn't know which of many competing definitions might be applied.
One sigma from the mean? Three sigma? The mean for the whole country, or your local town? Rolling 3 week average, or close of business the day before?
The law could have picked a definition, and people would know when their conduct was legal or illegal. But it didn't, so they didn't.
You seem to be making an argument to notice/intent here. Which is not what was pled.
Because looking at the facts, that's a pretty hard argument to make.
How is void for vagueness NOT a question of notice? If the law is too vague for you to know in advance what it means, you're not on notice as to what you can get away with doing.
Were prevailing market price a novel term, I might agree with you. The point of void for vagueness is that the defendant has no notice of what the law is.
But it's very much not. There are known and established procedures used in both the public and private sectors for making this inquiry.
And the defendant seemed to know what they were doing.
Oh, I agree that his conduct was exactly what the law was intending to target, no question about that. Not the most sympathetic defendant, either, and rather imprudent of him to persist after being told to knock it off; As I said in another comment, the cops telling you that what you're doing is illegal isn't that great a guide to what's actually illegal, but it's an excellent guide to what will get you in trouble.
I think it's economically stupid to punish people who sell stuff for high prices during shortages.
I think this is beyond any reasonable reach of Congress' enumerated powers.
I think the degree of delegation here is starkly insane.
I think the law fails to actually give reasonable notice of what will and will not get you in trouble.
But this guy is not a case at the margins. I'll give you that much.
So now we are onto a policy argument. Which is also fun, but not the same as your initial discussion of proper judicial ambit.
Just like countercyclical spending, I think it actually enhances the utility of capitalism to smooth out short-term market inefficiencies like gluts and gouges above and beyond the national security arena. I know the Hayekians will say this screws up incentives in ways that cause subtle longer term effects, but I see manifest suffering that can be addressed, versus some second order effects that I don't think are so clear.
As to enumerated powers, you can continue to tilt at Wickard but I think
1) that's commanded by McCulloch's necessary and proper analysis, and
2) it's also commanded by the practicalities of having a modern state. Which I know your 1980s unoriginalist originalism doesn't care about, but which matters to most everyone else, originalist or no.
As to the degree of delegation and the notice issue, I'm not sure you can mount a facial challenge given the string of precedents on how this Act has been applied, including the case in the OP.
Brett, you are not so silly that you don't think price gouging is a thing.
And since the masks were produced by the government, this guy accepting them under false pretenses seems like you don't need a commerce clause rant at all!
"Brett, you are not so silly that you don't think price gouging is a thing."
This isn't an argument.
Price gouging is reacting to a sudden change in market conditions in a way that the government doesn't like. The fact that you want to say that it's a "thing" doesn't make Brett's comment incorrect.
Brett's logic excludes the possibility that price gouging can occur, since he's made fair price a tautology.
I said nothing about "fair", "fair" is not an economic concept, nor should it be a legal one. "Fair" is a matter of opinion.
The problem isn't quite that it's a tautology, it's that the court is engaging in "I know it when I see it" reasoning, and that sort of reasoning never gives the defendant notice of what they can and can't get away with doing.
'reasonable' is also a matter of opinion. Courts issue things called 'opinions!'
Making judgement calls is not a new or strange part of a court's duties.
I have no doubt that something YOU would call "price gouging" exists.
"And since the masks were produced by the government,"
Where did you get that idea?
"this guy accepting them under false pretenses"
Or that one?
I think that the guy is right that the phrase, "prevailing market price" is really too vague to base a conviction upon. How the hell do you computer "prevailing market price", and can you demonstrate that any two people would arrive at the same number?
The fact that the government persists in using this term doesn't give it an objective definition.
What do you think the DPA does? It's about using DoD resources. So...
Did you miss 'the intent to resell the masks at prices in "excess of prevailing market prices" {despite having received warnings from law enforcement}.'
Dude took the king's coin, but never planned to play the king's tune. The king gets to be unhappy about that.
What do I think the DPA does? Well, I know what it doesn't do:
Regulate things the government itself produces and sells. Sometimes stuff the government buys.
What the hell do YOU think it does?
"Dude took the king's coin,"
Literally did not happen. This was the government butting into private market transactions.
Balls.
Ya got me there, I thought the scope was defined by the discussion having to do with Trump's invoking it for the Wall. But the Act is indeed more than that:
1) Authorizes the president to require businesses to accept and prioritize contracts for materials deemed necessary for national defense, regardless of a loss incurred on business. Also allows the president to designate materials to be prohibited from hoarding or price gouging.
2) Authorizes the president to establish mechanisms (such as regulations, orders or agencies) to allocate materials, services and facilities to promote national defense.
3) Authorizes the president to control the civilian economy so that scarce and critical materials necessary to the national defense effort are available for defense needs.
Admittedly, given just the name of the law, you'd think it had to do with things the government was producing, since it's the "defense production act".
But it's really just about the government instituting price controls and taking over industry whenever it declares doing so is important.
I don't disagree with you here - I've never liked the general 'waive the national security magic wand and all internal controls disappear' thing.
I have no problem with these powers when it comes to actual national security threats (and looking at the history, I think that's mostly how it's been used [though YMMV]), but as written this is quite the blank check. Some Congressional oversight procedure in making this determination would be good.
How the hell do you computer "prevailing market price", and can you demonstrate that any two people would arrive at the same number?
Courts have been figuring out fair market value for a very long time. It's not easy, but it's also not impossible, so long as no one frames it as if each transaction is it's own new market like you want to.
Like reputation evidence, it's generally done with expert testimony, IIRC. So there is no formula, but neither is it a fact-free inquiry.
Yes, courts have been making up shit for a very long time. Making up shit is hardly impossible. But if you can't specify an objective procedure for arriving at a price, that's all you're doing: Making up shit.
It sounds like you have a complete misunderstanding of what courts do.
Making a judgement call is not making shit up. It's actually a necessary part of interfacing with a reality where not everything is perfectly clear.
Everyone does this; it's part of life. Courts have as part of their job making these calls on behalf of the government. They are not the only branch of government to do so, either!
OK, from above it seems more like you don't understand the void for vagueness due process objection.
It's actually a procedural issue, not a substantive one - it's not a nondelegation doctrine for the courts - it's about giving proper notice to the defendant.
Making a well understood fact-based inquiry gives plenty of notice of what the safe harbor, guardrails, and risks are.
"Courts have been figuring out fair market value for a very long time."
And nobody puts judges in jail if they think the judge got it wrong.
Some states define gouging as profit margins greater than 10-30% over wholesale prices during an emergency period.
I imagine that such a guideline varies federally and in other states, but that there is some rule.
I know in my locality, 10% over cost is allowed in an emergency, but >11% is not.
Because that could lead to insane hoarding, my locality allows sales to be quantity limited.
1)Price gougers are not sympathetic defendants. From an ethical POV, this guy got what he deserved.
2)I didn't find the decision very convincing. Prices have a very explicit temporal component - a house that was worth $X in 2007 sure as heck wasn't worth that in 2010. That's not just true of houses - it's true of everything. Someone forecasts a cold winter and fuel prices go up. Forecast a drought and wheat prices go up.
The decision exhaustively catalogs use of "prevailing market price", but none of the examples seemed to fully come to grips with the notion that the price paid by a willing buyer and seller varies over time. Examples of people colluding to sell at above or below the *current* market price aren't on point.
Suppose I'm a commodity trader buying and selling gas. I'm making a lot of predictions about the future - gas prices rise in the summer, they might decline if a new pipeline is approved, or rise or decline based on the health of the king in Riyadh.
Then something happens - maybe that coup in Riyadh - and prices spike, and the president declares gas a 'scarce material'. What price can I sell my gas for? The previous price over some period? Who do I ask what the safe price is? I just looked and the average price of gas over the last year has gone from just over $2 to well over $3. Is the only thing stopping prosecution of gas station owners that gas hasn't been designated a scarce material?
Or look back at the Texas winter storm - people willingly contracted to buy electricity at up to an infinite price if it got scarce enough, which it did. That's even rational to do if you get a lower normal rate and can afford to not use it when the price spikes, by firing up the wood stove or whatever. Do those contracts become invalid with the stroke of the presidential pen?
It's fun to see gougers get spanked, but the decision seems to really deal with the temporal nature of market prices.
The goal is to not rely on extremis in people being willing to pay for it.
Again this does not address wisdom of it as policy.
For example, laws against $20 bags of ice in hurricane zones doesn't mean cheap bags of ice there, it means no bags of ice, as people from NY and Georgia don't load up refrigerator trucks and drive down there.
And the follow up punch, government created a program to compensate for the problem they caused. They held bidding and loaded up a fridge train with ice, which arrived months later, when it was irrelevant and nobody wanted or needed it anymore. After a year, the ice was declared unfit for human consumption and destroyed.
The prevailing market price is whatever someone is willing to pay for it.
This. The law isn't vague, just meaningless - all sales are at market price at the time of sale, by definition.
All lot of commenters missed the key word "intent" to sell above market prices. Which can be shown with, for an example, "we will hoard masks and resell them when prices go up."
"prevailing market prices" is not vague and occurs in a lot of legal contexts (and no doubt is a term embedded in a lot of contracts as well).
I am still curious when the first legal reference is though. The term "prevailing market prices" might date to before Adam Smith in the economics literature.
"All lot of commenters missed the key word "intent" to sell above market prices. Which can be shown with, for an example, "we will hoard masks and resell them when prices go up.""
Can you contrast that with perfectly normal market practices, e.g. farmers leaving grain in the silo hoping prices will go up, or refineries routinely doing the same prior to the regularly scheduled price variations (gas goes up in summer, heating oil goes up in winter, etc)?
Did I miss the executive order designating oil or grain scarce under the Defense Production Act? Because if there was, storing/hoarding them could be problematic.
So, theoretically, the president could issue an EO declaring anything he wants a "scarce commodity" and criminalize market speculation
It doesn't even take an EO, it just requires the President and sometimes the Secrtary of Defense to "determine" that said good or service is essential to the "national defense".
The law as a whole is pretty absurd. The President and Secretary of Defense can turn the US into a total command economy using it, including requiring that companies accept and prioritize contracts issued by the government even if they take a loss doing it.
Given that any commodity with a non-zero price has a certain scarcity, then sure, declare away. Dems already assume the economy runs on pixie dust and fairies.
Sorry, I almost added '(assuming, of course, that the president designates...)'; I thought it would be obvious. So, the president has done so, and you are setting on a pile of something that has normal wide price swings. What price can you sell it at?
Defendants we're not sitting on them, they intentionally accumulated them after the EO with the intent to resell them at a higher price.
FWIW, according to the decision the masks were purchased between 6 March and 7 April. The notice declaring masks scarce was published on 25 March, so some of the acquisitions were prior to the declaration.
But I take your point, that buying more after the declaration is a lot sketchier than doing so prior.
Is your reading of 50 USC 4512 that it only applies to things purchased after the scarcity notice is published?
Yes, this :
based on his allegedly intentional accumulation of approximately 79,160 N-95 respirator masks, with the intent to resell the masks at prices in "excess of prevailing market prices"
indicates that the test is done at the time of purchase, not at the time of resale. Thus you buy on Wednesday for $5 with intent to resell on Friday at $10, and even if the prevailing market price is $10 on Friday, you're still guilty. Because prevailing market price means the price prevailing on Wednesday, when you bought with evil intent.
This implis that if you do your speculative purchase before the materials are designated as scarce, you can gouge away to your heart's content when the price goes up.
He bought 79,160 between 6 Mar and 7 Apr, and subsequently sold 11,492, with the notice published on 25 Mar. If he was using LIFO management of his inventory, he didn't sell any asks purchased after the publication.
He may have; I didn't see a discussion in the decision whether the masks sold were purchased pre or post publication. If your reading of the law is right, wouldn't that be important?
Ooops, should be FIFO instead of LIFO.
Well, I haven't read the law itself, only the bit from the decision excerpted above. Which seems to be about "intentional accumulation" and "intent to resell" , and thus points to the state of the world - including prevailing market price - at the time of acquisition.
As for LIFO and FIFO, they are essentially accounting notions. In a criminal case I should have thought the prosecution would have to prove exactly which masks he sold - if of course any actual sale is necessary to fall within the rule. It may be that "intent to resell" is enough.
However, it seems unlikely that I have correctly interpreted the law, sight unseen, since my point is such an obvious one, it seems unlikely that it would have escaped his lawyer.
OK I clicked on the link and the law is quoted thus :
"In order to prevent hoarding, no person shall accumulate (1) in excess of the reasonable demands of business, personal, or home consumption, or (2) for the purpose of resale at prices in excess of prevailing market prices, materials which have been designated by the President as scarce materials or materials the supply of which would be threatened by such accumulation."
From which it seems clear that my supposition was broadly right.
(a) it is solely about accumulation, either excessively, or with intent to resell - ie nothing to do with any actual resale (and doubleplus so, as the alleged mischief is "hoarding" - which remains mischievous even if there is no resale)
(b) it requires that your accumulation takes place after the Presidential designation ("which have been designate)
The "prevailing market price" language is not entirely clear as to whether we are looking at an intent to resell at a price in excess of PMP at acquistion, or at resale, but in context the former seems sane, and the latter silly.
One assumes therefore that it is the gentleman's post designation purchases which got him into trouble.
I'd assume it was his post "FBI told him to cut that out" purchases, actually. Kind of hard to argue to a court that you didn't know that what you were doing was illegal after the cops tell you it's illegal.
Even if the cops telling you something illegal isn't really a good guide to the law some of the time, it's a pretty good guide to what will get you in trouble.
Yup.
Having now forced myself to read the whole judgement, it's obvious that because this was a Motion to Dismiss, based on the defendant's theory that "prevailing market price" was unconstitutionally vague, neither the lawyers nor the judge directed their minds to the actual specifiation of the offense.
For example there are passages in the judgement - eg
The Information charges that the defendant intentionally sold thousands of respirator masks at markups of up to 367% per mask, in violation of the DPA’s prohibition of sales of certain specified products in excess of “prevailing market prices,”
in which the judge seems to think that it is the selling, not the accumulation with intent to resell, which is made criminal. Presumably in the actual case, attention will be paid to the text of the law specifying the offense.
Every person who buys something for resale expects the price of it to go up... Selling for what you paid for it is called bankruptcy.
"and resell them when prices go up." - I wonder if you realize what you're saying here.
"Defense Production Act"
Are we in some sort of war? A public health situation is not national defense.
That was my initial reaction, too = DPA
Since this is a libertarian oriented blog....
Philosophically, why is this a crime? Topuzian took all the risk (economic, medical, etc), legally procured an item that was highly in demand and in short supply, and intended to supply the market, to make a profit. Everybody wins. The market is supplied, and Topuzian makes a tidy profit from taking quick action.
What if before he supplied the market, he intentionally cleaned it out, to create a local shortage which only he could remedy?
Are you seriously claiming ~80k N-95 masks, in our global ship-anywhere economy, is enough to clean out the market?
3M alone produced 630 million masks per year in 2019 (before the pandemic - production is up more than 4-fold since then). That's more than 1.7 million N-95 masks per day. They were only one of ten American companies producing N-95 masks before the pandemic.
It seems incredibly unlikely that the defendant caused the price increase by his hoarding. The price shift was primarily caused by a demand spike, not a supply drop.
"Philosophically, why is this a crime?"
1) Did his actions increase the supply of the product?
2) Did his actions move the product from an area that had excess supply to one that was deficient?
3) Was the product critical for life, during a time of emergency?
4) Was his profit margin "excessive" (>20% per year?)
5) If others followed his actions, would it result in loss of life?
Those are some key questions to ask. It's a market breakdown situation in a short term situation.
One of the key problems with price gouging and hoarding in these situations is that due to an unanticipated short term local emergency, it makes "sense" to hold onto the product, and wait for the price to go up and up, far beyond the cost of acquisition or production, before releasing it. But in the meantime, it costs people's lives. It's especially difficult when it takes time to produce more of the product.
Let's give an example. A given country is relatively isolated from the rest of the world. Typically this country would export food, and the food would be controlled by multiple companies and individuals. However, due to a recent emergency, it turns out a good chunk of the current food storage has been destroyed. While more than enough food exists to feed the country, the vast majority lies under the control of a single individual. Rather than sell the food, the individual holds onto it, causing a food shortage, and widespread starvation and death. This destroys the nation's economy. Once 10% of the country has died, the person sells his food supply, at massively inflated prices.
This is an example of a market failure.
"2) Did his actions move the product from an area that had excess supply to one that was deficient?"
In a temporal sense it did. It caused some of the supply to drop out of the market in a period of lower demand, and become available in a period of higher demand.
Interesting questions
1. Yes...it decreased the product from a high demand area to a REALLY HIGH demand area
2. Yes...it increased product availability in a REALLY HIGH demand area
3. Yes
4. No. But note I reject the premise of 'excessive'.
5. No. It would save lives in the REALLY HIGH demand area (if you assume these masks are reliable, and will stop you from inhaling the virus).
You were *fine* with Trump using the DPA for the Wall.
Try to hide your disingenuousness a bit more.
"Fine" is an exaggeration. We pointed out that it was legal for him to do it, and plausibly better justified as an actual "defense" measure than many things it's used for.
You I have less issue with on the consistency front in this case (though your new argument that the DPA is void for vagueness would have been nice to see back in the day).
But Bob *did* approve of the DPA for the wall, and now has issues with invoking national defense in any broad way. (Plagues have been a national defense issue since the city of Ur, but that's neither here nor there)
Trump issued this order too.
You approve of the DPA for masks, and had issues with invoking national defense in any broad way for the wall.
I'm not the king of consistency, but on this one I have been consistent: I think plagues are national security, but I still think the DPA is too blank a check:
https://reason.com/volokh/2021/12/14/defense-production-act-ban-on-accumulating-scarce-materials-to-resell-for-more-than-prevailing-market-prices-not-unconstitutionally-vague/?comments=true#comment-9258756
Can you say the same?
Sarcastr0...it is asking a philosophical question since this is a libertarian-oriented blog, not a personal belief on whether he acted rightly or wrongly.
Doesn't sound like the defendants challenged that aspect. That's an interesting question. the law requires that "President finds (1) that such material is a scarce and critical material essential to the national defense, and (2) that the requirements of the national defense for such material cannot otherwise be met without creating a significant dislocation of the normal distribution of such material in the civilian market to such a degree as to create appreciable hardship."
But it does not say how the President should determine what's critical for national defense. Arguably he could just say "hey, cars, microchips, etc are critical for national defense"
But the defendants did not challenge that.
It's not immediately obvious how one would challenge the designation. The Defense Production Act does contemplate judicial review in general: "No person shall be held liable for damages or penalties for any act or failure to act resulting directly or indirectly from compliance with a rule, regulation, or order issued pursuant to this Act, notwithstanding that any such rule, regulation, or order shall thereafter be declared by judicial or other competent authority to be invalid." The Act does not itself provide for judicial review. A constitutional claim can be brought as it was in this case. Regulations can be challenged under the Administrative Procedure Act. But orders of the President are not regulations.
The crime of supporting a designated terrorist organization does not allow the supporter to challenge the designation. However, the alleged terrorist does have the right to challenge designation.
The hoarding by this guy meant that our military, supply chain, and emergency healthcare personnel could not buy. It did cost lives. It did weaken our national security.
He should also be up on murder and treason charges.
He's a Horder, and possibly a Wrecker!
That's their go to these days, beef prices are high because of greedy "meat conglomerates" .
Funny how they weren't greedy for the last 40 years.
For example, if stock in Gould Pump is selling at $12/share, and you make a tender offer at $15, then the dirty price gougers who sell are getting a 25% premium.
Of course someone who bought at $12 because he knew the tender was coming might have other problems.
"...materials which have been designated by the President as scarce materials"
Buying before the EO seems legal. Buying after for the purpose of profiteering isn't. Selling items after the EO (which were bought before) at excessive prices seems highly suspect but its a gray area to me.
Note that the defendants were repeatly warned and did this anyway.
meant to be a reply to the question "it only applies to things purchased after the scarcity notice is published?"
Sounds vague. What's the difference between intending to sell above the prevailing market price, and expecting the prevailing market price to increase?
He didn’t sell right away. He waited. Any honest business will sell at least a portion immediately. His intent is obvious by his actions.
Why would an honest businessman sell right away if he expects the prevailing market price to increase?
What's the difference between being in a wholesale business and benefiting on existing inventory when happenstance delivers a market price rise, or, attempting a corner, as a means of creating a predictable price rise, coupled with a "fortunate," inventory capacity to meet demand? What is to be said in the latter instance when the commodities involved are life-saving medical supplies?
"What's the difference between being in a wholesale business and benefiting on existing inventory when happenstance delivers a market price rise, or, attempting a corner, as a means of creating a predictable price rise, coupled with a "fortunate," inventory capacity to meet demand?"
But this bill doesn't say anything about that. It applies even in a perfectly competitive market.
I hope even if the law is not void for vagueness the rule of lenity will require a favorable jury instruction on what market price means.
"prevailing market prices" is not vague and occurs in a lot of legal contexts (and no doubt is a term embedded in a lot of contracts as well).
The term might not be vague, but it presumes broad market conditions which remain stable in the context of local disruption of supply.
When one tries to understand "prevailing market" in the context of a rapidly changing global context, such change is part of the prevailing market.
And in that context the term is shown vague.